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  • How to decode a html string using xslt

    - by John ClearZ
    I am trying to style an rss feed using xslt. I want to display an image that is stored in the tag on the feed. The problem is it is encoded to display as text on the page instead of being rendered. The following is an example of part of the string. 1). <description>&lt;img src="http&amp;#58;&amp;#47;&amp;#47;buavhw.blu.livefilestore.com&amp;#47;y1ppCokLxFJSG2cmyPdvg... I had to add extra coding to the string above to get it to appear properly here. The string below is how it appears when I paste it directly into the text box. 2). <description><img src="http&#58;&#47;&#47;buavhw.blu.livefilestore.com&#47;y1ppCokLxFJSG2cmyPdvg... If I copy and paste it again from the preview window it only then becomes the following string. 3). <description><img src="http://buavhw.blu.livefilestore.com/y1ppCokLxFJSG2cmyPdvg...

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  • read text file from phone memory in android

    - by Sudhakar
    Hi..I just wanna create a text file into phone memory and have to read its content to display.Now i created a text file.But its not present in the path data/data/package-name/file name.txt & it didn't display the content on emulator. My code is.. public class PhonememAct extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); TextView tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.tv); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { fos = openFileOutput("Test.txt", Context.MODE_PRIVATE); } catch (FileNotFoundException e2) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e2.printStackTrace(); } try { fos.write("Hai..".getBytes()); } catch (IOException e1) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } try { fos.close(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } FileInputStream fis = null; try { fis = openFileInput("Test.txt"); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } int c; try { while((c=fis.read())!=-1) { tv.setText(c); setContentView(tv); //k += (char)c; } } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } try { fis.close(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } Thanks in adv.

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  • Access is denied

    - by Lasse Gaardsholt
    Hi, I got this code for my sharepoint, but I get a Access is Denied, can anyone help me out here ? <!-- Load and display list - iframe version --> <!-- Questions and comments: [email protected] --> <DIV id="ListPlaceholder"><IMG src="/_layouts/images/GEARS_AN.GIF"></DIV> <!-- Paste the URL of the source list below: --> <iframe id="SourceList" style="display:none;" src="xXxXxX" onload="DisplayThisList()"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> function DisplayThisList() { var placeholder = document.getElementById("ListPlaceholder"); var displaylist = null; var sourcelist = document.getElementById("SourceList"); try { if(sourcelist.contentWindow) // Internet Explorer { displaylist = sourcelist.contentWindow.document.getElementById("WebPartWPQ1") ; } } catch(err) { alert(err.message); } displaylist.removeChild(displaylist.getElementsByTagName("table")[0]); placeholder.innerHTML = displaylist.innerHTML; } </script>

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  • Trim characters from RSS feed

    - by egr103
    I'm calling in a RSS feed to my website using PHP. Currently my code below is calling in the entire contents for pubDate: <pubDate>Thu, 12 Sep 2013 07:23:59 +0000</pubDate> How do I just display the day and month from the above example i.e. 12 Sep? EDIT I should clarify, the above line of code is an example output I currently get but as I'm calling the latest 3 posts from an RSS feed, this date and time will vary. I therefore need the code to be more dynamic (if that's the right term!) This code is my full code that fetches the contents of an RSS feed: <?php $counter = 0; $xml=simplexml_load_file("http://tutorial.world.edu/feed/"); foreach ($xml->channel->item as $item) { $title = (string) $item->title; // Title Post $link = (string) $item->link; // Url Link $pubDate = (string) $item->pubDate; // date $description = (string) $item->description; //Description Post echo '<div class="display-rss-feed"><a href="'.$link.'" target="_blank" title="" >'.$title.' </a><br/><br/>'; echo $description.'<hr><p style="background-color:#e4f;">'.$pubDate.'</p></div>'; if($counter == 2 ) { break; } else { $counter++; } } ?>

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  • About Data Objects and DAO Design when using Hibernate

