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• Interpolating data points in Excel

  - by Niels Basjes

  Hi, I'm sure this is the kind of problem other have solved many times before. A group of people are going to do measurements (Home energy usage to be exact). All of them will do that at different times and in different intervals. So what I'll get from each person is a set of {date, value} pairs where there are dates missing in the set. What I need is a complete set of {date, value} pairs where for each date withing the range a value is known (either measured or calculated). I expect that a simple linear interpolation would suffice for this project. If I assume that it must be done in Excel. What is the best way to interpolate in such a dataset (so I have a value for every day) ? Thanks. NOTE: When these datasets are complete I'll determine the slope (i.e. usage per day) and from that we can start doing home-to-home comparisons. ADDITIONAL INFO After first few suggestions: I do not want to manually figure out where the holes are in my measurement set (too many incomplete measurement sets!!). I'm looking for something (existing) automatic to do that for me. So if my input is {2009-06-01, 10} {2009-06-03, 20} {2009-06-06, 110} Then I expect to automatically get {2009-06-01, 10} {2009-06-02, 15} {2009-06-03, 20} {2009-06-04, 50} {2009-06-05, 80} {2009-06-06, 110} Yes, I can write software that does this. I am just hoping that someone already has a "ready to run" software (Excel) feature for this (rather generic) problem.

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• Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

  - by mad

  Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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• Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

  - by denisw

  I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

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• Ajax request (from .NET) give me unexpected results

  - by ironnailpiercethesky

  I wanted to learn a little more about web and .NET so i decided to write a program to download binaries, webpages and does a little ajax. The first download site i tried was too easy. So i went against uploading.com. It seemed good, no captcha, some ajax use required, you cant guess all the data, it was perfect. After 2hours of messing around i got frustrated. For the life of me i could not get the ajax response to give me what i was expecting. I decided to use tamper data clear my cookies, click on the entry for the ajax request. Copy the Referer, cookies and postdata and came up with this code. It does not work! I am shocked that copying those fields did not work. I even tried setting the user agent (not in code linked) and it still did not work. Why isnt this POST on the ajax request not giving me the correct file? I notice the JsHttpRequest=12719132559480-xml changes based on time so if you want to run the code you should grab a new snapshot with tamperdata (or at least update that url). I dont see any extra headers in tamper data so does anyone know why i might not be getting the response expected? I know disabling cookies or javascript will make the link 'expired' automatically. I dont think javascript will matter because i got the data from tamperdata at the moment of request so what gives? What am i forgetting or what data am i not submitting properly?

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• Need help with version number schemes

  - by Davy8

  I know the standard Major.Minor.Build.Revision but there's several considerations for us that are somewhat unique -We do internal releases almost daily, occasionally more than once a day. -Windows Installer doesn't check Revision so that's almost moot for our purposes. -Major and Minor numbers ideally are only updated for public releases and should be done manually. -That leaves the Build # that needs to be automatically updated. -We want internal releases to be able to be performed from any developer's machine so that leaves out using x.x.* in Visual Studio because different numbers could be generated from different machines and each build isn't guaranteed to be larger than the previous. -We have about 15 or so projects as part of the product so saving the version numbers in SVN isn't ideal since every release we'd have commit all those files. Given those criteria I can't really come up with a good versioning scheme. The last 2 criteria could be dropped but meeting all of those seems ideal. A date stamp is insufficient because we might do more than one a day, and given the max size of Uint32 (around 64000) (Actually using WiX it complains about numbers higher than Int32.MaxValue) a date/time won't fit.

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• Makefile - Dependency generation

  - by Profetylen

  I am trying to create a makefile that automatically compiles and links my .cpp files into an executable via .o files. What I can't get working is automated (or even manual) dependency generation. When i uncomment the below commented code, nothing is recompiled when i run make build. All i get is make: Nothing to be done for 'build'., even if x.h (or any .h file) has changed. I've been trying to learn from this question: Makefile, header dependencies, dmckee's answer, especially. Why isn't this makefile working? Clarification: I can compile everything, but when I modify any header file, the .cpp files that depend on it aren't updated. So, if I for instance compile my entire source, then I change a #define in the header file, and then run make build, and I get Nothing to be done for 'build'. (when I have uncommented either commented chunks of the below code). CC=gcc CFLAGS=-O2 -Wall LDFLAGS=-lSDL -lstdc++ SOURCES=$(wildcard *.cpp) OBJECTS=$(patsubst %.cpp, obj/%.o,$(SOURCES)) TARGET=bin/test.bin # Nothing happens when i uncomment the following. (automated attempt) #depend: .depend # #.depend: $(SOURCES) # rm -f ./.depend # $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -MM $^ >> ./.depend; # #include .depend # And nothing happens when i uncomment the following. x.cpp and x.h are files in my project. (manual attempt) #x.o: x.cpp x.h clean: rm -f $(TARGET) rm -f $(OBJECTS) run: build ./$(TARGET) debug: build nm $(TARGET) gdb $(TARGET) build: $(TARGET) $(TARGET): $(OBJECTS) @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) $(LDFLAGS) $(OBJECTS) -o $@ obj/%.o: %.cpp @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) -c $(CFLAGS) $< -o $@ include $(DEPENDENCIES)

