Search Results

Search found 9954 results on 399 pages for 'mean'.

Page 377/399 | < Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >

  • Is this implementation truely tail-recursive?

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! I've come up with the following code to compute in a tail-recursive way the result of an expression such as 3 4 * 1 + cos 8 * (aka 8*cos(1+(3*4))) The code is in OCaml. I'm using a list refto emulate a stack. type token = Num of float | Fun of (float->float) | Op of (float->float->float);; let pop l = let top = (List.hd !l) in l := List.tl (!l); top;; let push x l = l := (x::!l);; let empty l = (l = []);; let pile = ref [];; let eval data = let stack = ref data in let rec _eval cont = match (pop stack) with | Num(n) -> cont n; | Fun(f) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (f x)); | Op(op) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (op x (_eval (fun y->y)))); in _eval (fun x->x) ;; eval [Fun(fun x -> x**2.); Op(fun x y -> x+.y); Num(1.); Num(3.)];; I've used continuations to ensure tail-recursion, but since my stack implements some sort of a tree, and therefore provides quite a bad interface to what should be handled as a disjoint union type, the call to my function to evaluate the left branch with an identity continuation somehow irks a little. Yet it's working perfectly, but I have the feeling than in calling the _eval (fun y->y) bit, there must be something wrong happening, since it doesn't seem that this call can replace the previous one in the stack structure... Am I misunderstanding something here? I mean, I understand that with only the first call to _eval there wouldn't be any problem optimizing the calls, but here it seems to me that evaluation the _eval (fun y->y) will require to be stacked up, and therefore will fill the stack, possibly leading to an overflow... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Google Docs iphone library error reporting

    - by phil harris
    I'm in the process of adding a Google Docs interface to my iPhone app, and I'm largely following the example in the GoogleDocs.m file from Tom Saxton's example app. The objective-c library I'm using is from http://code.google.com/p/gdata-objectivec-client/wiki/GDataObjCIntroduction The library file used is from gdata-objectivec-client-1.10.0.zip. This service:username:password method is a slight variant of the one found in the Saxton file GoogleDocs.m starting at line 351: - (void)service:(NSString *)username password:(NSString *)password { if(service == nil) { service = [[[GDataServiceGoogleDocs alloc] init] autorelease]; [service setUserAgent:s_strUserAgent]; [service setShouldCacheDatedData:NO]; [service setServiceShouldFollowNextLinks:NO]; (void)[service authenticateWithDelegate:self didAuthenticateSelector:@selector(ticket:authenticatedWithError:)]; } // update the username/password each time the service is requested if (username != nil && [username length] && password != nil && [password length]) [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:username password:password]; else [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:nil password:nil]; } // associated callback for service:username:password: method - (void)ticket:(GDataServiceTicket *)ticket authenticatedWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"%@",@"authenticatedWithError called"); if(error == nil) [self selectBackupRestore]; else { NSLog(@"error code(%d)", [error code]); NSLog(@"error domain(%d)", [error domain]); NSLog(@"localizedDescription(%@)", error.localizedDescription); NSLog(@"localizedFailureReason(%@)", error.localizedFailureReason); NSLog(@"localizedRecoveryOptions(%@)", error.localizedRecoveryOptions); NSLog(@"localizedRecoverySuggestion(%@)", error.localizedRecoverySuggestion); } } Please note the service:username:password method and the callback compile and run fine. The problem is that the callback is passing a non-nil NSError object. I added an NSLog() for every error reporting attribute of NSError and the (Xcode) log output of a test run is below. [Session started at 2010-05-27 12:27:16 -0700.] 2010-05-27 12:27:38.778 iFilebox[74596:207] authenticatedWithError called 2010-05-27 12:27:38.779 iFilebox[74596:207] error code(-1) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.780 iFilebox[74596:207] error domain(499324) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.781 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedDescription(Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedFailureReason((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoveryOptions((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.783 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoverySuggestion((null)) My essential question is in the error reporting. I was hoping the localizedDescription would be more specific of the error. All I get for the error code value is -1, and the only description of the error is "Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.". Not very helpful. Does anyone know what a GDataServiceDomain error -1 is? Where can I find a full list of all error codes returned, and a description of what they mean?

