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  • Preallocating memory with C++ in realtime environment

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    I'm having a function which gets an input buffer of n bytes, and needs an auxillary buffer of n bytes in order to process the given input buffer. (I know vector is allocating memory at runtime, let's say that I'm using a vector which uses static preallocated memory. Imagine this is NOT an STL vector.) The usual approach is void processData(vector<T> &vec) { vector<T> &aux = new vector<T>(vec.size()); //dynamically allocate memory // process data } //usage: processData(v) Since I'm working in a real time environment, I wish to preallocate all the memory I'll ever need in advance. The buffer is allocated only once at startup. I want that whenever I'm allocating a vector, I'll automatically allocate auxillary buffer for my processData function. I can do something similar with a template function static void _processData(vector<T> &vec,vector<T> &aux) { // process data } template<size_t sz> void processData(vector<T> &vec) { static aux_buffer[sz]; vector aux(vec.size(),aux_buffer); // use aux_buffer for the vector _processData(vec,aux); } // usage: processData<V_MAX_SIZE>(v); However working alot with templates is not much fun (now let's recompile everything since I changed a comment!), and it forces me to do some bookkeeping whenever I use this function. Are there any nicer designs around this problem?

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  • IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

    - by DigitalBlade
    Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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  • iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

    - by Frank R.
    I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

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  • best web database solution for scala for a high traffic site?

    - by egervari
    I am in charge of a rebuilding a website that gets about 250,000 visitors a day. We'd like to use Scala, but it does not work very well with Spring (in some minor cases) and Hibernate (there is a major and very annoying mismatch here if you want to use scala collections, which we do). The application itself is going to have about 40-50 tables. Other than Hibernate, is there an ORM that works awesome with Scala and is as performant and reliable as Hibernate? Does it also have the same capabilities, or are we going to run into leaky-abstractions if we don't use Hibernate? It would be a big risk for us to go with a framework that is newer and doesn't seem to have a lot of industry backing... and at the same time, Hibernate is a real pain to program against when using Scala. 1) The Java Collection <- Scala Collection is absolutely painful. There is a lot more boilerplate and crap to write. 2) The IDE doesn't import JavaConversions and java interfaces automatically... so we this needs to be done manually. Optimizing Imports in IDEA is going to destroy all the manual work. 3) There is also a performance cost to converting back and forth all the time in your domain objects and your dao classes. 4) Not to mention there needs to be a lot of casting, which produces code ugly as sin. I actually would love to write my own orm that is 100% tailored to scala, but obviously this is really outside of the scope of our project for now. So what is the best approach?

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL Profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second Linq-to-SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

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  • jquery question

    - by OM The Eternity
    I am using the Jquery library to copy the text enter in one textfield to another textfield using a check box when clicked.. which is as follows <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("input#checker").bind("click",function(o){ if($("input#checker:checked").length){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); }else{ $("#enddate").val(""); } }); } ); </script> </body> </html> now here i want the check box to be selected by default, so that the data entered in start date get copied automatically as check box is checked by default... so what event should be called here in jquery script? please help me in resolving this issue...

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  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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  • Why do I have to specify pure virtual functions in the declaration of a derived class in Visual C++?

    - by neuviemeporte
    Given the base class A and the derived class B: class A { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; class B : public A { public: void g(); }; void B::g() { cout << "Yay!"; } void B::f() { cout << "Argh!"; } I get errors saying that f() is not declared in B while trying do define void B::f(). Do I have to declare f() explicitly in B? I think that if the interface changes I shouldn't have to correct the declarations in every single class deriving from it. Is there no way for B to get all the virtual functions' declarations from A automatically? EDIT: I found an article that says the inheritance of pure virtual functions is dependent on the compiler: http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/abcpvf.pdf I'm using VC++2008, wonder if there's an option for this.

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  • Why cant Git merge file changes with a modified parent/master.