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• When an NSWindow object has a delegate that is a NSWindow subclass, who is responsible to act on received events?

  - by spade78

  So I'm building a program that features the use of the IKImageBrowserView component as a subview in an NSWindow. As a side note, I have a controller object called ImageBrowserController which subclasses NSWindow and is set as the delegate of the NSWindow object of my app. I have sent IKImageBrowserView the message setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES to enable it to automatically use the QuickLook functionality to preview image files when the IKImageBrowserView is a first responder to receive key events. Then it took me a while to figure out how to make the IKImageBrowserView a first responder which I finally got working by overriding acceptsFirstResponder inside my ImageBrowserController. Now I understand that as the delegate to the NSWindow, ImageBrowserController has a place in the responder chain after the event gets triggered on NSWindow. And I understand that as a subview of NSWindow, IKImageBrowserView is in line to be passed events for event handling. What I don't get is where the connection is between the ImageBrowserController being a first responder and the event somehow making it to the IKImageBrowserView. I didn't set NSWindow or IKImageBrowserView as first responders explicitly. So why isn't it necessary for me to implement event handling inside my ImageBrowserController? EDIT: So after reading the accepted answer and going back to my code I tried removing the acceptsFirstResponder override in my ImageBrowserController and the QuickLook functionality still triggered just like the accepted answer said it would. Commenting out the setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES made the app beep at me when I tried to invoke QuickLook functionality via the spacebar. I'm getting the feeling that my troubles were caused by user error of XCode in hitting the RUN button instead of the BUILD button after making changes to my code (sigh).

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• How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

  - by pauldoo

  I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

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• Search dir using wildcard string, return filename, and loop.

  - by Charlie Murphy

  Hello all, I'm having some problems, and looking for some help. I'm trying to create a photo gallery in javascript, that will be able to 'update' it's self automatically. I need to be able to search a directory, and grab a file with a specific prefix. I need to output the followng HTML code: <li><a href="images/resize_FILENAME.ext"><img src="images/thumb_FILENAME.ext"></a></li> The 'resize_' and 'thumb_' use a timestamp to identify, so they have the same ending, just a different prefix. So, for example, if I search the directory for an image with a prefix of 'resize_', I need to insert that into the a tag, and then remove the '_resize' prefix, and add the '_thumb' prefix for the img tag. I then need to be able to do that for each image in the directory. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Oh, I should add: I'm assuming php would be easiest for this, but if an alternative exists that would work too. I'm also using jQuery if javascript would be better.

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• customer.name joining transactions.name vs. customer.id [serial] joining transactions.id [integer]

  - by Frank Computer

  INFORMIX-SQL 7.32 Pawnshop Application: one-to-many relationship where each customer (master) can have many transactions (detail). customer( id serial, pk_name char(30), {PATERNAL-NAME MATERNAL-NAME, FIRST-NAME MIDDLE-NAME} [...] ); unique index on id; unique cluster index on name; transaction( fk_name char(30), ticket_number serial, [...] ); dups cluster index on fk_name; unique index on ticket_number; Several people have told me this is not the correct way to join master to detail. They said I should always join customer.id[serial] to transactions.id[integer]. When a customer pawns merchandise, clerk queries the master using wildcards on name. The query usually returns several customers, clerk scrolls until locating the right name, enters a 'D' to change to detail transactions table, all transactions are automatically queried, then clerk enters an 'A' to add a new transaction. The problem with using customer.id joining transaction.id is that although the customer table is maintained in sorted name order, clustering the transaction table by fk_id groups the transactions by fk_id, but they are not in the same order as the customer name, so when clerk is scrolling through customer names in the master, the system has to jump allover the place to locate the clustered transactions belonging to each customer. As each new customer is added, the next id is assigned to that customer, but new customers dont show up in alphabetical order. I experimented using id joins and confirmed the decrease in performance. How can I use id joins instead of name joins and still preserve the clustered transaction order by name if transactions has no name column?

