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Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

- by Petr Felzmann

We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

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Python IOError: Not a gzipped file (Gzip and Blowfish Encrypt/Compress)

- by notbad.jpeg

I'm having some problems with python's built-in library gzip. Looked through almost every other stack question about it, and none of them seem to work. MY PROBLEM IS THAT WHEN I TRY TO DECOMPRESS I GET THE IOError I'm Getting: Traceback (most recent call last): File "mymodule.py", line 61, in return gz.read() File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 245, readself._read(readsize) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 287, in _readself._read_gzip_header() File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 181, in _read_gzip_header raise IOError, 'Not a gzipped file'IOError: Not a gzipped file This is my code to send it over SMB, it might not make sense why i do things, but it's normally in a while loop and memory efficient, I just simplified it. buffer = cStringIO.StringIO(output) #output is from a subprocess call small_buffer = cStringIO.StringIO() small_string = buffer.read() #need a string to write to buffer gzip_obj = gzip.GzipFile(fileobj=small_buffer,compresslevel=6, mode='wb') gzip_obj.write(small_string) compressed_str = small_buffer.getvalue() blowfish = Blowfish.new('abcd', Blowfish.MODE_ECB) remainder = '|'*(8 - (len(compressed_str) % 8)) compressed_str += remainder encrypted = blowfish.encrypt(compressed_str) #i send it over smb, then retrieve it later Then this is the code that retrieves it: #buffer is a cStringIO object filled with data from smb retrieval decrypter = Blowfish.new('abcd', Blowfish.MODE_ECB) value = buffer.getvalue() decrypted = decrypter.decrypt(value) buff = cStringIO.StringIO(decrypted) buff.seek(0) gz = gzip.GzipFile(fileobj=buff) return gz.read() Here's the problem return gz.read()

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ASP.NET MVC: How to create a usable UrlHelper instance?

- by Marek

I am using quartz.net to schedule regular events within asp.net mvc application. The scheduled job should call a service layer script that requires a UrlHelper instance (for creating Urls based on correct routes (via urlHelper.Action(..)) contained in emails that will be sent by the service). I do not want to hardcode the links into the emails - they should be resolved using the urlhelper. The job: public class EvaluateRequestsJob : Quartz.IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { // where to get a usable urlHelper instance? ServiceFactory.GetRequestService(urlHelper).RunEvaluation(); } } Please note that this is not run within the MVC pipeline. There is no current request being served, the code is run by the Quartz scheduler at defined times. How do I get a UrlHelper instance usable on the indicated place? If it is not possible to construct a UrlHelper, the other option I see is to make the job "self-call" a controller action by doing a HTTP request - while executing the action I will of course have a UrlHelper instance available - but this seems a little bit hacky to me.

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How to associate static entity instances in a Session without database retrieval

- by Michael Hedgpeth

I have a simple Result class that used to be an Enum but has evolved into being its own class with its own table. public class Result { public static readonly Result Passed = new Result(StatusType.Passed) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result NotRun = new Result(StatusType.NotRun) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result Running = new Result(StatusType.Running) { Id = [Predefined] }; } Each of these predefined values has a row in the database at their predefined Guid Id. There is then a failed result that has an instance per failure: public class FailedResult : Result { public FailedResult(string description) : base(StatusType.Failed) { . . . } } I then have an entity that has a Result: public class Task { public Result Result { get; set; } } When I save a Task, if the Result is a predefined one, I want NHibernate to know that it doesn't need to save that to the database, nor does it need to fetch it from the database; I just want it to save by Id. The way I get around this is when I am setting up the session, I call a method to load the static entities: protected override void OnSessionOpened(ISession session) { LockStaticResults(session, Result.Passed, Result.NotRun, Result.Running); } private static void LockStaticResults(ISession session, params Result[] results) { foreach (var result in results) { session.Load(result, result.Id); } } The problem with the session.Load method call is it appears to be fetching to the database (something I don't want to do). How could I make this so it does not fetch the database, but trusts that my static (immutable) Result instances are both up to date and a part of the session?

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comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

- by andy-score

This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: <p>some text</p> <p>some more text</p> these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

- by Steve Armstrong

I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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Passing a list of ints to WebMethod using jQuery and ajax.