    Read the article

  • Modify a php limit text function adding some kind of offset to it

    - by webmasters
    Maybe you guys can help: I have a variable called $bio with bio data. $bio = "Hello, I am John, I'm 25, I like fast cars and boats. I work as a blogger and I'm way cooler then the author of the question"; I search the $bio using a set of functions to search for a certain word, lets say "author" which adds a span class around that word, and I get: $bio = "Hello, I am John, I'm 25, I like fast cars and boats. I work as a blogger and I'm way cooler then the <span class=\"highlight\">author</span> of the question"; I use a function to limit the text to 85 chars: $bio = limit_text($bio,85); The problem is when there are more then 80 chars before the word "author" in $bio. When the limit_text() is applied, I won't see the highlighted word author. What I need is for the limit_text() function to work as normal, adding all the words that contain the span class highlight at the end. Something like this: *"This is the limited text to 85 chars, but there are no words with the span class highlight so I am putting to be continued ... **author**, **author2** (and all the other words that have a span class highlight around them separate by comma "* Hope you understood what I mean, if not, please comment and I'll try to explain better. Here is my limit_text() function: function limit_text($text, $length){ // Limit Text if(strlen($text) > $length) { $stringCut = substr($text, 0, $length); $text = substr($stringCut, 0, strrpos($stringCut, ' ')); } return $text; } UPDATE: $xturnons = str_replace(",", ", ", $xturnons); $xbio = str_replace(",", ", ", $xbio); $xbio = customHighlights($xbio,$toHighlight); $xturnons = customHighlights($xturnons,$toHighlight); $xbio = limit_text($xbio,85); $xturnons = limit_text($xturnons,85); The customHighlights function which adds the span class highlighted: function addRegEx($word){ // Highlight Words return "/" . $word . '[^ ,\,,.,?,\.]*/i'; } function highlight($word){ return "<span class='highlighted'>".$word[0]."</span>"; } function customHighlights($searchString,$toHighlight){ $searchFor = array_map('addRegEx',$toHighlight); $result = preg_replace_callback($searchFor,'highlight',$searchString); return $result; }

    Read the article

  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

    Read the article

  • How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

    Read the article

  • WPF: Improving Performance for Running on Older PCs

    - by Phil Sandler
    So, I'm building a WPF app and did a test deployment today, and found that it performed pretty poorly. I was surprised, as we are really not doing much in the way of visual effects or animations. I deployed on two machines: the fastest and the slowest that will need to run the application (the slowest PC has an Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM). The application ran pretty well on the faster machine, but was choppy on the slower machine. And when I say "choppy", I mean the cursor jumped even just passing it over any open window of the app that had focus. I opened the Task Manager Performance window, and could see that the CPU usage jumped whenever the app had focus and the cursor was moving over it. If I gave focus to another (e.g. Excel), the CPU usage went back down after a second. This happened on both machines, but the choppiness was only noticeable on the slower machine. I had very limited time to tinker on the deployment machines, so didn't do a lot of detailed testing. The app runs fine on my development machine, but I also see the CPU spiking up to 10% there, just running the cursor over the window. I downloaded the WPF performance tool from MS and have been tinkering with it (on my dev machine). The docs say this about the "Frame Rate" metric in the Perforator tool: For applications without animation, this value should be near 0. The app is not doing any heavy animation, but the frame rate stays near 50 when the cursor is over any window. The screens I tested on have column headers in a grid that "highlight" and buttons that change color and appearance when scrolled over. Even moving the mouse on blank areas of the windows cause the same Frame rate and CPU usage (doesn't seem to be related to these minor animations). (Also, I am unable to figure out how to get anything but the two default tools--Perforator and Visual Profiler--installed into the WPF performance tool. That is probably a separate question). I also have Redgate's profiling tool, but I'm not sure if that can shed any light on rendering performance. So, I realize this is not an easy thing to troubleshoot without specifics or sample code (which I can't post). My questions are: What are some general things to look for (or avoid) in the code to improve performance? What steps can I take using the WPF performance tool to narrow down the problem? Is the PC spec listed above (Intel Celeron 1.80GHz with 2GB RAM) too slow to be running even vanilla WPF applications?

