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• Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

  - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen

  I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

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• Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

  - by Mark Tielemans

  I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

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• Why can't I play videos on my Samsung Moment w/Android 2.1 that did play on 1.5?

  - by cpcarroll71

  Hello all. I was directed here by the Google Android Devs Group. I'm still not sure if this is the place I need to be. I've been on forum after forum and asked the same question but no one seems to know the answer or will tell me the REAL correct place to find it. I have a Samsung Moment with Android 2.1. I can not get videos that DID play on Android 1.5 to play on 2.1 now with very few exceptions. I'm not just talking about different videos with the same format, I'm talking about some of the exact same videos that did play in 1.5 will no longer play in 2.1. These are almost all AVI files. If Android doesn't support AVI natively with it's own stock media player then why or how was I able to play these videos flawlessly on 1.5? The way I always played the videos was viewing my SD card, tapping the thumbnail of the video I wanted, and it would automatically open up in the phones media player right away. Now the phone locks up and then eventually gives an error message. Please tell me someone here knows what is going on and if there is a way to fix this. Or if nothing else, tell me where I do need to look to ask this question and find an answer. Thank you.

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• jquery question

  - by OM The Eternity

  I am using the Jquery library to copy the text enter in one textfield to another textfield using a check box when clicked.. which is as follows <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("input#checker").bind("click",function(o){ if($("input#checker:checked").length){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); }else{ $("#enddate").val(""); } }); } ); </script> </body> </html> now here i want the check box to be selected by default, so that the data entered in start date get copied automatically as check box is checked by default... so what event should be called here in jquery script? please help me in resolving this issue...

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• managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

  - by Schotime

  Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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• Need a piece of advice about e-mail automation in ms exchange + ms office environment

  - by be here now

  Hi, guys. I need your help in the following simple situation. I've got an MS Exchange server and some client computers running on XP with Office 2003 installed. And I've got a process I need to automate. Twice a day a known list of people sends an e-mail to a certain mailbox (let's call it manager's mailbox) - basically, an accomplishment report. After recieving letters from all of these people the mailbox owner sends and e-mail to another mailbox, meaning that a certain process is done. What I need to do is to replace this manager's mailbox with a depersonalized mailbox that will accumulate all the reports and automatically send a message after collecting all of them. I am definitely not in a "oh my God, what shold I do?" situation, and currently my imagination shows me a couple of ways to solve this problem, which I'm going to try, and I'm not ascking for a ready solution. But since I'm not experienced in Office/VBA developement, I'd like to ask a corresponding pro's opinion. Can you point me to a right direction from the best practices' point of view?

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• Display and Use Advanced Find for Product Subscriptions by Account in Microsoft CRM 4.0

  - by Chris

  By default when viewing an account in edit mode you have access to Opportunities, Invoices, and Quotes which contain the products being shopped by the account and/or the sales department. I'm trying to determine where to store, display, and use the products that an account has a subscription too. I may not understand the implementation but it seems that there should be "Products" option directly off the root Account management window that will show the user all the products the account has purchased. We are trying to integrate this with our production tracking system where product sales can originate from other channels that will not flow through CRM first. This product subscription does not fit into the Opportunity, Quote, or Invoice model because they are confirmed recurring sales that were automatically purchased via tools like a Public Website, Portal, etc. By enabling this tracking in CRM we can use the advanced find feature to facilitate follow up sales and marketing efforts. Example: Find everyone who is subscribed to model A, so we can notify them of a new holiday campaign where they can get 10% off on all add-ons. It's my assumption that this is a common scenario, however I'd like to better understand how to approach this within the world of Microsoft CRM. Thank you in advance.

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• PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

  - by Jonathon

  I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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• Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

  - by Dr Dork

  I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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• self join to select consecutive numbers