- by birdus

I'm working on a web page (ASP.NET 4.0) and am just starting simple to try and get this ajax call working (I'm an ajax/jQuery neophyte) and I'm getting an error on the call. Here's the js: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Items = new Object; TestParams.Items[0] = 1; TestParams.Items[1] = 5; TestParams.Items[2] = 10; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(TestParams); var _url = 'AdvancedSearch.aspx/TestMethod'; $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: _url, data: finalObj, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { $(".main").html(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(thrownError.toString()); } }); Here's the method in my code behind file: [Serializable] public class TestParams { public List<int> Items { get; set; } } public partial class Search : Page { [WebMethod] public static string TestMethod(TestParams testParams) { // I never hit a breakpoint in here // do some stuff // return some stuff return ""; } } Here's the stringified json I'm sending back: {"Items":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}} When I run it, I get this error: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object It breaks on the error function. I've also tried this variation on building the json (based on a sample on a website) with this final json: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Positions = new Object; TestParams.Positions[0] = 1; TestParams.Positions[1] = 5; TestParams.Positions[2] = 10; var DTO = new Object; DTO.positions = TestParams; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(DTO) {"positions":{"Positions":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}}} Same error message. It doesn't seem like it should be hard to send a list of ints from a web page to my webmethod. Any ideas? Thanks, Jay

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Passing Object to Service in WCF

- by hgulyan

Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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Port Win32 DLL hook to Linux

- by peachykeen

I have a program (NWShader) which hooks into a second program's OpenGL calls (NWN) to do post-processing effects and whatnot. NWShader was originally built for Windows, generally modern versions (win32), and uses both DLL exports (to get Windows to load it and grab some OpenGL functions) and Detours (to hook into other functions). I'm using the trick where Win will look in the current directory for any DLLs before checking the sysdir, so it loads mine. I have on DLL that redirects with this method: #pragma comment(linker, "/export:oldFunc=nwshader.newFunc) To send them to a different named function in my own DLL. I then do any processing and call the original function from the system DLL. I need to port NWShader to Linux (NWN exists in both flavors). As far as I can tell, what I need to make is a shared library (.so file). If this is preloaded before the NWN executable (I found a shell script to handle this), my functions will be called. The only problem is I need to call the original function (I would use various DLL dynamic loading methods for this, I think) and need to be able to do Detour-like hooking of internal functions. At the moment I'm building on Ubuntu 9.10 x64 (with the 32-bit compiler flags). I haven't been able to find much on Google to help with this, but I don't know exactly what the *nix community refers to it as. I can code C++, but I'm more used to Windows. Being OpenGL, the only part the needs modified to be compatible with Linux is the hooking code and the calls. Is there a simple and easy way to do this, or will it involve recreating Detours and dynamically loading the original function addresses?

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Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

- by Rene

Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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Flex build error

- by incrediman

I'm totally new to flex. I'm getting a build error when using flex. That is, I've generated a .c file using flex, and, when running it, am getting this error: 1>lextest.obj : error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "int __cdecl isatty(int)" (?isatty@@YAHH@Z) 1>C:\...\lextest.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals here is the lex file I'm using (grabbed from here): /*** Definition section ***/ %{ /* C code to be copied verbatim */ #include <stdio.h> %} /* This tells flex to read only one input file */ %option noyywrap %% /*** Rules section ***/ /* [0-9]+ matches a string of one or more digits */ [0-9]+ { /* yytext is a string containing the matched text. */ printf("Saw an integer: %s\n", yytext); } . { /* Ignore all other characters. */ } %% /*** C Code section ***/ int main(void) { /* Call the lexer, then quit. */ yylex(); return 0; } As well, why do I have to put a 'main' function in the lex syntax code? What I'd like is to be able to call yylex(); from another c file.

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updating system's time using .Net

- by user62958

I am trying to update my system time using the following: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct SYSTEMTIME { public ushort wYear; public ushort wMonth; public ushort wDayOfWeek; public ushort wDay; public ushort wHour; public ushort wMinute; public ushort wSecond; public ushort wMilliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "GetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static void Win32GetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static bool Win32SetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); public void SetTime() { TimeSystem correctTime = new TimeSystem(); DateTime sysTime = correctTime.GetSystemTime(); // Call the native GetSystemTime method // with the defined structure. SYSTEMTIME systime = new SYSTEMTIME(); Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime); // Set the system clock ahead one hour. systime.wYear = (ushort)sysTime.Year; systime.wMonth = (ushort)sysTime.Month; systime.wDayOfWeek = (ushort)sysTime.DayOfWeek; systime.wDay = (ushort)sysTime.Day; systime.wHour = (ushort)sysTime.Hour; systime.wMinute = (ushort)sysTime.Minute; systime.wSecond = (ushort)sysTime.Second; systime.wMilliseconds = (ushort)sysTime.Millisecond; Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime); } When I debug everything looks good and all the values are correct but when it calles the Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime) th actual time of system(display time) doesn't change and stays the same. The strange part is that when I call the Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime) it gives me the new updated time. Can someone give me some help on this?

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wsimport generate a client with cookies

- by dierre

I'm generating a client for a SOAP 1.2 service using wsimport from the jaxws-maven-plugin in maven with the following execution: <groupId>org.jvnet.jax-ws-commons</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <sourceDestDir>${project.basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${webservice.url}</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <extension>true</extension> </configuration> </execution> The first time the client call the proxy, the load balancer generate a cookie and sends it back. The client should send it back so the load balancer knows where (which server) is dedicated to a specific client (the idea is that the first time the client get a server and the cookie identifies the server, then the load balancer sends the client to the same server for every call) Now, is there a way to tell to the plugin to enable automatically the cookie handling?

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How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

- by Bungle

Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

- by carmao

I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

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Creating a form dynamically

- by Nathan

Hi, I use a search button that creates a form dynamically at the server side and returns it with Jquery syntax. After I fill-up the form and click on submit button, there is another .submit() Jquery function that suppose to be called to validate input before data is sent to the server. But, for some reason, this function is never called, and the data is request is sent. In more details: This is the form that the serach button creates dynamically at the server side and "prints" to html page with Jquery: <form action=... name="stockbuyform" class="stockbuyform" method="post"> <input type=text value="Insert purchasing amount"> <input type="submit" value="Click to purchase"> </form> And here is the .submit() function : $(".stockbuyform").submit(function() { alert("Need to validate purchasing details"); } But whaen I click on purchase button, the .submit() function is never called. Does it mean that I can't use another Jquery call with the answer I got in the first call?

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SEO with image link alt text vs standard text-based link

- by Infiniti Fizz

Hi, I'm currently developing a website and the main navigation is made up of image links because the font used for them isn't standard. My client's only worry is will this mess up search engine optimization? Can I just add alt text to the images like "link 1" or use the name attribute of the anchor tag? Or would it be better to just have the navigation as anchor tags with the names of the links in them like: <a href="...">link 1</a>? I'm new to SEO so really don't know which to suggest to him, Thanks for your time, InfinitiFizz

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jQuery Tablesorter - column not sorting alphabetically

- by McGirl

I'm not sure what's going wrong here. This is the page: http://www.utexas.edu/ssw/cswr/projects/project-list/ The first column sorts, but it isn't returning data in the correct order (alphabetical). The table itself is being generated by a custom PHP function that pulls info from a WordPress database. I thought that might be the issue, but as you can see the fourth column (End Date) sorts correctly. I also thought it might be the links in the first column that were messing things up, but adding the text-extraction code from this page broke the sorting altogether. This is the jQuery code I'm current using to call Tablesorter: <script type="text/javascript" id="js"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $(document).ready(function() { // call the tablesorter plugin, the magic happens in the markup $("#projectTable").tablesorter({ // pass the headers argument and assing a object //debug: true, //sortList: [[0,0]], headers: { 0: { // set the column to sort as text sorter: 'text', }, // assign the secound column (we start counting zero) 1: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false, }, // assign the third column (we start counting zero) 2: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false }, 3: { sorter:'digit' } } }); // Works only with plugin modification $("#projectTable").bind("sortStart",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").show(); } }).bind("sortEnd",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks for your help!

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Easy bidirectional communication via P2P NetStream

- by andsve

I've been looking into the P2P support in Flash 10, using Adobe Stratus service. I have successfully been able to send data from one user to another, put my problem is that I haven't figured out how to send data back in some easy way (or as some kind of response to the first call). What I'm currently doing; First set up a connection with Stratus service nc = new NetConnection(); nc.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, ncStatusHandler); nc.connect(APPLICATION_URL + DEVELOPER_KEY); On the "server" side I do: sendStream = new NetStream(nc, NetStream.DIRECT_CONNECTIONS); sendStream.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, sendStreamHandler); sendStream.publish("file"); And on the "client" side: // remoteFileID.text is manually copied by the user from the server (which is nc.nearID). recvStream = new NetStream(nc, remoteFileID.text); recvStream.client = this; recvStream.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, recvStreamHandler); recvStream.play("file"); Then I call a remote function on the client: ... sendStream.send("aRemoteFunction", parameterData); ... Now my problem; I want to do the same from the client to the server, to notify that everything went well, or something failed. From what I understand, I will have to setup a new NetStream from the client to the server (i.e publish on the client and play on the server). But to accomplish this, the server need to know the nc.nearID on the client. Is it possible to get that ID without forcing the user to manually copy it from the client to server? Or, is there an easier way for the client to talk back to the server that I am missing?

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Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

- by Juan Luis Soldi

I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

- by ahsteele

I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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compiler directive defensive programming for adding ints to nsmuatablearray FMDB/EGODB

- by johndpope

I would like to throw a warning message when users try to add an int to an nsmutablearray basically any insert statement that includes values that are not nsstring / nsnumber cause run time crashes. It's exactly the same crash you get when you type %@ instead of %d NSLog(int); The crash is ok, but I want to throw a friendly 'FATAL' message to user. so far I have this try catch with isKindOfClass NSObject but ints are slipping through. #define FATAL_MSG "FATAL: object is not an NSObject subclass. Are you using int? use [NSNumber numberWithInt:1] \n" #define VAToArray(firstarg) ({\ NSMutableArray* valistArray = [NSMutableArray array];\ id obj = nil;\ va_list arguments;\ va_start(arguments, sql);\ @try { \ while ((obj = va_arg(arguments, id))) {\ if([obj isKindOfClass:[NSObject class]]) [valistArray addObject:obj];\ else printf(FATAL_MSG); \ }\ } \ @catch(NSException *exception){ \ printf(FATAL_MSG); \ } \ va_end(arguments);\ valistArray;\ }) - (void)test:(NSString*)sql,... { NSLog(@"VAToArray :%@",VAToArray(sql)); } // then call this [self test:@"str",@"test",nil]; when I call this [self test:@"str",2,nil]; throw the error message.

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Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle.

- by Peterstone

Hello, I´m trying to save and load objects using pickle module. First I declare my objects: >>> class Fruits:pass ... >>> banana = Fruits() >>> banana.color = 'yellow' >>> banana.value = 30 After that I open a file called 'Fruits.obj'(previously I created a new .txt file and I renamed 'Fruits.obj'): >>> import pickle >>> filehandler = open(b"Fruits.obj","wb") >>> pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) After do this I close my session and I began a new one and I put the next (trying to access to the object that it supposed to be saved): file = open("Fruits.obj",'r') object_file = pickle.load(file) But I have this message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() ValueError: read() from the underlying stream did notreturn bytes I don´t know what to do because I don´t understand this message. Does anyone know How I can load my object 'banana'? Thank you! EDIT: As some of you have sugested I put: >>> import pickle >>> file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') There were no problem, but the next I put was: >>> object_file = pickle.load(file) And I have error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() EOFError

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Is there any Java Decompiler that can correctly decompile calls to overloaded methods?

- by mihi

Consider this (IMHO simple) example: public class DecompilerTest { public static void main(String[] args) { Object s1 = "The", s2 = "answer"; doPrint((Object) "You should know:"); for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { doPrint(s1); doPrint(s2); s1 = "is"; s2 = new Integer(42); } System.out.println(); } private static void doPrint(String s1) { System.out.print("Wrong!"); } private static void doPrint(Object s1) { System.out.print(s1 + " "); } } Compile it with source/target level 1.1 without debug information (i.e. no local variable information should be present) and try to decompile it. I tried Jad, JD-GUI and Fernflower, and all of them got at least one of the call wrong (i. e. the program printed "Wrong!" at least once) Is there really no java decompiler that can infer the right casts so that it will not call the wrong overload?

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Setting processor affinity on CSC.exe launched by CoreCompile MSBuild Task

- by Hardy

I am wondering if there is simple way to ensure that when a c# project is compiled the CSC.exe launched inherits the parent processor affinity settings, or perhaps of a way where by i can supply this. I have been trying to accomplish this by launching a bat file from vs.net cmd prompt like start /affinity 01 custombuild.cmd and inside my custombuild.cmd i have @echo off msbuild Libraries.sln /t:rebuild /p:Configuration=Release;platform=x64 /m:1 :END The command line call to Csc.exe this generates looks like the following C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. What i 'd like to see is the CSC.exe to inherit the processor affinity or a simple way to be able to override how csc.exe call is generated so i can make it into a start /affinity 01 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. I also noticed that CoreCompile target is defined in Microsoft.CSharp.targets, should i be considering overriding MSBuildToolsPath variable so i can sneak in my own version. This feels rather hacky. Any help would be much appreciated.

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