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• Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

  - by Jake Stevenson

  I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

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• How do virtual destructors work?

  - by Prabhu

  Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructors wrong! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements() {} }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called. And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. Isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor wrong?

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• Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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• Updating target workbook - extracting data from source workbook

  - by Allan

  My question is as follows: I have given a workbook to multiple people. They have this workbook in a folder of their choice. The workbook name is the same for all people, but folder locations vary. Let's assume the common file name is MyData-1.xls. Now I have updated the workbook and want to give it to these people. However when they receive the new one (let's call it MyData-2.xls) I want specific parts of their data pulled from their file (MyData-1) and automatically put into the new one provided (MyData-2). The columns and cells to be copied/imported are identical for both workbooks. Let's assume I want to import cell data (values only) from MyData-1.xls, Sheet 1, cells B8 through C25 ... to ... the same location in the MyData-2.xls workbook. How can I specify in code (possibly attached to a macro driven import data now button) that I want this data brought into this new workbook. I have tried it at my own location by opening the two workbooks and using the copy/paste-special with links process. It works really well, but It seems to create a hard link between the two physical workbooks. I changed the name of the source workbook and it still worked. This makes me believe that there is a "hard link" between the tow and that this will not allow me to give the target (MyData-2.xls) workbook to others and have it find their source workbook.

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• Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

  - by hangy

  During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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• PHP curl timing mismatch

  - by JonoB

  I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• camera picturecallback intent not work

  - by Simon

  After I take the photo, the program automatically goes back like onBackPressed(). When I remove the putExtra, the intent runs. When I put startActivity() after takePicture(), it transfers null data.... I just want to put the image data to another activity to have other use. How can it be achieved? private PictureCallback picture = new PictureCallback(){ @Override public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Intent intent = new Intent(CameraFilming.this, PhotoPreview.class); intent.putExtra("imageByte", data); //Picture data transfer to next activity startActivity(intent); } }; //take photo by pressing button private class captureBtnListener implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v){ capture.setOnClickListener(null); CountDownTimer timer = new CountDownTimer(10000, 1000){ @Override public void onTick(long millisUntilFinished) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub countdown.setText(millisUntilFinished/1000+""); } @Override public void onFinish() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub countdown.setText("0"); camera.takePicture(null, null, picture); } }; timer.start(); } } public class PhotoPreview extends Activity{ private RelativeLayout layout; private ImageView overlay, texture, face1, face2; @Override public void onCreate (Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.photo_preview); layout = (RelativeLayout)findViewById(R.id.preview_layout); byte[] data = getIntent().getByteArrayExtra("imageByte"); if (data == null){ Log.d("PhotoPreview", "no image data"); finish(); } Bitmap rawPhotoBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(data, 0, data.length); ImageProcess imgProcess = new ImageProcess(this); Bitmap resizedFace = imgProcess.scaleAccordingWidth(imgProcess.cropImage(rawPhotoBitmap, 840, 125, 440, 560), 77); face1 = new ImageView(this); face1.setImageBitmap(resizedFace); Log.d("testing", "testing"); } }

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• jQuery expanding menu

  - by Milen

  Hi everybody, i have this html code: <ul id="nav"> <li>Heading 1 <ul> <li>Sub page A</li> <li>Sub page B</li> <li>Sub page C</li> </ul> </li> <li>Heading 2 <ul> <li>Sub page D</li> <li>Sub page E</li> <li>Sub page F</li> </ul> </li> </ul> With this JS code: $(function(){ $('#nav>li>ul').hide(); $('#nav>li').mouseover(function(){ if ($('#nav ul:animated').size() == 0) { $heading = $(this); $expandedSiblings = $heading.siblings().find('ul:visible'); if ($expandedSiblings.size() > 0) { $expandedSiblings.slideUp(500, function(){ $heading.find('ul').slideDown(500); }); } else { $heading.find('ul').slideDown(1000); } } }); }) For now the code works this way: When click on Heading 1, menu is expanded. When click on Heading 2, heading2 submenu menu is expanded and heading 1 submenu is closed. I need to rework it to this: Submenus must be closed automatically on mouseout. Can somebody help me? Thanks in advance!

