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  • overwrite parameters passed by querystring

    - by opensas
    I have the following problem I have a web framework built with classic asp that saves the page state in hidden textboxes, and then issues a submit to itself. Before submitting, we have a javascript functions that saves the action in a hidden "action" input, and then performs the submit. The page loads the state from those hidden texts, reads the action issued, reads extra parameters, like the id of the record to edit, and then builds the page accordingly. I'd like to make a url link to automatically start the page with "edit" action on a "x" id. So I was thinking about building the following url, for example http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 the problem is that when the page auto-submits, que url string keeps the parameters. I'd like to achieve the following: when the user clicks on http://myapp/user?action=edit&id=23 my page should receive the posted values action=edit and id=23 but the url should be just http://myapp/user and both parameters should be kept in the hidden texts... (I wonder if I make myself clear...) thanks a lot saludos sas ps: I have a couple of ideas about how to solve it, but I'll post them as answers...

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  • vb.net project template how can I leave the root namesapce empty

    - by Wietze Veld
    I have been tinkering with the VS 2010 template. So far I am able to create a vb.net class library project from my template. However, one small thing is bugging me. In my project template the default assembly name is the same as the default file name. I have left the root namespace empty. But when I create a new project from the template, VS 2010 automatically fills the root namespace with the same name as my assembly name. My template project (vbproj) for the assembly name and root namespace looks like this: <AssemblyName>$safeprojectname$</AssemblyName> <!-- RootNameSpace should always be empty. --> <RootNamespace></RootNamespace> But as said, when I leave this empty it is always overwritten with the assembly name. Even if I create a custom parameter with an empty string as value to replace the root namespace, it is still overridden. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How to wrap a C function whose parameters are pointer to structs, so that it can be called from Lua?

    - by pierr
    I have the follwing C function. How should I wrap it so it can be called from a Lua script? typedef struct tagT{ int a ; int b ; } type_t; int lib_a_f_4(type_t *t) { return t->a * t->b ; } I know how to wrapr it if the function parameter type were int or char *. Should I use table type for a C structure? EDIT: I am using SWIG for the wraping , according to this doc, It seems that I should automatically have this funtion new_type_t(2,3) , but it is not the case. If you wrap a C structure, it is also mapped to a Lua userdata. By adding a metatable to the userdata, this provides a very natural interface. For example, struct Point{ int x,y; }; is used as follows: p=example.new_Point() p.x=3 p.y=5 print(p.x,p.y) 3 5 Similar access is provided for unions and the data members of C++ classes. C structures are created using a function new_Point(), but for C++ classes are created using just the name Point().

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  • I want tell the VC++ Compiler to compile all code. Can it be done?

    - by KGB
    I am using VS2005 VC++ for unmanaged C++. I have VSTS and am trying to use the code coverage tool to accomplish two things with regards to unit tests: See how much of my referenced code under test is getting executed See how many methods of my code under test (if any) are not unit tested at all Setting up the VSTS code coverage tool (see the link text) and accomplishing task #1 was straightforward. However #2 has been a surprising challenge for me. Here is my test code. class CodeCoverageTarget { public: std::string ThisMethodRuns() { return "Running"; } std::string ThisMethodDoesNotRun() { return "Not Running"; } }; #include <iostream> #include "CodeCoverageTarget.h" using namespace std; int main() { CodeCoverageTarget cct; cout<<cct.ThisMethodRuns()<<endl; } When both methods are defined within the class as above the compiler automatically eliminates the ThisMethodDoesNotRun() from the obj file. If I move it's definition outside the class then it is included in the obj file and the code coverage tool shows it has not been exercised at all. Under most circumstances I want the compiler to do this elimination for me but for the code coverage tool it defeats a significant portion of the value (e.g. finding untested methods). I have tried a number of things to tell the compiler to stop being smart for me and compile everything but I am stumped. It would be nice if the code coverage tool compensated for this (I suppose by scanning the source and matching it up with the linker output) but I didn't find anything to suggest it has a special mode to be turned on. Am I totally missing something simple here or is this not possible with the VC++ compiler + VSTS code coverage tool? Thanks in advance, KGB

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  • NSFetchedResultsController didn't return data

    - by Dmitry Kochkin
    Hello! I get stuck in some problem and after 2 days of seeking I've found solution but didn't get idea why does it work. First, I'm initialized NSFetchedResultsController using following code (it look like a lot of automatically generated): - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) return fetchedResultsController; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Profile" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"lastName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; NSError *error = nil; //[aFetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Have a look at commented string - there wasn't any of these strings and when I asked for data - I didn't get any (and it was there!). When I've uncommented that line, it starts work. Seems evident, but all examples I saw before hadn't that line. And they work. How can it be? I just want to know what am I doing wrong.