    - by Andy
    I have a file with one line in it. I create a branch and add a second line to the same file. Save and commit to the branch. I switch back to the master. And add a different, second line to the file. Save and commit to the master. So there's now 3 unique lines in total. If I now try and merge the branch back to the master, it suffers a merge conflict. Why cant Git simple merge each line, one after the other? My attempt at merge behaves something like this: PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git merge newbranch Auto-merging hello.txt CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in hello.txt Automatic merge failed; fix conflicts and then commit the result. PS D:\dev\testing\test1> git diff diff --cc hello.txt index 726eeaf,e48d31a..0000000 --- a/hello.txt +++ b/hello.txt @@@ -1,2 -1,2 +1,6 @@@ This is the first line. - New line added by master. -Added a line in newbranch. ++<<<<<<< HEAD ++New line added by master. ++======= ++Added a line in newbranch. ++>>>>>>> newbranch Is there a way to make it slot lines in automatically, one after the other?

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  • Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

    - by ropstah
    Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

    - by GWLlosa
    So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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  • Programmatically change the icon of the executable

    - by Dennis Delimarsky
    I am developing an application called WeatherBar. Its main functionality is based on its interaction with the Windows 7 taskbar — it changes the icon depending on the weather conditions in a specific location. The icons I am using in the application are all stored in a compiled native resource file (.res) — I am using it instead of the embedded resource manifest for icons only. By default, I modify the Icon property of the main form to change the icons accordingly and it works fine, as long as the icon is not pinned to the taskbar. When it gets pinned, the icon in the taskbar automatically switches to the default one for the executable (with index 0 in the resource file). After doing a little bit of research, I figured that a way to change the icon would be changing the shortcut icon (as all pinned applications are actually shortcuts stored in the user folder). But it didn't work. I assume that I need to change the icon for the executable, and therefore use UpdateResource, but I am not entirely sure about this. My executable is not digitally signed, so it shouldn't be an issue modifying it. What would be the way to solve this issue?

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  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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  • Struts logic:iterate input field

    - by camilos
    I currently have the following code and the data is displayed fine. <logic:iterate name="myList" id="product" indexId="iteration" type="com.mycompany.MyBean"> <tr> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="weight"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="sku"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="quantity"/> </td> </tr> </logic:iterate> But now I need to make the "quantity" part modifiable. The user should be able to update that field, press submit and when its sent to the server, "myList" should automatically update with the new quantities. I've tried searching for help on this but all I keep finding is examples on how to display data only, not modify it. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Changing the Hibernate 3 settings

    - by Bogdanel
    I use Hibernate3 and Hibernate Tools 3.2.4 to generate hbm.xml and java files and I want to use List instead of HashSet(...). I've tried to modify the hbm.xml files, putting list instead of set. Is there any way to specify to hibernate tools that I want to generate automatically a list not a HashSet? This is an exemple: Java class public class Test implements java.io.Serializable { private Long testId; private Course course; private String testName; private Set<Question> questions = new HashSet<Question>( 0 ); } Test.hbm.xml: <set name="questions" inverse="true" lazy="true" table="questions" fetch="select"> <key> <column name="test_id" not-null="true" /> </key> <one-to-many class="com.app.objects.Question" /> ... </set> I thought that I could find a clue in the "reveng.xml" file, but I failed.

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

    - by joon
    Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

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  • Error monitoring/handling on webservers

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications onto. They will all share database and memcached servers, but each application has it's own mySQL database and all memcached keys per application, is prefixed. Possible scenario: If a memcached server in our cluster goes boom, we want someone (operative system admin) to be automatically contacted by email/iphone push notification or in any other appropriate way. If we we're about to install 150 identical applications for our customers on our servers, and a memcached server dies - all 150 applications will individually find this out and contact our system admin, which most certainly is going to think about getting a new job where he or she isn't about to be woken up by getting 150 messages sent 4:15 in the morning. Possible solution: One idea is to set up an external server for error handling that gets a $_POST or cURL request sent, and handles storage of the error message depending on the seriousness of the actual error message. It would of course check upon receiving the error call, that if the same memcached server have already been reported as offline, there would be no need to spam the system admin with additional reminders... The questions: What's a good approach on how to handle errors? How does the big guys in the industry handle this? Thanks!

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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