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• Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

  - by berry120

  Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

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• Replace string with incremented value

  - by Andrei

  Hello, I'm trying to write a CSS parser to automatically dispatch URLs in background images to different subdomains in order to parallelize downloads. Basically, I want to replace things like url(/assets/some-background-image.png) with url(http://assets[increment].domain.com/assets/some-background-image.png) I'm using this inside a class that I eventually want to evolve into doing various CSS parsing tasks. Here are the relevant parts of the class : private function parallelizeDownloads(){ static $counter = 1; $newURL = "url(http://assets".$counter.".domain.com"; The counter needs to be reset when it reaches 4 in order to limit to 4 subdomains. if ($counter == 4) { $counter = 1; } $counter ++; return $newURL; } public function replaceURLs() { This is mostly nonsense, but I know the code I'm looking for looks somewhat like this. Note : $this-css contains the CSS string. preg_match("/url/i",$this->css,$match); foreach($match as $URL) { $newURL = self::parallelizeDownloads(); $this->css = str_replace($match, $newURL,$this->css); } }

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• Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

  - by Mark

  I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

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• How can I clear viewstate of a dropdownlist inside a usercontrol? Should I?

  - by tbilly

  I have a web user control with a dropdownlist inside of it. When the usercontrol's databind event is called, it automatically fires the dropdownlists databind event. In the dropdownlist's ondatabound event handler an 'other' option is appended to the end of the dropdownlist. The usercontrol is loaded multiple times, depending on selection of other controls on the page. When the page loads initially, there are no items in the usercontrol except the 'other' option. Then when I call the user control's databind event the control reloads, with 4 items plus the 'other' option. The text for the first item in the list is the 'other' option's text, not what it should be. I've stepped through the databound event of the dropdownlist and have found that all items are loading correctly. It appears that the dropdownlist's viewstate is the culprit, that the dropdownlist's original item[1] text is overwriting the new text. I've tried disabling viewstate on the dropdownlist, but then it wouldn't load at all. Should I try to clear the dropdownlist's viewstate? How do I do that? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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• I want tell the VC++ Compiler to compile all code. Can it be done?

  - by KGB

  I am using VS2005 VC++ for unmanaged C++. I have VSTS and am trying to use the code coverage tool to accomplish two things with regards to unit tests: See how much of my referenced code under test is getting executed See how many methods of my code under test (if any) are not unit tested at all Setting up the VSTS code coverage tool (see the link text) and accomplishing task #1 was straightforward. However #2 has been a surprising challenge for me. Here is my test code. class CodeCoverageTarget { public: std::string ThisMethodRuns() { return "Running"; } std::string ThisMethodDoesNotRun() { return "Not Running"; } }; #include <iostream> #include "CodeCoverageTarget.h" using namespace std; int main() { CodeCoverageTarget cct; cout<<cct.ThisMethodRuns()<<endl; } When both methods are defined within the class as above the compiler automatically eliminates the ThisMethodDoesNotRun() from the obj file. If I move it's definition outside the class then it is included in the obj file and the code coverage tool shows it has not been exercised at all. Under most circumstances I want the compiler to do this elimination for me but for the code coverage tool it defeats a significant portion of the value (e.g. finding untested methods). I have tried a number of things to tell the compiler to stop being smart for me and compile everything but I am stumped. It would be nice if the code coverage tool compensated for this (I suppose by scanning the source and matching it up with the linker output) but I didn't find anything to suggest it has a special mode to be turned on. Am I totally missing something simple here or is this not possible with the VC++ compiler + VSTS code coverage tool? Thanks in advance, KGB

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• Datepicker BeforeShowDay CSS problem with content styling

  - by Darklomba

  I think I'm not the only one having this problem. Whenever I try to apply a BeforeShowDay a new CSS class, the content of the "special date" is not being modified. I tried changing the default theme, adding a new class, but this is affecting only the outside border and not the inside content. Using Firebug I found that the html code being printed is the following: <td class=" ui-state-content ui-state-anulados" onclick="DP_jQuery.datepicker._selectDay('#datepicker',9,2009, this);return false;" title="Paddle"> <a class="ui-state-default" href="#">16</a> </td> So, my class would be ui-state-content ui-state-anulados but I notice that the ui-state-default class is being applied automatically and I suspect that this may be the problem. I really don't know how to solve this. I've been looking inside ui.datepicker.js code and I think I found the line that is giving me this problems. It is line number 1394 and it has the following code. (ui.datepicker.js) (unselectable ? '<span class="ui-state-default">' + printDate.getDate() + '</span>' : '<a class="ui-state-default' + Any clues on how this can be done? Thanks in advance. Manuel.-

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