    Read the article

  • div "top" bug IE and everything else. Big problem

    - by Victor
    Hi everyone. I am new in CSS so please help me in this problem. I hope to describe it wright. I am making div named content where my site content is. I made it with z-index:-1; so an image to be over this div. But in Chrome, FF and safari, content became inactive. I cant select text , click on link and write in the forms. So I tried with positive states in the z-index but IE don't know what this means. Damn. So I decided to make conditional div. Here is the code: .content { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top:50px; } .content_IE { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top: 50px; z-index:-1; } and here is the HTML: <!--[if IE 7]> <div class="content_IE" style="height:750px;"> <![endif]--> <div class="content" style="height:550px;"> Everything is fine with the z-index but the problem is that if there is no top in .content class everything looks fine in IE but there is no space in the other browsers. If i put back the top:50px; there onother 50px like padding in the .content_IE class. I mean that the page looks like I've put top:50px; and padding-top=50px;. I've try everything like margin-top:-50px; padding-top:-50px; and stuff like this but I am still in the circle. It look fine only if there is no top option in .content class. Please help.

    Read the article

  • .live event doesnt work till second click

    - by ChampionChris
    I have 2 list on a page that are linked. When I drag a li element from list 1 to list 2 the live events on list 1 don't work on the first click only second click. Below is the code that adds the li (obj) to list 2. function AddToDropBox(obj) { $(obj).children(".handle").animate({ width: "20px" }).children("strong").fadeOut(); $(obj).children("span:not(.track,.play,.handle,:has(.btn-edit))").fadeOut('fast'); $(obj).children(".play").css("margin-right", "8px"); $(obj).css({ "opacity": "0.0", "width": "284px" }).animate({ opacity: "1.0" }); if ($(".sidebar-drop-box ul").children(".admin-song").length > 0) { $(".dropTitle").fadeOut("fast"); $(".sidebar-drop-box ul.admin-song-list").css("min-height", "0"); } if (typeof SetLinks == 'function') { SetLinks(); } //CBG Changes adds media ID to hidden field //checks id there is a value in field then adds comma if(document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value==""||document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value==null) { document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value=(obj).attr("mediaid"); } else { var localMediaIDs=document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value; document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value=localMediaIDs+", "+(obj).attr("mediaid"); } // alert("hfid: "+document.getElementById("ctl00_cphBody_hfRemoveMedia").value); //END CBG Modifications } this is one of the live() events that dont fire until the second click after the drag. This live() event is in a document.ready function(). // Live for deleting. $(".btn-del").live("click", function(e) { DeleteItem(this); $(this).removeClass("btn-del").addClass("btn-add").parents("li").removeClass("alt").addClass("removed"); var oldTxt = $(this).parents("li").find(".status").text(); $(this).parents("li").find(".status").text("Removed").attr("oldstat", oldTxt); $("#timeHolder input[type=hidden]").val(($("#timeHolder input[type=hidden]").val() * 1) - ($(this).parents("li").find(".time").attr("length") * 1)); CalculateAggregates(); isDirty = false; }); EDIT @dreaton.. Im new to jquery and javascript so thanks for the last tip... Im not sure what you mean about cache the query's. ... the delegete feature is giving me this Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method this is the way I have the code $('#ulPlaylist').delegate('.btn-del', 'click', function (e) { DeleteItem(this); $(this).removeClass("btn-del").addClass("btn-add").parents("li").removeClass("alt").addClass("removed"); var oldTxt = $(this).parents("li").find(".status").text(); $(this).parents("li").find(".status").text("Removed").attr("oldstat", oldTxt); $("#timeHolder input[type=hidden]").val(($("#timeHolder input[type=hidden]").val() * 1) - ($(this).parents("li").find(".time").attr("length") * 1)); CalculateAggregates(); isDirty = false; });

    Read the article

  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

    Read the article

  • Why won't C# accept a (seemingly) perfectly good Sql Server CE Query?

