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• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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• Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

  - by Brian

  Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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• Specific Shopping Cart Recommendations

  - by Dean J

  I'm trying to suggest a solution for a friend who owns an existing web shop. The current solution isn't cutting it. The new solution needs to have a few things that look like they're enterprise-only if I go with Magento, and $12k a year for a store with maybe $20k in stock just doesn't work. The site should have items, which have one or more categories. Each category may have a parent category. Items have MSRP, and a discount rate by supplier, brand, and sometimes additional discount by product. When a user buys something, it should automatically setup a shipping label with UPS or USPS, depending on user's choice, and build two invoices; one to go in the box, one to go into records. This is crucial; it's low profit per item, so it needs to minimize labor here. Need to be able to have sales (limited by time), discount codes/coupon codes. Ideally would have private sales and/or members-only rates as well. It needs a payment gateway; Paypal/GCheckout-only isn't going to fly. Must be able to accept Visa/MC. Suggestions? I'm debating just building this myself in Java or PHP, but wanted to point my friend to a reasonable-cost solution that already exists if I can. This all seems pretty straightforward to code, save working with the UPS/USPS/Visa/MC APIs, and doing CSS for it.

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• Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

  - by user354303

  Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

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• Rails: Can't set or update tag_list using a text field with acts_as_taggable_on

  - by Josh

  Hey everyone, I'm trying to add tagging to a rails photo gallery system I'm working on. It works from the back-end, but if I try to set or change it in the form view, it doesn't work. I added acts_as_taggable to the photo model and did the migrations. My gallery builder is programmed to add one tag automatically to each photo it creates. This works fine, just as if it were setting it for the console. However, I can't seem to set tags using a text_field in the photo form. Here's the code I added to my photo form: <p> <%= f.label :tag_list %><br /> <%= f.text_field :tag_list %> </p> Now, that's pretty trivial, and since :tag_list supports single-string comma-separated assignment (e.g. tag_list = "this, that, the other" #= ['this', 'that', 'the other']), I don't see why using a text field doesn't work. And to make even less sense, if a tag list has already been populated, the list will still show up in the text field when editing the photo. I just can't seem to commit any changes to the list. The documentation on their github page doesn't appear to give any information on how to set these values from the view. Any ideas? Oh, and I'm using the Rails 3 gem version.

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• How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

  - by Milan Babuškov

  I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

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• Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

  - by ropstah

  Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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• Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

  - by Dr Dork

  I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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• Why do I have to specify pure virtual functions in the declaration of a derived class in Visual C++?

  - by neuviemeporte

  Given the base class A and the derived class B: class A { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; class B : public A { public: void g(); }; void B::g() { cout << "Yay!"; } void B::f() { cout << "Argh!"; } I get errors saying that f() is not declared in B while trying do define void B::f(). Do I have to declare f() explicitly in B? I think that if the interface changes I shouldn't have to correct the declarations in every single class deriving from it. Is there no way for B to get all the virtual functions' declarations from A automatically? EDIT: I found an article that says the inheritance of pure virtual functions is dependent on the compiler: http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/abcpvf.pdf I'm using VC++2008, wonder if there's an option for this.

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• Why cant Git merge file changes with a modified parent/master.

  - by Andy

  I have a file with one line in it. I create a branch and add a second line to the same file. Save and commit to the branch. I switch back to the master. And add a different, second line to the file. Save and commit to the master. So there's now 3 unique lines in total. If I now try and merge the branch back to the master, it suffers a merge conflict. Why cant Git simple merge each line, one after the other? My attempt at merge behaves something like this: PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git merge newbranch Auto-merging hello.txt CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in hello.txt Automatic merge failed; fix conflicts and then commit the result. PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git diff diff --cc hello.txt index 726eeaf,e48d31a..0000000 --- a/hello.txt +++ b/hello.txt @@@ -1,2 -1,2 +1,6 @@@ This is the first line. - New line added by master. -Added a line in newbranch. ++<<<<<<< HEAD ++New line added by master. ++======= ++Added a line in newbranch. ++>>>>>>> newbranch Is there a way to make it slot lines in automatically, one after the other?

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• best web database solution for scala for a high traffic site?

  - by egervari

  I am in charge of a rebuilding a website that gets about 250,000 visitors a day. We'd like to use Scala, but it does not work very well with Spring (in some minor cases) and Hibernate (there is a major and very annoying mismatch here if you want to use scala collections, which we do). The application itself is going to have about 40-50 tables. Other than Hibernate, is there an ORM that works awesome with Scala and is as performant and reliable as Hibernate? Does it also have the same capabilities, or are we going to run into leaky-abstractions if we don't use Hibernate? It would be a big risk for us to go with a framework that is newer and doesn't seem to have a lot of industry backing... and at the same time, Hibernate is a real pain to program against when using Scala. 1) The Java Collection <- Scala Collection is absolutely painful. There is a lot more boilerplate and crap to write. 2) The IDE doesn't import JavaConversions and java interfaces automatically... so we this needs to be done manually. Optimizing Imports in IDEA is going to destroy all the manual work. 3) There is also a performance cost to converting back and forth all the time in your domain objects and your dao classes. 4) Not to mention there needs to be a lot of casting, which produces code ugly as sin. I actually would love to write my own orm that is 100% tailored to scala, but obviously this is really outside of the scope of our project for now. So what is the best approach?

