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• Cocoa framework development: sharing between projects

  - by e.James

  I am currently developing a handful of similar Cocoa desktop apps. In an effort to share code between them, I have identified a set of core classes and functions that can be common across all of these applications. I would like to bundle this common code into a framework which all of my current applications (and any future ones) can link against. Now, here's the hard part: I'm going to be developing this framework as I go, so I need each of my desktop apps to have a reference to it, but I want to be able to edit the framework source code from within each of the app projects and have the framework automatically rebuilt as required. For example, let's say I have the Xcode project for DesktopAppNumberOne open, and I decide that one of my framework classes needs to be changed. I would like to: Open and edit the source file for that framework class without having to open the framework project in Xcode. Hit "build" on DesktopAppNumberOne, and see the framework rebuilt first (because one of its sources has changed), then see parts of DesktopAppNumberOne rebuilt (because one of the frameworks it links against has changed). I can see how to do this with only one app and one framework, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it with multiple apps that share a single framework. Has anyone had success with this approach? Am I perhaps going about this the wrong way? Any help would be appreciated.

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• Eclipse Juno won't create Android Activity

  - by MikkoP

  I downloaded Eclipse Juno Java EE edition and installed ADT plugin. I created a new Android Application Project from Eclipse and in the wizard I created an activity called TaskariActivity. After I pressed finish, it created the project but not the activity and the wizard didn't close. I pressed cancel. No activity or anything in the src folder. I created a new activity by right clicking on src, selecting new -> other -> Android -> activity. I selected BlankActivity (as earlier when I was creating the project), selected the earlier created project in the Project combo box. I set the Activity name as TaskariActivity, layout name as activity_main and title as TaskariActivity. Next I selected navigation type and I set it to Tabs + Swipe (I thought this would make me tabs and everything I had to do would be just inserting the elements and the actions for them). I pressed next, nothing happened. Finish didn't also do anything. I pressed cancel and an activity wasn't created. So, how can I create an Android application like in the earlier version of Eclipse? It automatically created the activity and it was ready be run out of the box. Now it won't generate any files and the new activity wizard doesn't work. Help?

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• How do I ensure my C# software can access the internet in a Citrix + ISA environment?

  - by TomFromThePool

  Hi everyone, A client recently informed us that deployment of our software in their environment has failed due to a proxy error when the software attempts to access the internet. The client has a combination of Citrix and Microsoft's ISA server. The software allows the use of a proxy and the ability to manually enter authentication information, or automatically retrieve the current system proxy settings. The error returned is the standard 407 authentication error, but the client assures us that they have entered the authentication information required. They have also shown us the snippet of the ISA error logs which identify the client as Anonymous and the authentication protocol as Basic. I have a few questions I suppose: How should I go about dealing with the ISA server in my code? I have no real experience with this environment and am assuming that the ISA server is treated like any other proxy. If I am mistaken, what should I be doing? Does ISA allow the administrator to disallow specific authentication protocols - and if this is the case and 'Basic' auth is disallowed, would it still return a 407 error? Could the Citrix environment have caused this issue? Is there any particular way to ensure that my software will work in such an environment? Code-samples would be much appreciated. I have neither a Citrix test server or an ISA server at my disposal to carry out testing on this so I am currently trying to identify possible causes before I make the case for investment in a more robust testing environment. Thanks for any help!

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• What are the common compliance standards for software products?

  - by Jay

  This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

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• Execute process conditionally in Windows PowerShell (e.g. the && and || operators in Bash)

  - by Dustin

  I'm wondering if anybody knows of a way to conditionally execute a program depending on the exit success/failure of the previous program. Is there any way for me to execute a program2 immediately after program1 if program1 exits successfully without testing the LASTEXITCODE variable? I tried the -band and -and operators to no avail, though I had a feeling they wouldn't work anyway, and the best substitute is a combination of a semicolon and an if statement. I mean, when it comes to building a package somewhat automatically from source on Linux, the && operator can't be beaten: # Configure a package, compile it and install it ./configure && make && sudo make install PowerShell would require me to do the following, assuming I could actually use the same build system in PowerShell: # Configure a package, compile it and install it .\configure ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { make ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { sudo make install } } Sure, I could use multiple lines, save it in a file and execute the script, but the idea is for it to be concise (save keystrokes). Perhaps it's just a difference between PowerShell and Bash (and even the built-in Windows command prompt which supports the && operator) I'll need to adjust to, but if there's a cleaner way to do it, I'd love to know.

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• Safari doesn't detect my Extension Certificate

  - by Questor

  Hello, all! I have registered for the Safari Development Program and have a valid Apple ID. I've followed all the steps given by Apple. The problem is that Windows XP (Service Pack 2) does not recognize the command 'certreq', whereas the instructions said it would work on any Windows machine. However, the command 'certreq' was working on Windows Vista on the machine of my co-worker's, I downloaded the certificate (the .cer file) and installed it and Safari detected it. However, I don't have Windows Vista. I installed Windows 7 now on my machine, the command 'certreq' works and I have the Safari Extension Certificate (the .cer file) but when I open Safari's Extension Builder, my certificate does not appear there. I entered mmc in Start -- Run and checked if the certificate was installed there. It was in the 'Other People' but not in 'Personal'. Even on Internet Explorer 7+, when I go to Tools -- Internet Options -- Content (Tab) -- Certificates, the certificate is not there in the Personal tab, (WHEREAS IT GOT INSTALLED IN THE PERSONAL FOLDER AUTOMATICALLY IN WINDOWS VISTA). I tried importing the certificate (the .cer file) into the Peronal folder, the import is successful but still neither does it appear in the personal folder nor does Safari recognize/detect it when I go to the Extension Builder. ANY HELP?! I need to make an extension for my office project and the deadline is approaching. I really need to get it done. Thanks a million in anticipation.

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• Getting base address of a process

  - by yoni0505

  I'm trying to make a program that read the timer value from Minesweeper. (OS is windows 7 64bit) Using cheat engine I found the base address of the variable, but it changes every time I run Minesweeper. What do I need to do to find out the base address automatically? Does it have something to do with the executable base address? Here's my code: #include <windows.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { DWORD baseAddress = 0xFF1DAA38;//always changing DWORD offset1 = 0x18; DWORD offset2 = 0x20; DWORD pAddress1; DWORD pAddress2; float value = 0; DWORD pid; HWND hwnd; hwnd = FindWindow(NULL,"Minesweeper"); if(!hwnd)//didn't find the window { cout <<"Window not found!\n"; cin.get(); } else { GetWindowThreadProcessId(hwnd,&pid); HANDLE phandle = OpenProcess(PROCESS_VM_READ,0,pid);//get permission to read if(!phandle)//failed to get permission { cout <<"Could not get handle!\n"; cin.get(); } else { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(baseAddress),&pAddress1,sizeof(pAddress1),0); ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress1 + offset1),&pAddress2,sizeof(pAddress2),0); while(1) { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress2 + offset2),&value,sizeof(value),0); cout << value << "\n"; Sleep(1000); } } } }

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• Button Template does not render Image clearly.

  - by Akash Kava

  Here is my button template, <Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome x:Name="Chrome" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" RenderDefaulted="{TemplateBinding IsDefaulted}" RenderMouseOver="{TemplateBinding IsMouseOver}" RenderPressed="{TemplateBinding IsPressed}"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Source="{TemplateBinding ImageSource}" RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" SnapsToDevicePixels="True" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Stretch="None" /> <ContentPresenter Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Grid> </Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome> Now you can see as per this question My Images are blurry on StackOverflow I tried .. RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" On all levels, grid, chrome .. and tried various combinations of SnapsToDevicePixels but images just wont show up correctly. I set Stretch=None, image is aligned at center, still why it stretches automatically? here is the output and its very frustrating. Actual size of the image is 16x16 but I some how figured out by using Windows Maginifier that no matter what I do, the image is actually trying to render as 20x20, for the bigger images its even cropping the right most and bottom part. I think image should be rendered correctly 16x16 when Stretch=None, can anyone clarify whats problem here?

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• Quick MVC2 checkbox question

  - by kevinmajor1

  In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

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• Clickonce redirect

  - by David Hagan

  Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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• Submit form using javascript, work in FF but not in IE

  - by Permana

  I have this code. The code below is working in Firefox, but it is not in IE <body> <?php $data = getLoginData($_SESSION['whoyouare']); ?> <form name="frm_redirect_dfr" action="<?php echo $data['url']; ?>" method="POST" id="frm_redirect_dfr" style="display: none;"> <input name="DFRNet_User" value="<?php echo $data['username']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="DFRNet_Pass" value="<?php echo $data['password']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="tbllogin" value="login" type="hidden" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> document.forms["frm_redirect_dfr"].submit(); </script> </body> What I want to do is, when user access the page, it first will try to get login data, echo it in the form, and submit the form automatically using javascript

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• SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

  - by Adam Kane

  In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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• WCF Web Service - Service Unavaiable

  - by born to hula

  I have a WCF Web Service which is kept under an Application Pool on IIS. Lately I've been getting "Service Unavaiable" when I'm trying to make calls to this Web Service. The first thing I tried to do was restarting the Application Pool. I did it and after a couple of seconds, it crashed and stopped. Looking at the Event Viewer, I found these messages, which by the moment couldn't help me to find where the problem is. A process serving application pool 'X' reported a failure. The process id was '11616'. The data field contains the error number. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. After getting a couple of these, I got this one: Application pool 'X' is being automatically disabled due to a series of failures in the process(es) serving that application pool. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. I've already checked permissions and Application Pool configurations but everything seems to be OK. Have anyone been through this? Thanks in advance.

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• Dynamically class creating by using Java Reflection, java.lang.ClassNotFoundException

  - by rubby

  Hi all; i want to use reflection in java, i want to do that third class will read the name of the class as String from console. Upon reading the name of the class, it will automatically and dynamically (!) generate that class and call its writeout method. If that class is not read from input, it will not be initialized. I wrote that codes but i am always taking to "java.lang.Class.Not.Found.Exception", and i don't know how i can fix it. Can anyone help me? class class3 { public Object dynamicsinif(String className, String fieldName, String value) throws Exception { Class cls = Class.forName(className,true,null); Object obj = cls.newInstance(); Field fld = cls.getField(fieldName); fld.set(obj, value); return obj; } public void writeout3() { System.out.println("class3"); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("enter the class name : "); BufferedReader reader= new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in)); String line=reader.readLine(); String x="Text1"; try{ class3 trycls=new class3(); Object gelen=trycls.dynamicsinif(line, x, "rubby"); Class yeni=(Class)gelen; System.out.println(yeni); }catch(ClassNotFoundException ex){ System.out.print(ex.toString()); } } }

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• Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

  - by Bob Knothe

  I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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• handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

  - by anatoli

  Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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• RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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• Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

  - by Quentin T.

  1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

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• Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

  - by dileepkrishnan

  Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

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• Is context:annotation-config an alternative to @AutoWired?

  - by Antacid

  Is it correct that I can put context:annotation-config in my XML config and it will automatically inject the bean class without needing any annotations? So instead of using these annotation types: public class Mailman { private String name; @Autowired private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } @Autowired public void setParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } @Autowired public void directionsToParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } } I would just need to write this: <beans ... > <bean id="mailMan" class="MailMan"> <constructor-arg value="John Doe"/> </bean> <bean id="parcel" class="Parcel" /> <context:annotation-config /> </beans> and then my MailMan class would look a lot simpler without the need for annotations: public class Mailman { private String name; private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } }

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• Configurating JOOMLA's e-mail notification for new account

  - by Dion

  I'm using Joomla 1.5 to create a local site for my office. The site will be accessed locally via intranet, and my PC will be the localhost for the site. I'm using a Login pluggin, so that anyone who wanted to enter the site should create an account. In JOOMLA, all user who created their account for the first time will receive a notification e-mail like : "Hello pras, You have been added as a User to Information Center by an Administrator. This e-mail contains your username and password to log in to http://localhost/yaddayadda/ Username: hadisuryo.prasetio Password: xxxx Please do not respond to this message as it is automatically generated and is for information purposes only." but if the user click the URL in the mail, which is, "localhost/yaddayadda/" they will not be directed to my site, but to their own PC's localhost.... My question is : How can I Modified the e-mail or the site configuration so that the URL will not be "localhost/yaddayadda/" anymore, but will be "(My-IP adress)/yaddayadda" I'm not going to host my site to a web hosting service, just using my PC as a host. I've been trying to trace on each config and .ini files...it seems that i have to do something with the "JURI" function or the "$mosConfig_live_site" on the backlink.php file $mosConfig_absolute_path = JPATH_SITE; $mosConfig_live_site = JURI :: base(); $url_array = explode('/', $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); Can anyone give me assistance ? Thank You

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• Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

  - by Aleksandr Koss

  I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

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• Question about cloning in Java

  - by devoured elysium

  In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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• SQLAlchemy: who is in charge of the "session"? ( and how to unit-test with sessions )

  - by Nick Perkins

  I need some guidance on how to use session objects with SQLAlchemy, and how to organize Unit Tests of my mapped objects. What I would like to able to do is something like this: thing = BigThing() # mapped object child = thing.new_child() # create and return a related object thing.save() # will also save the child object In order to achieve this, I was thinking of having the BigThing actually add itself ( and it's children ) to the database -- but maybe this not a good idea? One reason to add objects as soon as possible is Automatic id values that are assigned by the database -- the sooner they are available, the fewer problems there are ( right? ) What is the best way to manage session objects? Who is in charge of the session? Should it be created only when required? or saved for a long time? What about Unit Tests for my mapped objects?...how should the session be handled? Is it ever OK to have mapped objects just automatically add themselves to a database? or is that going to lead to trouble?

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• How to Make my application handle Errors for a few different scenarios?

  - by NightsEVil

  so i have this code to extract a program to the temp directory then run it, the problem is it doesn't work perfectly on every computer (for some reason it hits a error or exception sometimes) string tempFolder = System.IO.Path.Combine(System.IO.Path.GetTempPath(), ""); System.Diagnostics.Process defrag1 = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"Programs\Optimize\AusLogics_Defrag.exe", string.Format(" -o{0} -y", tempFolder)); defrag1.WaitForExit(); string executableDirectoryName = Path.GetDirectoryName(Application.ExecutablePath); System.Diagnostics.Process defrag2 = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(tempFolder + "\\" + "AusLogics_Defrag" + "\\" + "DiskDefrag.exe", ""); defrag2.WaitForExit(); System.IO.Directory.Delete(tempFolder + "\\" + "AusLogics_Defrag", true); and what i wanna know is there a way that say if it starts to extract but hits a error (no matter what it is) it will automatically change and go to this code, but if it DOESN'T hit a error it continues as it was meant to? string tempFolder = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.ApplicationData); System.Diagnostics.Process defrag1 = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"Programs\Optimize\AusLogics_Defrag.exe", string.Format(" -o{0} -y", tempFolder)); defrag1.WaitForExit(); string executableDirectoryName = Path.GetDirectoryName(Application.ExecutablePath); System.Diagnostics.Process defrag2 = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(tempFolder + "\\" + "AusLogics_Defrag" + "\\" + "DiskDefrag.exe", ""); defrag2.WaitForExit(); System.IO.Directory.Delete(tempFolder + "\\" + "AusLogics_Defrag", true); with the path going to the application data folder? and if THAT hits a error it would change that path to this, but if it DOESN'T hit a error it continues as it was meant to? string tempFolder = System.Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable("HomeDrive");

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