    - by X. Ma
    I'm hesitating between two designs of a database project using Hibernate. Design #1. (1) Create a general data provider interface, including a set of DAO interfaces and general data container classes. It hides the underneath implementation. A data provider implementation could access data in database, or an XML file, or a service, or something else. The user of a data provider does not to know about it. (2) Create a database library with Hibernate. This library implements the data provider interface in (1). The bad thing about Design #1 is that in order to hide the implementation details, I need to create two sets of data container classes. One in the general data provider interface - let's call them DPI-Objects, the other set is used in the database library, exclusively for entity/attribute mapping in Hibernate - let's call them H-Objects. In the DAO implementation, I need to read data from database to create H-Objects (via Hibernate) and then convert H-Objects into DPI-Objects. Design #2. Do not create a general data provider interface. Expose H-Objects directly to components that use the database lib. So the user of the database library needs to be aware of Hibernate. I like design #1 more, but I don't want to create two sets of data container classes. Is that the right way to hide H-Objects and other Hibernate implementation details from the user who uses the database-based data provider? Are there any drawbacks of Design #2? I will not implement other data provider in the new future, so should I just forget about the data provider interface and use Design #2? What do you think about this? Thanks for your time!

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  • ASP.NET Membership C# - How to compare existing password/hash

    - by Steve
    I have been on this problem for a while. I need to compare a paasword that the user enters to a password that is in the membership DB. The password is hashed and has a salt. Because of the lack of documentation I do not know if the salt is append to the password and then hashed how how it is created. I am unable to get this to match. The hash returned from the function never matches the hash in the DB and I know for fact it is the same password. Microsoft seems to hash the password in a different way then I am. I hope someone has some insights please. Here is my code: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //HERE IS THE PASSWORD I USE, SAME ONE IS HASHED IN THE DB string pwd = "Letmein44"; //HERE IS THE SALT FROM THE DB string saltVar = "SuY4cf8wJXJAVEr3xjz4Dg=="; //HERE IS THE PASSWORD THE WAY IT STORED IN THE DB AS HASH string bdPwd = "mPrDArrWt1+tybrjA0OZuEG1P5w="; // FOR COMPARISON I DISPLAY IT TextBox1.Text = bdPwd; // HERE IS WHERE I DISPLAY THE return from THE FUNCTION, IT SHOULD MATCH THE PASSWORD FROM THE DB. TextBox2.Text = getHashedPassUsingUserIdAsSalt(pwd, saltVar); } private string getHashedPassUsingUserIdAsSalt(string vPass, string vSalt) { string vSourceText = vPass + vSalt; System.Text.UnicodeEncoding vUe = new System.Text.UnicodeEncoding(); byte[] vSourceBytes = vUe.GetBytes(vSourceText); System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1CryptoServiceProvider vSHA = new System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] vHashBytes = vSHA.ComputeHash(vSourceBytes); return Convert.ToBase64String(vHashBytes); }

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  • Design Pattern for error handling in ASP.NET 3.5 site

    - by Kevin
    I am relatively new to ASP.NET programming, and web programming in general. We have a site we recently ported from .NET 1.1 to 3.5. Currently we have two methods of error handling: either catching the error during data load on a page and displaying the formatted error in a label on the page, or redirecting to a generic error page. Both of these are somewhat annoying, as right now I'm trying to redesign how our errors are displayed. We are soon moving to Master pages, and I'm wondering if there is a way to "build in" an error handling control. What I mean by this is using a ASP.NET user control I've designed that simply gets passed the error string returned from the server. If an error occurs, the page would not display the content, and instead display the error control. This provides us with the ability to retain the current banner/navigation during an error (which we don't get with the generic error page), as well as keeping me from having to add the control to every aspx page we have (which I have to do with using the label-per-page system). Does something like this make sense? Ultimately I just want to have the error control added to a single page, and all other pages have access to it directly. Is this something Master pages help with? Thanks!

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  • calling .ajax() from an eventHandler c# asp.ent

    - by ibininja
    Good day...! In the code behind (upload.aspx) I have an event that returns the number of bytes being streamed; and as I debug it, it works fine. I wanted to reflect the numbers returned from the eventHandler on a progress bar and this is where I got lost. I tried using jQuery's .ajax() function. this is how I implemented it: In the EventHandler in my code behind I added this code to call the .ajax() function: Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "UpdateProgress", "<script type='text/javascript'>updateProgress();</script>"); My plan is whenever the eventHandler function changes the values of bytes being streamed it calls the javascript function "updateProgress()" The .ajax() function "UpdateProgress()" is as: function updateProgress() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "upload.aspx/GetData", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: true, success: function (msg) { $("#progressbar").progressbar("option", "value", msg.d); } }); } I made sure that the function GetData() is [System.Web.Services.WebMethod] and that it is static as well. so the workflow of what I am trying to implement is as: - Click On Upload button - The Behind code starts executing and EventHandler triggers - The EventHandler calls .ajax() function - The .ajax() function retrieves the bytes being streamed and updates progress bar. When I ran the code; all runs well except that the .ajax() is only executed when upload is finished (and progress bar also updates only when finished upload); even though I call .ajax() function every time in the eventHandler function as reflected above... What am I doing wrong? Am I thinking of this right? is there anything else I should add maybe an updatePanel or something? thank you