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• Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

  - by GWLlosa

  So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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• Programmatically change the icon of the executable

  - by Dennis Delimarsky

  I am developing an application called WeatherBar. Its main functionality is based on its interaction with the Windows 7 taskbar — it changes the icon depending on the weather conditions in a specific location. The icons I am using in the application are all stored in a compiled native resource file (.res) — I am using it instead of the embedded resource manifest for icons only. By default, I modify the Icon property of the main form to change the icons accordingly and it works fine, as long as the icon is not pinned to the taskbar. When it gets pinned, the icon in the taskbar automatically switches to the default one for the executable (with index 0 in the resource file). After doing a little bit of research, I figured that a way to change the icon would be changing the shortcut icon (as all pinned applications are actually shortcuts stored in the user folder). But it didn't work. I assume that I need to change the icon for the executable, and therefore use UpdateResource, but I am not entirely sure about this. My executable is not digitally signed, so it shouldn't be an issue modifying it. What would be the way to solve this issue?

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• Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

  - by Stephen

  Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

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• Tab Content Does Not Refresh After First Click of Like Button

  - by Adam

  I've implemented a very simple "like guard" for a facebook tab, and am running into an issue with my test users. Multiple testers are reporting that when they open a tab and click the "like" button, they do not always get a page refresh (so the like guard does not disappear until they do a manual reload). This is using facebook's like button at the top of the page, not one I've coded up myself. As a sanity check, I enabled some simple logging on my server and have been able to recreate the issue - I hit "like" or "unlike" but there seems to be no request made to my index.php page, so definitely no refresh happening. I'm aware of this old bug https://developers.facebook.com/bugs/228778937218386 but this one seems different. For starters, after the first click of the "like" button, if I just continue clicking unlike/like/.... then the refresh happens automatically, as expected. What's especially weird is that if I reload the page after the first failed refresh, the refreshes start working again as expected, ie the first update to my like status triggers a page refresh. Some possibly (?) relevant info: My Tab is part of a test page, and is unpublished I am only using http hosting for the tab content, since my https isn't set up yet So far I've just tested with other admins - so maybe user role affects this? Curious to see if anyone has run into this issue before.

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• iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

  - by Frank R.

  I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

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• Changing the Hibernate 3 settings

  - by Bogdanel

  I use Hibernate3 and Hibernate Tools 3.2.4 to generate hbm.xml and java files and I want to use List instead of HashSet(...). I've tried to modify the hbm.xml files, putting list instead of set. Is there any way to specify to hibernate tools that I want to generate automatically a list not a HashSet? This is an exemple: Java class public class Test implements java.io.Serializable { private Long testId; private Course course; private String testName; private Set<Question> questions = new HashSet<Question>( 0 ); } Test.hbm.xml: <set name="questions" inverse="true" lazy="true" table="questions" fetch="select"> <key> <column name="test_id" not-null="true" /> </key> <one-to-many class="com.app.objects.Question" /> ... </set> I thought that I could find a clue in the "reveng.xml" file, but I failed.

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• Struts logic:iterate input field

  - by camilos

  I currently have the following code and the data is displayed fine. <logic:iterate name="myList" id="product" indexId="iteration" type="com.mycompany.MyBean"> <tr> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="weight"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="sku"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="quantity"/> </td> </tr> </logic:iterate> But now I need to make the "quantity" part modifiable. The user should be able to update that field, press submit and when its sent to the server, "myList" should automatically update with the new quantities. I've tried searching for help on this but all I keep finding is examples on how to display data only, not modify it. Any help would be appreciated.

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• FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

  - by goober

  I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

  - by Alan Storm

  Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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• Error handling approach on PHP

  - by Industrial

  Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications onto. They will all share database and memcached servers, but each application has it's own mySQL database and all memcached keys per application, is prefixed. Possible scenario: If a memcached server in our cluster goes boom, we want someone (operative system admin) to be automatically contacted by email/iphone push notification or in any other appropriate way. If we we're about to install 150 identical applications for our customers on our servers, and a memcached server dies - all 150 applications will individually find this out and contact our system admin, which most certainly is going to think about getting a new job where he or she isn't about to be woken up by getting 150 messages sent 4:15 in the morning. Possible solution: One idea is to set up an external server for error handling that gets a $_POST or cURL request sent, and handles storage of the error message depending on the seriousness of the actual error message. It would of course check upon receiving the error call, that if the same memcached server have already been reported as offline, there would be no need to spam the system admin with additional reminders... The questions: What's a good approach on how to handle errors? How does the big guys in the industry handle this? Thanks!

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• Error monitoring/handling on webservers

  - by Industrial

  Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications onto. They will all share database and memcached servers, but each application has it's own mySQL database and all memcached keys per application, is prefixed. Possible scenario: If a memcached server in our cluster goes boom, we want someone (operative system admin) to be automatically contacted by email/iphone push notification or in any other appropriate way. If we we're about to install 150 identical applications for our customers on our servers, and a memcached server dies - all 150 applications will individually find this out and contact our system admin, which most certainly is going to think about getting a new job where he or she isn't about to be woken up by getting 150 messages sent 4:15 in the morning. Possible solution: One idea is to set up an external server for error handling that gets a $_POST or cURL request sent, and handles storage of the error message depending on the seriousness of the actual error message. It would of course check upon receiving the error call, that if the same memcached server have already been reported as offline, there would be no need to spam the system admin with additional reminders... The questions: What's a good approach on how to handle errors? How does the big guys in the industry handle this? Thanks!

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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• Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

  - by Bloudermilk

  Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

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• Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

  - by nodje

  I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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