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  • IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

    - by DigitalBlade
    Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • Chicken and egg problem (restore database) when trying to write unit test against SQl Server 2008.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Ok, they are not unit tests but end-to-end tests. The setup is somewhat involved. Unit tests will use C#, ODBC connection. Every unit tests will try to clean up after itself, but every 20 tests or so (once per C# class) we would need to do a full database restore. I do not think I can do it over an ODBC connection, according to this document: http://www.sql-server-performance.com/articles/dba/Obtain_Exclusive_Access_to_Restore_SQL_Server_p1.aspx Msg 6104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot use KILL to kill your own process. However, I would like to, so that 199 tests do not go amok because of a bad clean-up. Is there another way? Perhaps I can open a different "connection" such as use COM automation or something of that sort, and then kill all database connections from there? If so, how can I do that? Also, will the clients be able to re-connect automatically after a restore, or would I have to dismantle everything once every 20 tests or so? If you find this question confusing, please let me know what your questions are. Thanks!

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  • C/C++ macro/template blackmagic to generate unique name.

    - by anon
    Macros are fine. Templates are fine. Pretty much whatever it works is fine. The example is OpenGL; but the technique is C++ specific and relies on no knowledge of OpenGL. Precise problem: I want an expression E; where I do not have to specify a unique name; such that a constructor is called where E is defined, and a destructor is called where the block E is in ends. For example, consider: class GlTranslate { GLTranslate(float x, float y, float z); { glPushMatrix(); glTranslatef(x, y, z); } ~GlTranslate() { glPopMatrix(); } }; Manual solution: { GlTranslate foo(1.0, 0.0, 0.0); // I had ti give it a name ..... } // auto popmatrix Now, I have this not only for glTranslate, but lots of other PushAttrib/PopAttrib calls too. I would prefer not to have to come up with a unique name for each var. Is there some trick involving macros templates ... or something else that will automatically create a variable who's constructor is called at point of definition; and destructor called at end of block? Thanks!

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  • Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

    - by soow.fr
    I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • DBD::CSV: Problem with userdefined functions

    - by sid_com
    From the SQL::Statement::Functions documentation: Creating User-Defined Functions ... More complex functions can make use of a number of arguments always passed to functions automatically. Functions always receive these values in @_: sub FOO { my( $self, $sth, $rowhash, @params ); } #!/usr/bin/env perl use 5.012; use warnings; use strict; use DBI; my $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:", undef, undef, { RaiseError => 1, } ); my $table = 'wages'; my $array_ref = [ [ 'id', 'number' ], [ 0, 6900 ], [ 1, 3200 ], [ 2, 1800 ], ]; $dbh->do( "CREATE TEMP TABLE $table AS import( ? )", {}, $array_ref ); sub routine { my $self = shift; my $sth = shift; my $rowhash = shift; # return $_[0] / 30; }; $dbh->do( "CREATE FUNCTION routine" ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( "SELECT id, routine( number ) AS result FROM $table" ); $sth->execute(); $sth->dump_results(); When I try this I get an error-message: DBD::CSV::st execute failed: Use of uninitialized value $_[0] in division (/) at ./so.pl line 27. [for Statement "SELECT id, routine( number ) AS result FROM "wages""] at ./so.pl line 34. When I comment out the third argument I works as expected ( because it looks as if the third argument is missing ): #!/usr/bin/env perl ... sub routine { my $self = shift; my $sth = shift; #my $rowhash = shift; return $_[0] / 30; }; ... 0, 230 1, 106.667 2, 60 3 rows Is this a bug?