  - by shantanuo

  CREATE TABLE `mybug` ( `SEAT_NO` decimal(2,0) NOT NULL, `ROW_NO` decimal(2,0) NOT NULL, `COL_NO` decimal(2,0) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `mybug` VALUES ('1','1','1'),('26','7','2'),('31','8','2'),('32','8','1'),('33','9','1'),('34','9','2'),('35','9','5'),('36','9','6'),('37','10','6'),('38','10','5'),('39','10','2'),('40','10','1'),('41','11','1'),('42','11','2'),('43','11','4'),('44','11','5'); +---------+--------+--------+ | SEAT_NO | ROW_NO | COL_NO | +---------+--------+--------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | | 26 | 7 | 2 | | 31 | 8 | 2 | | 32 | 8 | 1 | | 33 | 9 | 1 | | 34 | 9 | 2 | | 35 | 9 | 5 | | 36 | 9 | 6 | | 37 | 10 | 6 | | 38 | 10 | 5 | | 39 | 10 | 2 | | 40 | 10 | 1 | | 41 | 11 | 1 | | 42 | 11 | 2 | | 43 | 11 | 4 | | 44 | 11 | 5 | +---------+--------+--------+ 16 rows in set (0.00 sec) In the above chart, I need to select 2 seats those are in the same row AND column numbers are next to each other. For e.g. Seat Numbers 38 & 39 can not be issued even if both the seats are from the same row because the column numbers 2 & 5 are not adjacent. The expected results are as follows: 31 33 35 37 39 41 43 These are the starting numbers and the next seat will be automatically booked as well. for e.g. 31 & 32

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• How to wrap a C function whose parameters are pointer to structs, so that it can be called from Lua?

  - by pierr

  I have the follwing C function. How should I wrap it so it can be called from a Lua script? typedef struct tagT{ int a ; int b ; } type_t; int lib_a_f_4(type_t *t) { return t->a * t->b ; } I know how to wrapr it if the function parameter type were int or char *. Should I use table type for a C structure? EDIT: I am using SWIG for the wraping , according to this doc, It seems that I should automatically have this funtion new_type_t(2,3) , but it is not the case. If you wrap a C structure, it is also mapped to a Lua userdata. By adding a metatable to the userdata, this provides a very natural interface. For example, struct Point{ int x,y; }; is used as follows: p=example.new_Point() p.x=3 p.y=5 print(p.x,p.y) 3 5 Similar access is provided for unions and the data members of C++ classes. C structures are created using a function new_Point(), but for C++ classes are created using just the name Point().

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• Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

  - by GWLlosa

  So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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• using .append to build a complex menu

  - by gneandr

  To build a menu block which should be switchable with hide/unhide of the menu items, I'm using .append html. The code idea is this: navigat += '<h3 class="infoH3"> <a id="' + menuID +'"' + ' href="javascript:slideMenu(\'' + menuSlider + '\');">' + menuName + '</a></h3>'; navigat += '<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">'; navigat += ' <ul>'; navigat += ' <li>aMenu1</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu2</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu3</li>' navigat += ' </ul>'; navigat += '<!-- menuName Slider --></div>'; $("#someElement").append (navigat); This is doing well .. so far. But the point is:: I use JS to read the required menu items (eg. 'aMenu1' together with title and/or link info) from a file to build all that, eg. for 'aMenu1' a complex is composed and $("#someElement").append(someString) is used to add that the 'someElement'. At the moment I build those html elements line by line. Also OK .. as far as the resulting string has the opening and closing tag, eg. "<li>aMenu2</li>". As can be seen from above posted code there is a line "<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">". Appending that -- AFAIS -- the .append is automatically (????) adding "</div>" which closes the statement. That breaks my idea of the whole concept! The menu part isn't included in the 'menuSlider '. QQ: How to change it -- NOT to have that "</div" added to it?? Günter

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• C# ...extract email address from inside 100's of text files

  - by Developer

  My SMTP server got 100's of errors when sending lots of emails. Now have lots of .BAD files each one containing an error message and somewhere in the middle, the actual email address it was supposed to be sent to. What is the easiest way to extract from each file "just" the "email address", so that I can have a list of the actual failed emails? I can code in C# and any suggestion will be truly welcomed. BAD SAMPLE TEXT: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 12:12:09 -0700 MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/report; report-type=delivery-status; boundary="9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co" X-DSNContext: 7ce717b1 - 1386 - 00000002 - C00402D1 Message-ID: Subject: Delivery Status Notification (Failure) This is a MIME-formatted message. Portions of this message may be unreadable without a MIME-capable mail program. --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co Content-Type: text/plain; charset=unicode-1-1-utf-7 This is an automatically generated Delivery Status Notification. Unable to deliver message to the following recipients, due to being unable to connect successfully to the destination mail server. [email protected] --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/delivery-status Reporting-MTA: dns;my.server.com Received-From-MTA: dns;Social Arrival-Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 Final-Recipient: rfc822;[email protected] Action: failed Status: 4.4.7 --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/rfc822 Received: from Social ([127.0.0.1]) by my.server.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(7.5.7601.17514); Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 ====================================== ...and lots more text after ===================== Mainly I want to find the "[email protected]" email right in the middle...

