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  • UTF-8 HTML and CSS files with BOM (and how to remove the BOM with Python)

    - by Cameron
    First, some background: I'm developing a web application using Python. All of my (text) files are currently stored in UTF-8 with the BOM. This includes all my HTML templates and CSS files. These resources are stored as binary data (BOM and all) in my DB. When I retrieve the templates from the DB, I decode them using template.decode('utf-8'). When the HTML arrives in the browser, the BOM is present at the beginning of the HTTP response body. This generates a very interesting error in Chrome: Extra <html> encountered. Migrating attributes back to the original <html> element and ignoring the tag. Chrome seems to generate an <html> tag automatically when it sees the BOM and mistakes it for content, making the real <html> tag an error. So, using Python, what is the best way to remove the BOM from my UTF-8 encoded templates (if it exists -- I can't guarantee this in the future)? For other text-based files like CSS, will major browsers correctly interpret (or ignore) the BOM? They are being sent as plain binary data without .decode('utf-8'). Note: I am using Python 2.5. Thanks!

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  • How can I ceil the height of a div that has "display: table-cell"?

    - by eric01
    I am trying to vertically center a div inside another div, regardless of the size of both div's I am doing this: <div id='outer_div'> <div id='inner_div'></div> </div> The CSS is #outer_div { display: table-row; height: 200px; width: 200px } #inner_div { display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle; height: 500px; width: 500px } I put larger dimensions for the inner div on purpose. What happens is that even if I put a width of 1000px, the width of the innerdiv is ceiled at 200px because of the outer div's width (and this is what I want) But for the height, it is not ceiled and I would like it to be ceiled to the height of the outer div. What i want is the innerdiv to remain at the same size as the outer_div, no matter what height I give to outer_div in CSS. I basically want it to be the same size as its parent. EDIT: I only put text inside those div's. So let's say I have an outer div of 200px*200px (it has display: table-row), and the inner div is defined by css as 500px*500px and it has dummy text inside. My expected result is to have the inner div shrunk down to 200px*200px. It is successfully 'shrunk' by the outer div for the width, but NOT for the height. What I want is to have it shrunk on the height as well (so the inner div ajusts automatically in case I change the height of the outer div) How do I go about that?

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  • Generic callbacks

    - by bobobobo
    Extends So, I'm trying to learn template metaprogramming better and I figure this is a good exercise for it. I'm trying to write code that can callback a function with any number of arguments I like passed to it. // First function to call int add( int x, int y ) ; // Second function to call double square( double x ) ; // Third func to call void go() ; The callback creation code should look like: // Write a callback object that // will be executed after 42ms for "add" Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; c1.func = add ; c1.args.push_back( 2 ); // these are the 2 args c1.args.push_back( 5 ); // to pass to the "add" function // when it is called Callback<double, double> c2 ; c2.func = square ; c2.args.push_back( 52.2 ) ; What I'm thinking is, using template metaprogramming I want to be able to declare callbacks like, write a struct like this (please keep in mind this is VERY PSEUDOcode) <TEMPLATING ACTION <<ANY NUMBER OF TYPES GO HERE>> > struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute TYPE1 (*func)( TYPE2 a, TYPE3 b ) ; void* argList ; // a stored list of arguments // to plug in when it is time to call __func__ } ; So for when called with Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; You would automatically get constructed for you by < HARDCORE TEMPLATING ACTION > a struct like struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute int (*func)( int a, int b ) ; void* argList ; // this would still be void*, // but I somehow need to remember // the types of the args.. } ; Any pointers in the right direction to get started on writing this?

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  • Who likes #regions in Visual Studio?

    - by Nicholas
    Personally I can't stand region tags, but clearly they have wide spread appeal for organizing code, so I want to test the temperature of the water for other MS developer's take on this idea. My personal feeling is that any sort of silly trick to simplify code only acts to encourage terrible coding behavior, like lack of cohesion, unclear intention and poor or incomplete coding standards. One programmer told me that code regions helped encourage coding standards by making it clear where another programmer should put his or her contributions. But, to be blunt, this sounds like a load of horse manure to me. If you have a standard, it is the programmer's job to understand what that standard is... you should't need to define it in every single class file. And, nothing is more annoying than having all of your code collapsed when you open a file. I know that cntrl + M, L will open everything up, but then you have the hideous "hash region definition" open and closing lines to read. They're just irritating. My most stead fast coding philosophy is that all programmer should strive to create clear, concise and cohesive code. Region tags just serve to create noise and redundant intentions. Region tags would be moot in a well thought out and intentioned class. The only place they seem to make sense to me, is in automatically generated code, because you should never have to read that outside of personal curiosity.

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  • Getting base address of a process

    - by yoni0505
    I'm trying to make a program that read the timer value from Minesweeper. (OS is windows 7 64bit) Using cheat engine I found the base address of the variable, but it changes every time I run Minesweeper. What do I need to do to find out the base address automatically? Does it have something to do with the executable base address? Here's my code: #include <windows.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { DWORD baseAddress = 0xFF1DAA38;//always changing DWORD offset1 = 0x18; DWORD offset2 = 0x20; DWORD pAddress1; DWORD pAddress2; float value = 0; DWORD pid; HWND hwnd; hwnd = FindWindow(NULL,"Minesweeper"); if(!hwnd)//didn't find the window { cout <<"Window not found!\n"; cin.get(); } else { GetWindowThreadProcessId(hwnd,&pid); HANDLE phandle = OpenProcess(PROCESS_VM_READ,0,pid);//get permission to read if(!phandle)//failed to get permission { cout <<"Could not get handle!\n"; cin.get(); } else { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(baseAddress),&pAddress1,sizeof(pAddress1),0); ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress1 + offset1),&pAddress2,sizeof(pAddress2),0); while(1) { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress2 + offset2),&value,sizeof(value),0); cout << value << "\n"; Sleep(1000); } } } }

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  • Is there a way to parse XML via SAX/DOM with line numbers available per node.

    - by Chris
    I already have written a DOM parser for a large XML document format that contains a number of items that can be used to automatically generate Java code. This is limited to small expressions that are then merged into a dynamically generated Java source file. So far - so good. Everything works. BUT - I wish to be able to embed the line number of the XML node where the Java code was included from (so that if the configuration contains uncompilable code, each method will have a pointer to the source XML document and the line number for ease of debugging). I don't require the line number at parse-time and I don't need to validate the XML Source Document and throw an error at a particular line number. I need to be able to access the line number for each node and attribute in my DOM or per SAX event. Any suggestions on how I might be able to achieve this? P.S. Also, I read the StAX has a method to obtain line number whilst parsing, but ideally I would like to achieve the same result with regular SAX/DOM processing in Java 4/5 rather than become a Java 6+ application or take on extra .jar files.

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  • Quick MVC2 checkbox question

    - by kevinmajor1
    In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

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  • Virtual destructor - How does it work?

    - by Prabhu
    Hello All, Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructor wrong!! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements()<br>{}<br> }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called.And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. But my question is "isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called"? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor is wrong:)

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  • juqery image fading with tabs

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

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  • How to install a desktop shortcut (to a batch file) from a WiX-based installer that has "Run as Admi

    - by arathorn
    I'm installing a desktop shortcut (to a batch file) from a WiX-based installer -- how do I automatically configure this shortcut with the "Run as Administrator" setting enabled? The target OS is Windows Server 2008 R2, and the installer is running with elevated priveleges. Update: Thanks to the link provided by @Anders, I was able to get this working. I needed to do this in a C# CustomAction, so here is the C# version of the code: namespace CustomAction1 { public class CustomAction1 { public bool MakeShortcutElevated(string file_) { if (!System.IO.File.Exists(file_)) { return false; } IPersistFile pf = new ShellLink() as IPersistFile; if (pf == null) { return false; } pf.Load(file_, 2 /* STGM_READWRITE */); IShellLinkDataList sldl = pf as IShellLinkDataList; if (sldl == null) { return false; } uint dwFlags; sldl.GetFlags(out dwFlags); sldl.SetFlags(dwFlags | 0x00002000 /* SLDF_RUNAS_USER */); pf.Save(null, true); return true; } } [ComImport(), Guid("00021401-0000-0000-C000-000000000046")] public class ShellLink { } [ComImport(), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown), Guid("45e2b4ae-b1c3-11d0-b92f-00a0c90312e1")] interface IShellLinkDataList { void GetFlags(out uint pdwFlags); void SetFlags(uint dwFlags); } }

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  • Safari doesn't detect my Extension Certificate

    - by Questor
    Hello, all! I have registered for the Safari Development Program and have a valid Apple ID. I've followed all the steps given by Apple. The problem is that Windows XP (Service Pack 2) does not recognize the command 'certreq', whereas the instructions said it would work on any Windows machine. However, the command 'certreq' was working on Windows Vista on the machine of my co-worker's, I downloaded the certificate (the .cer file) and installed it and Safari detected it. However, I don't have Windows Vista. I installed Windows 7 now on my machine, the command 'certreq' works and I have the Safari Extension Certificate (the .cer file) but when I open Safari's Extension Builder, my certificate does not appear there. I entered mmc in Start -- Run and checked if the certificate was installed there. It was in the 'Other People' but not in 'Personal'. Even on Internet Explorer 7+, when I go to Tools -- Internet Options -- Content (Tab) -- Certificates, the certificate is not there in the Personal tab, (WHEREAS IT GOT INSTALLED IN THE PERSONAL FOLDER AUTOMATICALLY IN WINDOWS VISTA). I tried importing the certificate (the .cer file) into the Peronal folder, the import is successful but still neither does it appear in the personal folder nor does Safari recognize/detect it when I go to the Extension Builder. ANY HELP?! I need to make an extension for my office project and the deadline is approaching. I really need to get it done. Thanks a million in anticipation.

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  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

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  • java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

    - by user173446
    Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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  • What are the common compliance standards for software products?

    - by Jay
    This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

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  • ISBNs are used as primary key, now I want to add non-book things to the DB - should I migrate to EAN

    - by fish2000
    I built an inventory database where ISBN numbers are the primary keys for the items. This worked great for a while as the items were books. Now I want to add non-books. some of the non-books have EANs or ISSNs, some do not. It's in PostgreSQL with django apps for the frontend and JSON api, plus a few supporting python command-line tools for management. the items in question are mostly books and artist prints, some of which are self-published. What is nice about using ISBNs as primary keys is that in on top of relational integrity, you get lots of handy utilities for validating ISBNs, automatically looking up missing or additional information on the book items, etcetera, many of which I've taken advantage. some such tools are off-the-shelf (PyISBN, PyAWS etc) and some are hand-rolled -- I tried to keep all of these parts nice and decoupled, but you know how things can get. I couldn't find anything online about 'private ISBNs' or 'self-assigned ISBNs' but that's the sort of thing I was interested in doing. I doubt that's what I'll settle on, since there is already an apparent run on ISBN numbers. should I retool everything for EAN numbers, or migrate off ISBNs as primary keys in general? if anyone has any experience with working with these systems, I'd love to hear about it, your advice is most welcome.

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  • How to use associated Model as datasource for DataView

    - by Chris Gilbert
    I have a Model structure as shown below and I want to know how to use the Bookings array as the datasource of my DataView. Model Structure: Client ClientId Name Bookings (HasManyAssociation) Contacts (HasManyAssociation) AjaxProxy JsonReader (ImplicitIncludes is set to true so child models are created with one call) Booking BookingNodeId BookingDetails Contact ContactNodeId ContactDetails The above gives me a data structure as follows: Client Bookings[ Booking Booking ] Contacts[ Contact Contact ] What I want to be able to do is either, create a Store from my Bookings array and then use that store as the datasource for my DataView OR directly use the Bookings array as the datasource (I don't really care how I do it to be honest). If I setup the AjaxProxy on my Booking model it works fine but then obviously I cannot automatically create my Client and Contacts when I load my JSON. It seems to me to make sense that the Client model, being the top level model hierarchically, is the one to load the data. EDIT: I figured it out as follows (with special thanks to handet87 below for his dataview.setStore() pointer). The key in this case is to know that creating the relationship actually sets up another store called, in this case BookingsStore and ContactsStore. All I needed to do was dataview.setStore("BookingsStore")

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  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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  • Dynamically class creating by using Java Reflection, java.lang.ClassNotFoundException

    - by rubby
    Hi all; i want to use reflection in java, i want to do that third class will read the name of the class as String from console. Upon reading the name of the class, it will automatically and dynamically (!) generate that class and call its writeout method. If that class is not read from input, it will not be initialized. I wrote that codes but i am always taking to "java.lang.Class.Not.Found.Exception", and i don't know how i can fix it. Can anyone help me? class class3 { public Object dynamicsinif(String className, String fieldName, String value) throws Exception { Class cls = Class.forName(className,true,null); Object obj = cls.newInstance(); Field fld = cls.getField(fieldName); fld.set(obj, value); return obj; } public void writeout3() { System.out.println("class3"); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("enter the class name : "); BufferedReader reader= new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in)); String line=reader.readLine(); String x="Text1"; try{ class3 trycls=new class3(); Object gelen=trycls.dynamicsinif(line, x, "rubby"); Class yeni=(Class)gelen; System.out.println(yeni); }catch(ClassNotFoundException ex){ System.out.print(ex.toString()); } } }

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  • Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

    - by Jace
    To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

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  • How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

    - by szekelya
    Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

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  • A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected: Dealing with these errors proactively, or a

    - by Albert
    I'm noticing this error more and more in my error logs. I've read through the questions here talking about this error, but they don't address what I would like to do (see below). I'm considering three options, in the order of preference: 1) When submitting a form (I use formviews almost exclusively, if that helps), if potentially dangerous characters are detected, automatically strip them out and submit. 2) When submitting a form, if potentially dangerous characters are detected, alert the user and let them fix it before trying again. 3) After the exception is generated, deal with it and alert the user. I'm hoping one of the first two options might be able to do somewhat globally...I know for the 3rd I'd have to alter a TON of Try-Catch blocks I already have in place. Doable, but labor intensive. I'd rather be proactive about it if at all possible and avoid the exception all together. Perhaps one approach to #1 would be to write a block of code that could loop through all text entry fields in a formview, during the insert/update event, and strip the characters out. I'm ok with that, but I'd rather not have to heavily alter all my Insert/Update events to accomplish this. Or maybe I just create a different class to do the text checking/deleting, and only insert 1 line of code in each Insert/Update event. If anyone can come up with some example code of any of these approaches that would be a help. Thanks for any ideas or information. I'm definitely open to other solutions too; these are only the 3 that came to mind. I can say that I don't want to turn request validation off though.

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  • Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

    - by Aleksandr Koss
    I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

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  • How to update maven local repository with newer artifacts from a remote repository?

    - by Richard
    My maven module A has a dependency on another maven module B provided by other people. When I run "mvn install" under A for the first time, maven downloads B-1.0.jar from a remote repository to my local maven repository. My module A builds fine. In the mean time, other people are deploying newer B-1.0.jar to the remote repository. When I run "mvn install" under A again, maven does not download the newer B-1.0.jar from the remote repository to my local repository. As a result, my module A build fails due to API changes in B-1.0.jar. I could manually delete B-1.0.jar from my local repository. Then maven would download the latest B-1.0.jar from the remote repository the next time when I run "mvn install". My question is how I can automatically let maven download the latest artifacts from a remote repository. I tried to set updatePolicy to "always". But that did not do the trick.

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  • How to repeatedly show a Dialog with PyGTK / Gtkbuilder?

    - by Julian
    I have created a PyGTK application that shows a Dialog when the user presses a button. The dialog is loaded in my __init__ method with: builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file("filename") builder.connect_signals(self) self.myDialog = builder.get_object("dialog_name") In the event handler, the dialog is shown with the command self.myDialog.run(), but this only works once, because after run() the dialog is automatically destroyed. If I click the button a second time, the application crashes. I read that there is a way to use show() instead of run() where the dialog is not destroyed, but I feel like this is not the right way for me because I would like the dialog to behave modally and to return control to the code only after the user has closed it. Is there a simple way to repeatedly show a dialog using the run() method using gtkbuilder? I tried reloading the whole dialog using the gtkbuilder, but that did not really seem to work, the dialog was missing all child elements (and I would prefer to have to use the builder only once, at the beginning of the program). [SOLUTION] As pointed out by the answer below, using hide() does the trick. But one has to take care that the dialog is in fact destroyed if one does not catch its "delete-event". A simple example that works is: import pygtk import gtk class DialogTest: def rundialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.show_all() result = self.dia.run() def destroy(self, widget, data=None): gtk.main_quit() def closedialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.hide() return True def __init__(self): self.window = gtk.Window(gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.window.connect("destroy", self.destroy) self.dia = gtk.Dialog('TEST DIALOG', self.window, gtk.DIALOG_MODAL | gtk.DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT) self.dia.vbox.pack_start(gtk.Label('This is just a Test')) self.dia.connect("delete-event", self.closedialog) self.button = gtk.Button("Run Dialog") self.button.connect("clicked", self.rundialog, None) self.window.add(self.button) self.button.show() self.window.show() if __name__ == "__main__": testApp = DialogTest() gtk.main()

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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