    - by VoidKing
    By perfectly good sql query, I mean to say that, inside WebMatrix, if I execute the following query, it works to perfection: SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%o%' Here i am using 'o' as a static search string to search upon. No problem, but not exeactly very dynamic. Now, when I write this query as a string in C# and as I think it should be (and even as I have done before) I get a server-side error indicating that the string was not in the correct format. Here is a pic of that error: And (although I am only testing the output, should I get it to quit erring), here is the actual C# (i.e., the .cshtml) page that queries the database: @{ Layout = "~/Layouts/_secondaryMainLayout.cshtml"; var db = Database.Open("Content"); string searchText = Request.Unvalidated["searchText"]; string selectQueryString = "SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%'"; @:beginning <br/> foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) { @:entry @:@row.location &nbsp; @:@row.occurences &nbsp; @:@row.tableName <br/> } } Since it is erring on the foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) line, that heavily suggests that something is wrong with my query, however, everything seems right to me about the syntax here and it even executes to perfection if I query the database (mind you, un-parameterized) directly. Logically, I would assume that I have erred somewhere with the syntax involved in parameterizing this query, however, my double and triple checking (as well as, my past experience at doing this) insists that everything looks fine here. Have I messed up the syntax involved with parameterizing this query, or is something else at play here that I am overlooking? I know I can tell you, for sure, as it has been previously tested, that the value I am getting from the query string is, indeed, what I would expect it to be, but as there really isn't much else on the .cshtml page yet, that is about all I can tell you.

    Read the article

  • Efficient algorithm to distribute work?

    - by Zwei Steinen
    It's a bit complicated to explain but here we go. We have problems like this (code is pseudo-code, and is only for illustrating the problem. Sorry it's in java. If you don't understand, I'd be glad to explain.). class Problem { final Set<Integer> allSectionIds = { 1,2,4,6,7,8,10 }; final Data data = //Some data } And a subproblem is: class SubProblem { final Set<Integer> targetedSectionIds; final Data data; SubProblem(Set<Integer> targetedSectionsIds, Data data){ this.targetedSectionIds = targetedSectionIds; this.data = data; } } Work will look like this, then. class Work implements Runnable { final Set<Section> subSections; final Data data; final Result result; Work(Set<Section> subSections, Data data) { this.sections = SubSections; this.data = data; } @Override public void run(){ for(Section section : subSections){ result.addUp(compute(data, section)); } } } Now we have instances of 'Worker', that have their own state sections I have. class Worker implements ExecutorService { final Map<Integer,Section> sectionsIHave; { sectionsIHave = {1:section1, 5:section5, 8:section8 }; } final ExecutorService executor = //some executor. @Override public void execute(SubProblem problem){ Set<Section> sectionsNeeded = fetchSections(problem.targetedSectionIds); super.execute(new Work(sectionsNeeded, problem.data); } } phew. So, we have a lot of Problems and Workers are constantly asking for more SubProblems. My task is to break up Problems into SubProblem and give it to them. The difficulty is however, that I have to later collect all the results for the SubProblems and merge (reduce) them into a Result for the whole Problem. This is however, costly, so I want to give the workers "chunks" that are as big as possible (has as many targetedSections as possible). It doesn't have to be perfect (mathematically as efficient as possible or something). I mean, I guess that it is impossible to have a perfect solution, because you can't predict how long each computation will take, etc.. But is there a good heuristic solution for this? Or maybe some resources I can read up before I go into designing? Any advice is highly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • C++ - Breaking code implementation into different parts

    - by Kotti
    Hi! The question plot (a bit abstract, but answering this question will help me in my real app): So, I have some abstract superclass for objects that can be rendered on the screen. Let's call it IRenderable. struct IRenderable { // (...) virtual void Render(RenderingInterface& ri) = 0; virtual ~IRenderable() { } }; And suppose I also have some other objects that derive from IRenderable, e.g. Cat and Dog. So far so good. I add some Cat and Dog specific methods, like SeekForWhiskas(...) and Bark(...). After that I add specific Render(...) method for them, so my code looks this way: class Cat : public IRenderable { public: void SeekForWhiskas(...) { // Implementation could be here or moved // to a source file (depends on me wanting // to inline it or not) } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for cats SomehowDrawAppropriateCat(...); } }; class Dog : public IRenderable { public: void Bark(...) { // Same as for 'SeekForWhiskas(...)' } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for dogs DrawMadDog(...); } }; And then somewhere else I can do drawing the way that an appropriate rendering routine is called: IRenderable* dog = new Dog(); dog->Render(...); My question is about logical wrapping of such kind of code. I want to break apart the code, that corresponds to rendering of the current object and it's own methods (Render and Bark in this example), so that my class implementation doesn't turn into a mess (imagine that I have 10 methods like Bark and of course my Render method doesn't fit in their company and would be hard to find). Two ways of making what I want to (as far as I know) are: Making appropriate routines that look like RenderCat(Cat& cat, RenderInterface* ri), joining them to render namespace and then the functions inside a class would look like virtual void Render(...) { RenderCat(*this, ...); }, but this is plain stupid, because I'll lose access to Cat's private members and friending these functions looks like a total design disaster. Using visitor pattern, but this would also mean I have to rebuild my app's design and looks like an inadequate way to make my code complicated from the very beginning. Any brilliant ideas? :)

    Read the article

  • How to download file into string with progress callback?