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  • Default entries on a first time creation for a serialized class

    - by MGSoto
    I have a class I am using for serializing various configuration options for an application I am working on. I'm adding a new property to the class that is a List, and I'd like it to fill this list if it does not exist already in a XML file. My first thought was to check if the list contained zero items, however this is not acceptable because there are times I want to have zero items in the list. In essence I want a file that has been serialized with an older version of the same class to be "upgraded" and have defaults automatically inserted for new properties. How can I do this? For a more visual example of what I'm trying to do, see below: When I deserialize an XML file that contains: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> and after I've added a list property it will serialze as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3/> I want it to serialize as: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> <DefaultSubItem/ Field="wtfe"> </Item3> But allow me to change it to: <Item1>wtfe</Item1> <Item2>wtfe</Item2> <Item3></Item3>

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  • How to Load assembly to AppDomain with all references recursively?

    - by abatishchev
    I want to load to new AppDomin some assembly which has a complex references tree (MyDll.dll - Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.dll - Microsoft.Vbe.Interop.dll - Office.dll - stdole.dll) As far as I understood, when an assembly is been loaded to AppDomain, it's references would not be loaded automatically, and I have to load them manually. So when I do: string dir = @"SomePath"; // different from AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory string path = System.IO.Path.Combine(dir, "MyDll.dll"); AppDomainSetup setup = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation; setup.ApplicationBase = dir; AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("SomeAppDomain", null, setup); domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); and got FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'MyDll, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I think the key word is one of its dependencies. Ok, I do next before domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); foreach (AssemblyName refAsmName in Assembly.ReflectionOnlyLoadFrom(path).GetReferencedAssemblies()) { domain.Load(refAsmName); } But got FileNotFoundException again, on another (referenced) assembly. How to load all references recursively? Have I to create references tree before loading root assembly? How to get an assembly's references without loading it?

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  • Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

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  • Unable to retrieve search results from server side : Facebook Graph API usig Python

    - by DjangoRocks
    Hi all, I'm doing some simple Python + FB Graph training on my own, and I faced a weird problem: import time import sys import urllib2 import urllib from json import loads base_url = "https://graph.facebook.com/search?q=" post_id = None post_type = None user_id = None message = None created_time = None def doit(hour): page = 1 search_term = "\"Plastic Planet\"" encoded_search_term = urllib.quote(search_term) print encoded_search_term type="&type=post" url = "%s%s%s" % (base_url,encoded_search_term,type) print url while(1): try: response = urllib2.urlopen(url) except urllib2.HTTPError, e: print e finally: pass content = response.read() content = loads(content) print "==================================" for c in content["data"]: print c print "****************************************" try: content["paging"] print "current URL" print url print "next page!------------" url = content["paging"]["next"] print url except: pass finally: pass """ print "new URL is =======================" print url print "==================================" """ print url What I'm trying to do here is to automatically page through the search results, but trying for content["paging"]["next"] But the weird thing is that no data is returned; i received the following: {"data":[]} Even in the very first loop. But when i copied the URL into a browser, a lot of results were returned. I've also tried a version with my access token and th same thing happens. Can anyone enlighten me? +++++++++++++++++++EDITED and SIMPLIFIED++++++++++++++++++ ok thanks to TryPyPy, here's the simplified and edited version of my previous question: Why is that: import urllib2 url = "https://graph.facebook.com/searchq=%22Plastic+Planet%22&type=post&limit=25&until=2010-12-29T19%3A54%3A56%2B0000" response = urllib2.urlopen(url) print response.read() result in {"data":[]} ? But the same url produces a lot of data in a browser? Anyone? Best Regards.

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • Ant: simplest way to copy over a relative list of files

    - by Derek Illchuk
    Using Ant, I want to copy a list of files from one project to another, where each project has the same directory structure. Is there a way to get the following to work? <project name="WordSlug" default="pull" basedir="."> <description> WordSlug: pull needed files </description> <property name="prontiso_home" location="../../prontiso/trunk"/> <!-- I know this doesn't work, what's the missing piece? --> <target name="pull" description="Pull needed files"> <copy todir="." overwrite="true"> <resources> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml"/> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php"/> <!-- etc. --> </resources> </copy> </target> </project> Success is deriving the paths automatically: ${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml copied to ./application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml ${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php copied to ./application/controllers/CacheController.php Thanks!

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  • using .append to build a complex menu

    - by gneandr
    To build a menu block which should be switchable with hide/unhide of the menu items, I'm using .append html. The code idea is this: navigat += '<h3 class="infoH3"> <a id="' + menuID +'"' + ' href="javascript:slideMenu(\'' + menuSlider + '\');">' + menuName + '</a></h3>'; navigat += '<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">'; navigat += ' <ul>'; navigat += ' <li>aMenu1</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu2</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu3</li>' navigat += ' </ul>'; navigat += '<!-- menuName Slider --></div>'; $("#someElement").append (navigat); This is doing well .. so far. But the point is:: I use JS to read the required menu items (eg. 'aMenu1' together with title and/or link info) from a file to build all that, eg. for 'aMenu1' a complex is composed and $("#someElement").append(someString) is used to add that the 'someElement'. At the moment I build those html elements line by line. Also OK .. as far as the resulting string has the opening and closing tag, eg. "<li>aMenu2</li>". As can be seen from above posted code there is a line "<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">". Appending that -- AFAIS -- the .append is automatically (????) adding "</div>" which closes the statement. That breaks my idea of the whole concept! The menu part isn't included in the 'menuSlider '. QQ: How to change it -- NOT to have that "</div" added to it?? Günter

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  • BinaryFormatter in C# a good way to read files?

    - by mr-pac
    I want to read a binary file which was created outside of my program. One obvious way in C# to read a binary file is to define class representing the file and then use a BinaryReader and read from the file via the Read* methods and assign the return values to the class properties. What I don't like with the approach is that I manually have to write code that reads the file, although the defined structure represents how the file is stored. I also have to keep the order correct when I read. After looking a bit around I came across the BinaryFormatter which can automatically serialize and deserialze object in binary format. One great advantage would be that I can read and also write the file without creating additional code. However I wonder if this approach is good for files created from other programs on not just serialized .NET objects. Take for example a graphics format file like BMP. Would it be a good idea to read the file with a BinaryFormatter or is it better to manually and write via BinaryReader and BinaryWriter? Or are there any other approaches which suit better? I'am not looking for concrete examples but just for an advice what is the best way to implement that.

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  • Setting up magic routes for plugins in CakePHP 1.3?

    - by Matt Huggins
    I'm working on upgrading my project from CakePHP 1.2 to 1.3. In the process, it seems that the "magic" routing for plugins by which a controller name (e.g.: "ForumsController") matching the plugin name (e.g.: "forums") no longer automatically routes to the root of the plugin URL (e.g.: "www.example.com/forums" pointing to plugin "forums", controller "forums", action "index"). The error message given is as follows: Error: ForumsController could not be found. Error: Create the class ForumsController below in file: app/controllers/forums_controller.php <?php class ForumsController extends AppController { var $name = 'Forums'; } ?> In fact, even if I navigate to "www.example.com/forums/forums" or "www.example.com/forums/forums/index", I get the same exact error. Do I need to explicitly set up routes to every single plugin I use? This seems to destroy a lot of the magic I like about CakePHP. I've only found that doing the following works: Router::connect('/forums/:action/*', array('plugin' => 'forums', 'controller' => 'forums')); Router::connect('/forums', array('plugin' => 'forums', 'controller' => 'forums', 'action' => 'index')); Setting up 2 routes for every single plugin seems like overkill, does it not? Is there a better solution that will cover all my plugins, or at least reduce the number of routes I need to set up for each plugin?

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  • How to catch non exist requested URL in Java servlet ?

    - by Frank
    My objects are stored online in two different places : <1 On my nmjava.com site, where I can put them in a directory called "Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/" <2 On Google App Engine datastore When my Java app runs it checks both places for the objects, I designed the app so that it tries to get an object from a Url, it doesn't care whether it's an object in a directory or an object returned by a servlet. My_Object Get_Object(String Site_Url,String Object_Path) { ... get object by the name of Object_Path from the Site_Url ... } Now the request Url for my web site nmjava.com might look like this : http://nmjava.com/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ In a directory ] Or in the case of Google App Engine servlet : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 [ Non exist ] The "Object_Path" was generated by my app automatically. It can now get the object from my site by the above method like this : My_Object Get_Object("http://nmjava.com","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); In the Google App Engine, my servlet is running and ready to serve the object, if the request comes in correctly, but since I don't want to design my app to know whether the object is in one site's directory or in other site's datastore, I need to design the servlet to catch the non exist Url, such as the one above, and be able to make a call : My_Object Get_Object("http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License","/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123"); So my question is : When a request comes into the servlet with a non exist Url, how should it catch it and analyze the url in order to respond properly, in my case it should know that : http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 is asking for the object "My_Obj_123" [ ignore the dirs ] and return the object from the datastore. Now I'm getting this : Error: Not Found The requested URL /Check_License/Dir_My_App/Dir_ABC/My_Obj_123 was not found on this server. Where in my servlet and how do I detect the request for this non exist Url ?