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  • iPhone Rendering Question

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I'm new to iPhone/Objective-C development. I "jumped the gun" and started reading and implementing some chapters from O'Reilly's iPhone Development. I was following the ebook's code exactly and my code was generating the following error: CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextFillRects: invalid context CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextGetShouldSmoothFonts: invalid context However, when I downloaded the sample code for the same chapter the code is different. Book Code: - (void) Render { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } Actual Project Code from the website (works): - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } What is it about these lines of code that make the app render correctly? - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { Thanks in advance for helping out a newbie!

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  • ScrollView content async downloading problem

    - by Newbee
    Hi! I have UIScrollView with lots of UIImageView inside. In the loadView method I assign some temporary image for each of subview UIImageView images and starts several threads to async download images from internet. Each thread downloads and assign images as follows: NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:URL]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithData:data]; img_view.image = img; Here is the problem - I expects picture will changed after each image downloaded by I can see only temporary images until all images will downloads. UIScrollView still interact while images downloads - I can scroll temporary images inside it and see scrollers and nothing blocks run loop, but downloaded images doesn't updates.. What I tried to do: Call sleep() in the download thread -- not helps. Call setNeedsDisplay for each ImageView inside ScrollView and for ScrollView -- not helps. What's wrong ? Thanks. Update. I tried some experiments with number of threads and number of images to download. Now I'm sure -- images redraws only when thread finished. For example - if I load 100 images with one thread -- picture updates one time after all images downloads. If I increase number of threads to 10 -- picture updates 10 times -- 10 images appears per update. One more update. I fixed problem by staring new thread from the downloading threads each time one image downloaded and exit current thread (instead of download several images in one thread in the cycle and exit thread only when all downloaded). Obviously it's not a good solution and there must be right approach.

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  • Float a div in top right corner without overlapping sibling header

    - by Maxime R.
    Having a div and a h1 inside a section, how do i float the div in the top right corner without overlapping the text of the header ? The HTML code is the following: <section> <h1>some long long long long header, a whole line, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6</h1> <div><button>button</button></div> </section> I tried an absolute position relative to the parent but the text is overlapped, http://jsfiddle.net/FnpS8/2/ Using this CSS code: section { position: relative; } h1 { display: inline; } div { position: absolute; top: 0; right: 0; } I tried floating the div to the right but it doesn't remain in the top right corner, http://jsfiddle.net/P6xCw/2/ Using this CSS code: h1 { display: inline; } div { float: right; } ? I know there is a lot of similar questions but I couldn't find one solving this case.

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  • What's next for all of these Microsoft "overlapping" and "enhanced" products ?

    - by pointlesspolitics
    Recently I attended a road show, organised by MS Gold Partner company in the UK. The products discussed were: SharePoint server (2010 and 2007), Exchange server, Office Communication Server 2007, Exchange hosted services Office Live meeting, Office Communicator, System Center Configuration Manager and Operation Manager, VMware, Windows 7 etc. As Microsoft claims the enhancement in the each product against higher version, I felt that clients are not much interested in all these details. For example Office Communicator, surely they have improved a lot the product and first site all said 'WOW' great product, but nobody wish to pay money for all these extra features. Some argued, they are bogged down by all these increased number of menus. They don't need soft call feature included with mobile call. It apply for all other products as well such as MS office (next what 2 ribbons ?), windows OS and many more. Indeed there must be good features in all these products, but is it worth to spend money and time to update the older system ? Also sometimes these feature will decrease the productivity instead increase it. *So do you think what ever enhancement MS is doing in the products is only for selling purpose, not a real use ?? and I think also keep the developer busy learning the new tools and features. * I am sure some some people here will argue that some people need this sort of features. But I am not talking about NASA or MI5 guys. I am talking of usual businesses and joe public. Any ideas welcome.