    - by Kaminari
    I would like to use the WebClient (or there is another better option?) but there is a problem. I understand that opening up the stream takes some time and this can not be avoided. However, reading it takes a strangely much more amount of time compared to read it entirely immediately. Is there a best way to do this? I mean two ways, to string and to file. Progress is my own delegate and it's working good. FIFTH UPDATE: Finally, I managed to do it. In the meantime I checked out some solutions what made me realize that the problem lies elsewhere. I've tested custom WebResponse and WebRequest objects, library libCURL.NET and even Sockets. The difference in time was gzip compression. Compressed stream lenght was simply half the normal stream lenght and thus download time was less than 3 seconds with the browser. I put some code if someone will want to know how i solved this: (some headers are not needed) public static string DownloadString(string URL) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Headers["User-Agent"] = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1045 Safari/532.5"; client.Headers["Accept"] = "application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; client.Headers["Accept-Encoding"] = "gzip,deflate,sdch"; client.Headers["Accept-Charset"] = "ISO-8859-2,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3"; Stream inputStream = client.OpenRead(new Uri(URL)); MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); const int size = 32 * 4096; byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; if (client.ResponseHeaders["Content-Encoding"] == "gzip") { inputStream = new GZipStream(inputStream, CompressionMode.Decompress); } int count = 0; do { count = inputStream.Read(buffer, 0, size); if (count > 0) { memoryStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); } } while (count > 0); string result = Encoding.Default.GetString(memoryStream.ToArray()); memoryStream.Close(); inputStream.Close(); return result; } I think that asyncro functions will be almost the same. But i will simply use another thread to fire this function. I dont need percise progress indication.

    Read the article

  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

    Read the article

  • jQuery: resizing element cuts off parent's background

    - by Justine
    Hi, I've been trying to recreate an effect from this tutorial: http://jqueryfordesigners.com/jquery-look-tim-van-damme/ Unfortunately, I want a background image underneath and because of the resize going on in JavaScript, it gets resized and cut off as well, like so: http://dev.gentlecode.net/dotme/index-sample.html - you can view source there to check the HTML, but basic structure looks like this: <div class="page"> <div class="container"> div.header ul.nav div.main </div> </div> Here is my jQuery code: $('ul.nav').each(function() { var $links = $(this).find('a'), panelIds = $links.map(function() { return this.hash; }).get().join(","), $panels = $(panelIds), $panelWrapper = $panels.filter(':first').parent(), delay = 500; $panels.hide(); $links.click(function() { var $link = $(this), link = (this); if ($link.is('.current')) { return; } $links.removeClass('current'); $link.addClass('current'); $panels.animate({ opacity : 0 }, delay); $panelWrapper.animate({ height: 0 }, delay, function() { var height = $panels.hide().filter(link.hash).show().css('opacity', 1).outerHeight(); $panelWrapper.animate({ height: height }, delay); }); }); var showtab = window.location.hash ? '[hash=' + window.location.hash + ']' : ':first'; $links.filter(showtab).click(); }); In this example, panelWrapper is a div.main and it gets resized to fit the content of tabs. The background is applied to the div.page but because its child is getting resized, it resizes as well, cutting off the background image. It's hard to explain so please look at the link above to see what I mean. I guess what I'm trying to ask is: is there a way to resize an element without resizing its parent? I tried setting height and min-height of .page to 100% and 101% but that didn't work. I tried making the background image fixed, but nada. It also happens if I add the background to the body or even html. Help?

    Read the article

  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

    - by iamweird
    Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

    Read the article

  • Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

    - by amnon
    I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

    Read the article

  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

    Read the article

  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

    Read the article

  • help me to choose the best soulotion for my purpose to build my software.