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  • Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

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  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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  • do not allow integrated windows authentication *for one of the domains*

    - by MK
    We have an ASP.NET web application which uses integrated windows authentication. It is accessed by users from two domains, A and B. A is the primary domain and B is an older domain which is going away. Web application is authenticating users using a group policy which only exists in domain A. Every user in domain B has an account in domain A. The application lives in domain A. There was no trust between the domains. So users from domain A would get silently authenticated and logged into the site. Users from domain B didn't get authenticated automatically and were prompted with the IE popup, to which they authenticated using their domain A credentials and everything worked. Now somebody has set up a trust between the domains and users from domain B get authenticated silently to IIS, and then their login fails (no group policy). So the question is: can I either programmatically or in IIS configuration make it so that users from domain B still get prompted even though there is trust between the domains? Is there a way to tell the server where IIS is running to ignore the trust relationship maybe?

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  • How do I programmatically run all the JUnit tests in my Java application?

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    From Eclipse I can easily run all the JUnit tests in my application. I would like to be able to run the tests on target systems from the application jar, without Eclipse (or Ant or Maven or any other development tool). I can see how to run a specific test or suite from the command line. I could manually create a suite listing all the tests in my application, but that seems error prone - I'm sure at some point I'll create a test and forget to add it to the suite. The Eclipse JUnit plugin has a wizard to create a test suite, but for some reason it doesn't "see" my test classes. It may be looking for JUnit 3 tests, not JUnit 4 annotated tests. I could write a tool that would automatically create the suite by scanning the source files. Or I could write code so the application would scan it's own jar file for tests (either by naming convention or by looking for the @Test annotation). It seems like there should be an easier way. What am I missing?

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  • Automated test, build and deploy

    - by mike79
    I have visual studio team suite 2008. I was unable to meet the requirements to setup TFS, so I'm using TortoiseSvn and VisualSvn as my version contol in VSTS. I need the system setup to do the following: I neeed to be able to create and track workitems. When updates are made to the current project worked on in VSTS, the updates will be commited back to version control. Tests will be run to see that updates don't break the application. If there's a problem with the update it will be reported back to the developer. If there's no problem with the app, which is a clickonce application, it will automatically be built and deployed to an ftp server. I've never worked with version control, build servers, automated testing and continous intergration. I need to know what needs to be put in place for this type of system. I don't know which combination/stack I should be using: CC.net, TeamCity, Hudson, NAnt, NUnit, MsTest, Trac, BugTracker.net, Ndepend, VisualSvn Server, Perforce, Msdeploy, SCM. I want something that is free/opensource and relatively easy to setup and use. Please suggest a setup that will fit my needs. Any help appreciated

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  • python list/dict property best practice

    - by jterrace
    I have a class object that stores some properties that are lists of other objects. Each of the items in the list has an identifier that can be accessed with the id property. I'd like to be able to read and write from these lists but also be able to access a dictionary keyed by their identifier. Let me illustrate with an example: class Child(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Teacher(object): def __init__(self, id, name): self.id = id self.name = name class Classroom(object): def __init__(self, children, teachers): self.children = children self.teachers = teachers classroom = Classroom([Child('389','pete')], [Teacher('829','bob')]) This is a silly example, but it illustrates what I'm trying to do. I'd like to be able to interact with the classroom object like this: #access like a list print classroom.children[0] #append like it's a list classroom.children.append(Child('2344','joe')) #delete from like it's a list classroom.children.pop(0) But I'd also like to be able to access it like it's a dictionary, and the dictionary should be automatically updated when I modify the list: #access like a dict print classroom.childrenById['389'] I realize I could just make it a dict, but I want to avoid code like this: classroom.childrendict[child.id] = child I also might have several of these properties, so I don't want to add functions like addChild, which feels very un-pythonic anyway. Is there a way to somehow subclass dict and/or list and provide all of these functions easily with my class's properties? I'd also like to avoid as much code as possible.

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  • Restoring dev db from production: Running a set of SQL scripts based on a list stored in a table?

    - by mattley
    I need to restore a backup from a production database and then automatically reapply SQL scripts (e.g. ALTER TABLE, INSERT, etc) to bring that db schema back to what was under development. There will be lots of scripts, from a handful of different developers. They won't all be in the same directory. My current plan is to list the scripts with the full filesystem path in table in a psuedo-system database. Then create a stored procedure in this database which will first run RESTORE DATABASE and then run a cursor over the list of scripts, creating a command string for SQLCMD for each script, and then executing that SQLCMD string for each script using xp_cmdshell. The sequence of cursor-sqlstring-xp_cmdshell-sqlcmd feels clumsy to me. Also, it requires turning on xp_cmdshell. I can't be the only one who has done something like this. Is there a cleaner way to run a set of scripts that are scattered around the filesystem on the server? Especially, a way that doesn't require xp_cmdshell?

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  • JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

    - by seanizer
    I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

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  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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