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• Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

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• youtube video downloaed succesfully on local, but on server(online) only 0 byte flv is downloading

  - by I Like PHP

  i m using php tube class to download youtube video. Video is automatically downloaded in a folder by submitting youtube video url. everything is working fine on local (XAMPP), but when i upload this to server(online), THEN ONLY 0 byte flv file is saved. i also debug the code both side( local and global ). i get the url like this( on local) http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=1jNWCFwqPvM&=vjVQa1PpcFMyYCECyfmYENWklpwXGyhVgJpSFPgNAEc%3D whereas on server i got link like this http://www.youtube.com/ get_video?video_id=1jNWCFwqPvM&t=vjVQa1PpcFNS3SPxIXi8hy-NF4qZFFrScDXCjGLLrLc%3D when i copy the link getting from local and paste on browser then a download box appear on browser, whereas when i copy the link getting from server and paste on browser then only a blank page appears please solve my problem, where is the error??? how to know that pear is installed or not on server? on server side sometimes i get link like http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=1jNWCFwqPvM&t=vjVQa1PpcFNS3SPxIXi8hy-NF4qZFFrScDXCjGLLrLc%3D but sometimes i get only http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=&t= please guide me how to solve these? Thanks in advance to all my seniors

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• Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

  - by Stephen

  Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

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• Updating UI objects in windows forms

  - by P a u l

  Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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• How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

  - by Banford

  I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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• Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

  - by Brian

  Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

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• Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

  - by Robert Rossney

  Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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• Can't post with Perl's Net::Blogger

  - by Ovid

  I'm trying to automatically post to blogger using Perl's Net::Blogger but it keeps returning false and not posting. The main portion of my code looks like this: use Net::Blogger; my $blogger = Net::Blogger->new({ debug => 1, appkey => '0123456789ABCDEF', # doesn't matter? blogid => $blogid, username => $username, password => $password, }); say 'got to here'; my $result = $blogger->newPost({ postbody => \'<p>This is text</p><hr/><p><strong>Whee!</strong></p>', publish => 1, }); say 'done posting'; use Data::Dumper; print Dumper($result); Sure enough, $result is 0 and in checking the blog, nothing has been posted. The error I'm getting when I enable debugging is: Element '' can't be allowed in valid XML message. Died. at /Library/Perl/5.10.1/SOAP/Lite.pm line 1410. What am I doing wrong? If you can suggest an alternative to Net::Blogger, that would be fine.

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• Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

  - by ropstah

  Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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• How can I prevent text displacement for some foreign language fonts?

  - by weltraumpirat

  I have a multilingual project (currently 13 languages), which uses many different font variations of "Helvetica Neue", mostly bold, condensed and regular cuts from the LinoType Pro font set ( which includes western european characters) and the same for cyrillic. We will probably add chinese and japanese variations in the future. I have set up the project to use different CSS stylesheets and separately load the fonts for each version, depending on which language the user selects, so I can have different line heights, kerning and/or font sizes to make everything keep the original look, even if the fonts look nothing alike. All of this works well, except for one problem: For some reason, all cyrillic letters seem to be displaced. They appear 2-3 pixels below the correct base line, and actually protrude across the textfield's bottom border, even when the field is set to autosize. When I use textfield.getCharBoundaries(), all values seem to be correct, even though they obviously aren't rendered correctly. To make everything look neat, I could of course manually move all problematic textfields up or down according to language and font size, but I was wondering if there was some way to prevent or at least detect this kind of displacement in order to automatically handle the adjustments - the Flash Player should have some sort of information on how things are rendered, shouldn't it? Have any of you had similar problems? Or better yet: a solution?

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• Is there a way to reload the page after <fb:like> is clicked?

  - by joon

  Hi, I'm wondering about this: I have a simple facebook-connect app that will only show certain content after you login and liked a certain page. It works (huzzah!) but I want to make it more user friendly by making it refresh automatically after you pressed the like button. Here's some code: <?php if ($me) { $pageid = -----------; $uid = $me['id']; $likeID = $facebook->api( array( 'method' => 'fql.query', 'query' => 'SELECT target_id FROM connection WHERE source_id = ' . $uid . ' AND target_id = ' . $pageid ) ); if ( empty($likeID) ) { // Person is LOGGED IN, but has NOT LIKED echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } else { // Person is LOGGED IN, and has LIKED, score! echo 'Download link'; } } else { // Person is NOT LOGGED IN, so we know NOTHING echo '<script src="MY WEBPAGE"></script><fb:like href="MY WEBPAGE" layout="box_count" show_faces="false" width="450"></fb:like>'; } ?> Is there anything I can do to this code (maybe in the fb:like tag?) that makes it reload the page after a like? Thanks.

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