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  • Specific Shopping Cart Recommendations

    - by Dean J
    I'm trying to suggest a solution for a friend who owns an existing web shop. The current solution isn't cutting it. The new solution needs to have a few things that look like they're enterprise-only if I go with Magento, and $12k a year for a store with maybe $20k in stock just doesn't work. The site should have items, which have one or more categories. Each category may have a parent category. Items have MSRP, and a discount rate by supplier, brand, and sometimes additional discount by product. When a user buys something, it should automatically setup a shipping label with UPS or USPS, depending on user's choice, and build two invoices; one to go in the box, one to go into records. This is crucial; it's low profit per item, so it needs to minimize labor here. Need to be able to have sales (limited by time), discount codes/coupon codes. Ideally would have private sales and/or members-only rates as well. It needs a payment gateway; Paypal/GCheckout-only isn't going to fly. Must be able to accept Visa/MC. Suggestions? I'm debating just building this myself in Java or PHP, but wanted to point my friend to a reasonable-cost solution that already exists if I can. This all seems pretty straightforward to code, save working with the UPS/USPS/Visa/MC APIs, and doing CSS for it.

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  • Rails: Can't set or update tag_list using a text field with acts_as_taggable_on

    - by Josh
    Hey everyone, I'm trying to add tagging to a rails photo gallery system I'm working on. It works from the back-end, but if I try to set or change it in the form view, it doesn't work. I added acts_as_taggable to the photo model and did the migrations. My gallery builder is programmed to add one tag automatically to each photo it creates. This works fine, just as if it were setting it for the console. However, I can't seem to set tags using a text_field in the photo form. Here's the code I added to my photo form: <p> <%= f.label :tag_list %><br /> <%= f.text_field :tag_list %> </p> Now, that's pretty trivial, and since :tag_list supports single-string comma-separated assignment (e.g. tag_list = "this, that, the other" #= ['this', 'that', 'the other']), I don't see why using a text field doesn't work. And to make even less sense, if a tag list has already been populated, the list will still show up in the text field when editing the photo. I just can't seem to commit any changes to the list. The documentation on their github page doesn't appear to give any information on how to set these values from the view. Any ideas? Oh, and I'm using the Rails 3 gem version.

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  • Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

    - by Ji
    In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

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  • Why can't I play videos on my Samsung Moment w/Android 2.1 that did play on 1.5?

    - by cpcarroll71
    Hello all. I was directed here by the Google Android Devs Group. I'm still not sure if this is the place I need to be. I've been on forum after forum and asked the same question but no one seems to know the answer or will tell me the REAL correct place to find it. I have a Samsung Moment with Android 2.1. I can not get videos that DID play on Android 1.5 to play on 2.1 now with very few exceptions. I'm not just talking about different videos with the same format, I'm talking about some of the exact same videos that did play in 1.5 will no longer play in 2.1. These are almost all AVI files. If Android doesn't support AVI natively with it's own stock media player then why or how was I able to play these videos flawlessly on 1.5? The way I always played the videos was viewing my SD card, tapping the thumbnail of the video I wanted, and it would automatically open up in the phones media player right away. Now the phone locks up and then eventually gives an error message. Please tell me someone here knows what is going on and if there is a way to fix this. Or if nothing else, tell me where I do need to look to ask this question and find an answer. Thank you.

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  • best web database solution for scala for a high traffic site?

    - by egervari
    I am in charge of a rebuilding a website that gets about 250,000 visitors a day. We'd like to use Scala, but it does not work very well with Spring (in some minor cases) and Hibernate (there is a major and very annoying mismatch here if you want to use scala collections, which we do). The application itself is going to have about 40-50 tables. Other than Hibernate, is there an ORM that works awesome with Scala and is as performant and reliable as Hibernate? Does it also have the same capabilities, or are we going to run into leaky-abstractions if we don't use Hibernate? It would be a big risk for us to go with a framework that is newer and doesn't seem to have a lot of industry backing... and at the same time, Hibernate is a real pain to program against when using Scala. 1) The Java Collection <- Scala Collection is absolutely painful. There is a lot more boilerplate and crap to write. 2) The IDE doesn't import JavaConversions and java interfaces automatically... so we this needs to be done manually. Optimizing Imports in IDEA is going to destroy all the manual work. 3) There is also a performance cost to converting back and forth all the time in your domain objects and your dao classes. 4) Not to mention there needs to be a lot of casting, which produces code ugly as sin. I actually would love to write my own orm that is 100% tailored to scala, but obviously this is really outside of the scope of our project for now. So what is the best approach?

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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  • Preallocating memory with C++ in realtime environment

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    I'm having a function which gets an input buffer of n bytes, and needs an auxillary buffer of n bytes in order to process the given input buffer. (I know vector is allocating memory at runtime, let's say that I'm using a vector which uses static preallocated memory. Imagine this is NOT an STL vector.) The usual approach is void processData(vector<T> &vec) { vector<T> &aux = new vector<T>(vec.size()); //dynamically allocate memory // process data } //usage: processData(v) Since I'm working in a real time environment, I wish to preallocate all the memory I'll ever need in advance. The buffer is allocated only once at startup. I want that whenever I'm allocating a vector, I'll automatically allocate auxillary buffer for my processData function. I can do something similar with a template function static void _processData(vector<T> &vec,vector<T> &aux) { // process data } template<size_t sz> void processData(vector<T> &vec) { static aux_buffer[sz]; vector aux(vec.size(),aux_buffer); // use aux_buffer for the vector _processData(vec,aux); } // usage: processData<V_MAX_SIZE>(v); However working alot with templates is not much fun (now let's recompile everything since I changed a comment!), and it forces me to do some bookkeeping whenever I use this function. Are there any nicer designs around this problem?

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  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL Profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second Linq-to-SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

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  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Programmatically change the icon of the executable

    - by Dennis Delimarsky
    I am developing an application called WeatherBar. Its main functionality is based on its interaction with the Windows 7 taskbar — it changes the icon depending on the weather conditions in a specific location. The icons I am using in the application are all stored in a compiled native resource file (.res) — I am using it instead of the embedded resource manifest for icons only. By default, I modify the Icon property of the main form to change the icons accordingly and it works fine, as long as the icon is not pinned to the taskbar. When it gets pinned, the icon in the taskbar automatically switches to the default one for the executable (with index 0 in the resource file). After doing a little bit of research, I figured that a way to change the icon would be changing the shortcut icon (as all pinned applications are actually shortcuts stored in the user folder). But it didn't work. I assume that I need to change the icon for the executable, and therefore use UpdateResource, but I am not entirely sure about this. My executable is not digitally signed, so it shouldn't be an issue modifying it. What would be the way to solve this issue?

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  • Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

    - by GWLlosa
    So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • Can't post with Perl's Net::Blogger

    - by Ovid
    I'm trying to automatically post to blogger using Perl's Net::Blogger but it keeps returning false and not posting. The main portion of my code looks like this: use Net::Blogger; my $blogger = Net::Blogger->new({ debug => 1, appkey => '0123456789ABCDEF', # doesn't matter? blogid => $blogid, username => $username, password => $password, }); say 'got to here'; my $result = $blogger->newPost({ postbody => \'<p>This is text</p><hr/><p><strong>Whee!</strong></p>', publish => 1, }); say 'done posting'; use Data::Dumper; print Dumper($result); Sure enough, $result is 0 and in checking the blog, nothing has been posted. The error I'm getting when I enable debugging is: Element '' can't be allowed in valid XML message. Died. at /Library/Perl/5.10.1/SOAP/Lite.pm line 1410. What am I doing wrong? If you can suggest an alternative to Net::Blogger, that would be fine.

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  • Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

    - by ropstah
    Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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  • Centralizing Messagebox handling for application

    - by DRapp
    I'm wondering how others deal with trying to centralize MessageBox function calling. Instead of having long text embedded all over the place in code, in the past (non .net language), I would put system and application base "messagebox" type of messages into a database file which would be "burned" into the executable, much like a resource file in .Net. When a prompting condition would arise, I would just do call something like MBAnswer = MyApplication.CallMsgBox( IDUserCantDoThat ) then check the MBAnswer upon return, such as a yes/no/cancel or whatever. In the database table, I would have things like what the messagebox title would be, the buttons that would be shown, the actual message, a special flag that automatically tacked on a subsequent standard comment like "Please contact help desk if this happens.". The function would call the messagebox with all applicable settings and just return back the answer. The big benefits of this was, one location to have all the "context" of messages, and via constants, easier to read what message was going to be presented to the user. Does anyone have a similar system in .Net to do a similar approach, or is this just a bad idea in the .Net environment.

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