    - by rima
    before answer me plz thinking about the futures of these kind of program and answer me plz. I wanna get some data from oracle server like: 1-get all the function,package,procedure and etc for showing them or drop them & etc... 2-compile my *.sql files,get the result if they have problem & etc... becuz I was beginner in oracle first of all I for solve the second problem I try to connect to sqlPlus by RUN sqlplus and trace the output(I mean,I change the output stream of shell and trace what happend and handle the assigned message to customer. NOW THIS PART SUCCEED. just a little bit I have problem with get all result because the output is asynchronous.any way... [in this case I log in to oracle Server by send argument to the sqlplus by make a process in c#] after that I try to get all function,package or procedure name,but I have problem in speed!so I try to use oracle.DataAccess.dll to connect the database. now I m so confusing about: which way is correct way to build a program that work like Oracle Developer! I do not have any experience for like these program how work. If Your answer is I must use the second way follow this part plz: I search a little bit the Golden,PLedit (Benthic software),I have little bit problem how I must create the connection string?because I thinking about how I can find the host name or port number that oracle work on them?? am I need read the TNSNames.Ora file? IF your answer is I must use the first way follow this part plz: do u have any Idea for how I parse the output?because for example the result of a table is so confusing...[i can handle & program it but I really need someone experience,because the important things to me learn how such software work so nice and with quick response?] All of the has different style in output... If you are not sure Can u help me which book can help me in this way i become expert? becuz for example all the C# write just about how u can connect to DB and the DB books write how u can use this DB program,I looking for a book that give me some Idea how develop an interface for do transaction between these two.not simple send and receive data,for example how write a compiler for them. the language of book is not different for me i know C#,java,VB,sql,Oracle Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Redirecting one file to another using dub2 and strtok

    - by Sergiy Zakharov
    OK, here goes. I have to write a program, in which I need to use strtok and dup2 to redirect one file to another, but I need to also have the user to actually put the command cat < file1 file2, but not from the shell, but instead by using my program. That's why I need strtok. And the reason my program doesn't work is probably because of that, because I don't really understand how strtok works. I found a similar program on the internet, but they just take the ls command and redirect it to the file. That's it. My program is much more complicated. I mean, it would've been easier just to say in shell cat < file1 file2, but for some reason they want us to do it this way. So, anyways, here is what I have so far (here I just combined what I have found on the internet with what I already had from before. We had to do something similar but then the user would just go ls or ls -l. Very simple stuff. This is much harder, for me, at least.) #include <fcntl.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <string.h> int main() { pid_t pid; char line[256]; char *args[129]; int i; int fd; int status; char *temp; while (1) { printf(">"); if (fgets(line, 256, stdin) == 0) { exit(0); } else { pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { i = 0; temp = strtok("<",line); while (temp != NULL) { args[i++] = temp; temp = strtok(">",line); args[i] = '\0'; } fd = open("hello", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd, STDIN_FILENO); fd = open("world", O_WRONLY|O_CREAT|O_TRUNC, S_IRWXU); dup2(fd, STDOUT_FILENO ); close(fd); execvp(args[0], args); } else { close(fd); wait(&status); } } } } Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

    Read the article

  • AnimationDrawable, when does it end?

    - by Syb
    I know there have been several people with the same question. Which is: How do i know when a frame by frame animation has ended? I have not had any useful answer on fora i visited. So i thought, let's see if they know at stackoverflow. But I could not sit still in the mean time, so i made a work around of this, but it does not really work the way i would like it to. here is the code: public class Main extends Activity { AnimationDrawable sybAnimation; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imageView.setBackgroundResource(R.anim.testanimation); sybAnimation = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); imageView.post(new Starter()); } class Starter implements Runnable { public void run() { sybAnimation.start(); long totalDuration = 0; for(int i = 0; i< sybAnimation.getNumberOfFrames();i++){ totalDuration += sybAnimation.getDuration(i); } Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(R.id.ImageView01, R.anim.testanimation_reverse),totalDuration); } } class AnimationFollowUpTimerTask extends TimerTask { private int id; private int animationToRunId; public AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(int idOfImageView, int animationXML){ id = idOfImageView; animationToRunId = animationXML; } @Override public void run() { ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(id); imageView.setBackgroundResource(animationToRunId); AnimationDrawable anim = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); anim.start(); } } basically I make a timertask which is scheduled with the same time as the animation to take. In that run() I want to load a new animation into the imageView and start that animation, this however does not work. Does anyone know how to get this to work, or even better, have a better way to find out when an AnimationDrawable has ended its animation?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >