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  • ISBNs are used as primary key, now I want to add non-book things to the DB - should I migrate to EAN

    - by fish2000
    I built an inventory database where ISBN numbers are the primary keys for the items. This worked great for a while as the items were books. Now I want to add non-books. some of the non-books have EANs or ISSNs, some do not. It's in PostgreSQL with django apps for the frontend and JSON api, plus a few supporting python command-line tools for management. the items in question are mostly books and artist prints, some of which are self-published. What is nice about using ISBNs as primary keys is that in on top of relational integrity, you get lots of handy utilities for validating ISBNs, automatically looking up missing or additional information on the book items, etcetera, many of which I've taken advantage. some such tools are off-the-shelf (PyISBN, PyAWS etc) and some are hand-rolled -- I tried to keep all of these parts nice and decoupled, but you know how things can get. I couldn't find anything online about 'private ISBNs' or 'self-assigned ISBNs' but that's the sort of thing I was interested in doing. I doubt that's what I'll settle on, since there is already an apparent run on ISBN numbers. should I retool everything for EAN numbers, or migrate off ISBNs as primary keys in general? if anyone has any experience with working with these systems, I'd love to hear about it, your advice is most welcome.

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  • Simple Database normalization question...

    - by user365531
    Hi all, I have a quick question regarding a database that I am designing and making sure it is normalized... I have a customer table, with a primary key of customerId. It has a StatusCode column that has a code which reflects the customers account status ie. 1 = Open, 2 = Closed, 3 = Suspended etc... Now I would like to have another field in the customer table that flags whether the account is allowed to be suspended or not... certain customers will be automatically suspended if they break there trading terms... others not... so the relevant table fields will be as so: Customers (CustomerId(PK):StatusCode:IsSuspensionAllowed) Now both fields are dependent on the primary key as you can not determine the status or whether suspensions are allowed on a particular customer unless you know the specific customer, except of course when the IsSuspensionAllowed field is set to YES, the the customer should never have a StatusCode of 3 (Suspended). It seems from the above table design it is possible for this to happen unless a check contraint is added to my table. I can't see how another table could be added to the relational design to enforce this though as it's only in the case where IsSuspensionAllowed is set to YES and StatusCode is set to 3 when the two have a dependence on each other. So after my long winded explanation my question is this: Is this a normalization problem and I'm not seeing a relational design that will enforce this... or is it actually just a business rule that should be enforced with a check contraint and the table is in fact still normalized. Cheers, Steve

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • File.Move does not inherit permissions from target directory?

    - by Joseph Kingry
    In case something goes wrong in creating a file, I've been writing to a temporary file and then moving to the destination. Something like: var destination = @"C:\foo\bar.txt"; var tempFile = Path.GetTempFileName(); using (var stream = File.OpenWrite(tempFile)) { // write to file here here } string backupFile = null; try { var dir = Path.GetDirectoryName(destination); if (!Directory.Exists(dir)) { Directory.CreateDirectory(dir); Util.SetPermissions(dir); } if (File.Exists(destination)) { backupFile = Path.Combine(Path.GetTempPath(), new Guid().ToString()); File.Move(destination, backupFile); } File.Move(tempFile, destination); if (backupFile != null) { File.Delete(backupFile); } } catch(IOException) { if(backupFile != null && !File.Exists(destination) && File.Exists(backupFile)) { File.Move(backupFile, destination); } } The problem is that the new "bar.txt" in this case does not inherit permissions from the "C:\foo" directory. Yet if I create a file via explorer/notepad etc directly in the "C:\foo" there's no issues, so I believe the permissions are correctly set on "C:\foo". Update Found Inherited permissions are not automatically updated when you move folders, maybe it applies to folders as well. Now looking for a way to force an update of file permissions. Is there a better way overall of doing this?

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  • how to close a java frame with threads

    - by user261002
    I have a java frame that I want to close it automatically after 3 or 4 seconds. I found out I must used threads. but I dont know how exactly to do it, this a dumy part of my code : package intro; import java.awt.*; import java.io.IOException; //import view.LangMenu; public class IntroClass extends Frame { private int _screenWidth = 0; private int _screenHeight = 0; private int _screenCenterx = 0; private int _screenCentery = 0; //private static final String SOUND_PATH="/sounds/introSound.midi"; public IntroClass() { Toolkit thisScreen = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit(); Dimension thisScrrensize = thisScreen.getScreenSize(); _screenWidth = thisScrrensize.width; _screenHeight = thisScrrensize.height; _screenCenterx = _screenWidth / 2; _screenCentery = _screenHeight / 2; setBackground(Color.pink); Label lbl = new Label("Welcome To Dots Game. Samaneh Khaleghi", Label.CENTER); add(lbl); setUndecorated(true); setLocation((_screenCenterx*50)/100,_screenCentery-(_screenCentery*50)/100); setSize((_screenWidth * 50) / 100, (_screenHeight * 50) / 100); WaitClass r = new WaitClass(); r.start(); view.DotsBoardFrame d=new view.DotsBoardFrame(); main.Main.showScreen(d); } class WaitClass extends Thread { boolean running = true; public void run() { while (running) { try { Thread.sleep(50); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } } }

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  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

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  • How to install a desktop shortcut (to a batch file) from a WiX-based installer that has "Run as Admi

    - by arathorn
    I'm installing a desktop shortcut (to a batch file) from a WiX-based installer -- how do I automatically configure this shortcut with the "Run as Administrator" setting enabled? The target OS is Windows Server 2008 R2, and the installer is running with elevated priveleges. Update: Thanks to the link provided by @Anders, I was able to get this working. I needed to do this in a C# CustomAction, so here is the C# version of the code: namespace CustomAction1 { public class CustomAction1 { public bool MakeShortcutElevated(string file_) { if (!System.IO.File.Exists(file_)) { return false; } IPersistFile pf = new ShellLink() as IPersistFile; if (pf == null) { return false; } pf.Load(file_, 2 /* STGM_READWRITE */); IShellLinkDataList sldl = pf as IShellLinkDataList; if (sldl == null) { return false; } uint dwFlags; sldl.GetFlags(out dwFlags); sldl.SetFlags(dwFlags | 0x00002000 /* SLDF_RUNAS_USER */); pf.Save(null, true); return true; } } [ComImport(), Guid("00021401-0000-0000-C000-000000000046")] public class ShellLink { } [ComImport(), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown), Guid("45e2b4ae-b1c3-11d0-b92f-00a0c90312e1")] interface IShellLinkDataList { void GetFlags(out uint pdwFlags); void SetFlags(uint dwFlags); } }

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  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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  • Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

    - by gerdemb
    I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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  • How to send array by post method

    - by GanChinHock.com
    Following is my sample form. <form METHOD="post" METHOD="post" ACTION="index.php" METHOD="post" METHOD="post" METHOD="post"> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="text" NAME="array[]" /> <input TYPE="submit" NAME="submit" VALUE="Submit" /> </form> Basically I have 10 inputs of array. Assume my domain is http://domain.com and the file above is index.php. I am trying to fill the form automatically by using the following method. http://domain.com/index.php?array[]=John&array[]=Kelly ... & array[]=Steven Unfortunately, it is not working. :(

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  • Is context:annotation-config an alternative to @AutoWired?

    - by Antacid
    Is it correct that I can put context:annotation-config in my XML config and it will automatically inject the bean class without needing any annotations? So instead of using these annotation types: public class Mailman { private String name; @Autowired private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } @Autowired public void setParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } @Autowired public void directionsToParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } } I would just need to write this: <beans ... > <bean id="mailMan" class="MailMan"> <constructor-arg value="John Doe"/> </bean> <bean id="parcel" class="Parcel" /> <context:annotation-config /> </beans> and then my MailMan class would look a lot simpler without the need for annotations: public class Mailman { private String name; private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } }

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  • Button Template does not render Image clearly.

    - by Akash Kava
    Here is my button template, <Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome x:Name="Chrome" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" RenderDefaulted="{TemplateBinding IsDefaulted}" RenderMouseOver="{TemplateBinding IsMouseOver}" RenderPressed="{TemplateBinding IsPressed}"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Source="{TemplateBinding ImageSource}" RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" SnapsToDevicePixels="True" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Stretch="None" /> <ContentPresenter Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Grid> </Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome> Now you can see as per this question My Images are blurry on StackOverflow I tried .. RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" On all levels, grid, chrome .. and tried various combinations of SnapsToDevicePixels but images just wont show up correctly. I set Stretch=None, image is aligned at center, still why it stretches automatically? here is the output and its very frustrating. Actual size of the image is 16x16 but I some how figured out by using Windows Maginifier that no matter what I do, the image is actually trying to render as 20x20, for the bigger images its even cropping the right most and bottom part. I think image should be rendered correctly 16x16 when Stretch=None, can anyone clarify whats problem here?

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  • WCF Web Service - Service Unavaiable

    - by born to hula
    I have a WCF Web Service which is kept under an Application Pool on IIS. Lately I've been getting "Service Unavaiable" when I'm trying to make calls to this Web Service. The first thing I tried to do was restarting the Application Pool. I did it and after a couple of seconds, it crashed and stopped. Looking at the Event Viewer, I found these messages, which by the moment couldn't help me to find where the problem is. A process serving application pool 'X' reported a failure. The process id was '11616'. The data field contains the error number. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. After getting a couple of these, I got this one: Application pool 'X' is being automatically disabled due to a series of failures in the process(es) serving that application pool. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. I've already checked permissions and Application Pool configurations but everything seems to be OK. Have anyone been through this? Thanks in advance.

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • Getting a handle on GIS math, where do I start?

    - by Joshua
    I am in charge of a program that is used to create a set of nodes and paths for consumption by an autonomous ground vehicle. The program keeps track of the locations of all items in its map by indicating the item's position as being x meters north and y meters east of an origin point of 0,0. In the real world, the vehicle knows the location of the origin's lat and long, as it is determined by a dgps system and is accurate down to a couple centimeters. My program is ignorant of any lat long coordinates. It is one of my goals to modify the program to keep track of lat long coords of items in addition to an origin point and items' x,y position in relation to that origin. At first blush, it seems that I am going to modify the program to allow the lat long coords of the origin to be passed in, and after that I desire that the program will automatically calculate the lat long of every item currently in a map. From what I've researched so far, I believe that I will need to figure out the math behind converting to lat long coords from a UTM like projection where I specify the origin points and meridians etc as opposed to whatever is defined already for UTM. I've come to ask of you GIS programmers, am I on the right track? It seems to me like there is so much to wrap ones head around, and I'm not sure if the answer isn't something as simple as, "oh yea theres a conversion from meters to lat long, here" Currently, due to the nature of DGPS, the system really doesn't need to care about locations more than oh, what... 40 km? radius away from the origin. Given this, and the fact that I need to make sure that the error on my coordinates is not greater than .5 meters, do I need anything more complex than a simple lat/long to meters conversion constant? I'm knee deep in materials here. I could use some pointers about what concepts to research. Thanks much!

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  • Django Development Environment Setup Questions

    - by Ross Peoples
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a good development environment for a Django project that I will be working on from two different physical locations. I have two Mac machines, one at home and one at work that I do most of my development on. I currently host a Ubuntu virtual machine on one of the machines to host the Django environemnt, install DropBox on it, and edit source code from my Mac. When I save the code file, the changes get synced over DropBox to the Ubuntu VM and the Django development server automatically restarts because of the change. This method has worked well in the past, but I am starting to use DropBox for a lot of other things now and don't want all of that to be downloaded on every virtual machine I use. Plus, I want to start using Eclipse + PyDev to be able to debug code and have code completion. Currently, I use TextEdit which is great, but doesn't support debugging or completion. So what are my options? I thought about setting up a Parallels VM on a thumb drive that has my entire environment on it (Eclipse included), but that has its own problems. Any other thoughts?

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  • Submit form using javascript, work in FF but not in IE

    - by Permana
    I have this code. The code below is working in Firefox, but it is not in IE <body> <?php $data = getLoginData($_SESSION['whoyouare']); ?> <form name="frm_redirect_dfr" action="<?php echo $data['url']; ?>" method="POST" id="frm_redirect_dfr" style="display: none;"> <input name="DFRNet_User" value="<?php echo $data['username']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="DFRNet_Pass" value="<?php echo $data['password']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="tbllogin" value="login" type="hidden" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> document.forms["frm_redirect_dfr"].submit(); </script> </body> What I want to do is, when user access the page, it first will try to get login data, echo it in the form, and submit the form automatically using javascript

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  • Execute process conditionally in Windows PowerShell (e.g. the && and || operators in Bash)

    - by Dustin
    I'm wondering if anybody knows of a way to conditionally execute a program depending on the exit success/failure of the previous program. Is there any way for me to execute a program2 immediately after program1 if program1 exits successfully without testing the LASTEXITCODE variable? I tried the -band and -and operators to no avail, though I had a feeling they wouldn't work anyway, and the best substitute is a combination of a semicolon and an if statement. I mean, when it comes to building a package somewhat automatically from source on Linux, the && operator can't be beaten: # Configure a package, compile it and install it ./configure && make && sudo make install PowerShell would require me to do the following, assuming I could actually use the same build system in PowerShell: # Configure a package, compile it and install it .\configure ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { make ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { sudo make install } } Sure, I could use multiple lines, save it in a file and execute the script, but the idea is for it to be concise (save keystrokes). Perhaps it's just a difference between PowerShell and Bash (and even the built-in Windows command prompt which supports the && operator) I'll need to adjust to, but if there's a cleaner way to do it, I'd love to know.

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  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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  • Eclipse Juno won't create Android Activity

    - by MikkoP
    I downloaded Eclipse Juno Java EE edition and installed ADT plugin. I created a new Android Application Project from Eclipse and in the wizard I created an activity called TaskariActivity. After I pressed finish, it created the project but not the activity and the wizard didn't close. I pressed cancel. No activity or anything in the src folder. I created a new activity by right clicking on src, selecting new -> other -> Android -> activity. I selected BlankActivity (as earlier when I was creating the project), selected the earlier created project in the Project combo box. I set the Activity name as TaskariActivity, layout name as activity_main and title as TaskariActivity. Next I selected navigation type and I set it to Tabs + Swipe (I thought this would make me tabs and everything I had to do would be just inserting the elements and the actions for them). I pressed next, nothing happened. Finish didn't also do anything. I pressed cancel and an activity wasn't created. So, how can I create an Android application like in the earlier version of Eclipse? It automatically created the activity and it was ready be run out of the box. Now it won't generate any files and the new activity wizard doesn't work. Help?

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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  • Text box loses focus when DIV is hovered

    - by Konoplianko
    Hello. I have a problem: When I enter a text into suggestion text box, popup panel appears. But when user places mouse over this popup panel with suggestions - text box loses focus. What should I do to prevent losing focus ? Example which have the same behaviour: http://demo.raibledesigns.com/gwt-autocomplete/ Thanks for any help. Update 1 SuggestionMenu which is being shown is extending MenuBar which sets focus for all menu items. void itemOver(MenuItem item, boolean focus) { if (item == null) { // Don't clear selection if the currently selected item's menu is showing. if ((selectedItem != null) && (shownChildMenu == selectedItem.getSubMenu())) { return; } } // Style the item selected when the mouse enters. selectItem(item); if (focus) { focus(); } // If child menus are being shown, or this menu is itself // a child menu, automatically show an item's child menu // when the mouse enters. if (item != null) { if ((shownChildMenu != null) || (parentMenu != null) || autoOpen) { doItemAction(item, false); } } } It's clear that i cant fix loosing focus. Now question is - how to make on pressing backspace or any key to focus on edit box? Thanks in advance

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  • With a browser, how do I know which decimal separator does the client use?

    - by Quassnoi
    I'm developing a web application. I need to display some decimal data correctly so that it can be copied and pasted into a certain GUI application that is not under my control. The GUI application is locale sensitive and it accepts only the correct decimal separator which is set in the system. I can guess the decimal separator from Accept-Language and the guess will be correct in 95% cases, but sometimes it fails. Is there any way to do it on server side (preferably, so that I can collect statistics), or on client side? Update: The whole point of the task is doing it automatically. In fact, this webapp is a kind of online interface to a legacy GUI which helps to fill the forms correctly. The kind of users that use it mostly have no idea on what a decimal separator is. The Accept-Language solution is implemented and works, but I'd like to improve it. Update2: I need to retrive a very specific setting: decimal separator set in Control Panel / Regional and Language Options / Regional Options / Customize. I deal with four kinds of operating systems: Russian Windows with a comma as a DS (80%). English Windows with a period as a DS (15%). Russian Windows with a period as a DS to make poorly written English applications work (4%). English Windows with a comma as a DS to make poorly written Russian applications work (1%). All 100% of clients are in Russia and the legacy application deals with Russian goverment-issued forms, so asking for a country will yield 100% of Russian Federation, and GeoIP will yield 80% of Russian Federation and 20% of other, incorrect answers.

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  • Is there a way to parse XML via SAX/DOM with line numbers available per node.

    - by Chris
    I already have written a DOM parser for a large XML document format that contains a number of items that can be used to automatically generate Java code. This is limited to small expressions that are then merged into a dynamically generated Java source file. So far - so good. Everything works. BUT - I wish to be able to embed the line number of the XML node where the Java code was included from (so that if the configuration contains uncompilable code, each method will have a pointer to the source XML document and the line number for ease of debugging). I don't require the line number at parse-time and I don't need to validate the XML Source Document and throw an error at a particular line number. I need to be able to access the line number for each node and attribute in my DOM or per SAX event. Any suggestions on how I might be able to achieve this? P.S. Also, I read the StAX has a method to obtain line number whilst parsing, but ideally I would like to achieve the same result with regular SAX/DOM processing in Java 4/5 rather than become a Java 6+ application or take on extra .jar files.

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  • java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

    - by user173446
    Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

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