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  • IF expression in SQL

    - by chupinette
    INSERT INTO item_quotation (item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) SELECT DISTINCT I.item_id," . $quotation_id . ",T.item_name, I.name,I.other_name, INV.selling_price, I.discounted_price FROM temp_quotations T, item I, inventory INV<br/> WHERE ( I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ) OR I.other_name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' )) AND INV.item_id = I.item_id; I have a table called temp_quotations(temp_item_id,item_name)having values (1,grinder), (2,drill), (3,kit) I have another table called item(item_id,name,other_name,discounted_price) having values (1,grinder A,100),(2,kit A,200) When I execute this sql, it insert values in table item_quotation(item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) for example in this case it will insert (1,1,grinder,grinder A,150,100) (2,1,kit,kit A, 250,200) Since the item drill is not found in table item, it wont display it in table item_quotations. I want to write an if statement within that sql so that when the item_name from temp_quotation does not match the name from item, it displays not found in the place of item_name. This is what i tried but it does not display "not found": INSERT INTO item_quotation (item_id, quotation_id,name_searched,item_name,other_name,selling_price,discounted_price) SELECT DISTINCT I.item_id," . $quotation_id . ",T.item_name, IF(I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ),I.name,'not found'),I.other_name, INV.selling_price, I.discounted_price FROM temp_quotations T, item I, inventory INV WHERE ( I.name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' ) OR I.other_name LIKE CONCAT( '%', T.item_name, '%' )) AND INV.item_id = I.item_id;

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  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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  • comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

    - by andy-score
    This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: &lt;p&gt;some text&lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;some more text&lt;/p&gt; these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Easy bidirectional communication via P2P NetStream

    - by andsve
    I've been looking into the P2P support in Flash 10, using Adobe Stratus service. I have successfully been able to send data from one user to another, put my problem is that I haven't figured out how to send data back in some easy way (or as some kind of response to the first call). What I'm currently doing; First set up a connection with Stratus service nc = new NetConnection(); nc.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, ncStatusHandler); nc.connect(APPLICATION_URL + DEVELOPER_KEY); On the "server" side I do: sendStream = new NetStream(nc, NetStream.DIRECT_CONNECTIONS); sendStream.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, sendStreamHandler); sendStream.publish("file"); And on the "client" side: // remoteFileID.text is manually copied by the user from the server (which is nc.nearID). recvStream = new NetStream(nc, remoteFileID.text); recvStream.client = this; recvStream.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, recvStreamHandler); recvStream.play("file"); Then I call a remote function on the client: ... sendStream.send("aRemoteFunction", parameterData); ... Now my problem; I want to do the same from the client to the server, to notify that everything went well, or something failed. From what I understand, I will have to setup a new NetStream from the client to the server (i.e publish on the client and play on the server). But to accomplish this, the server need to know the nc.nearID on the client. Is it possible to get that ID without forcing the user to manually copy it from the client to server? Or, is there an easier way for the client to talk back to the server that I am missing?

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  • Passing a list of ints to WebMethod using jQuery and ajax.

    - by birdus
    I'm working on a web page (ASP.NET 4.0) and am just starting simple to try and get this ajax call working (I'm an ajax/jQuery neophyte) and I'm getting an error on the call. Here's the js: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Items = new Object; TestParams.Items[0] = 1; TestParams.Items[1] = 5; TestParams.Items[2] = 10; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(TestParams); var _url = 'AdvancedSearch.aspx/TestMethod'; $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: _url, data: finalObj, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { $(".main").html(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(thrownError.toString()); } }); Here's the method in my code behind file: [Serializable] public class TestParams { public List<int> Items { get; set; } } public partial class Search : Page { [WebMethod] public static string TestMethod(TestParams testParams) { // I never hit a breakpoint in here // do some stuff // return some stuff return ""; } } Here's the stringified json I'm sending back: {"Items":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}} When I run it, I get this error: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object It breaks on the error function. I've also tried this variation on building the json (based on a sample on a website) with this final json: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Positions = new Object; TestParams.Positions[0] = 1; TestParams.Positions[1] = 5; TestParams.Positions[2] = 10; var DTO = new Object; DTO.positions = TestParams; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(DTO) {"positions":{"Positions":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}}} Same error message. It doesn't seem like it should be hard to send a list of ints from a web page to my webmethod. Any ideas? Thanks, Jay

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  • Linked List pop() function

    - by JKid314159
    Consider the following list: [LinkNode * head -- LinkNode * node1 -- LinkNode * node2] I'm creating a stack of FIFO. I Call pop() which I want to pop node1. LinkNode::LinkNode(int numIn) { this->numIn = numIn; next = null; } . . . int LinkNode::pop() { Link * temp = head->next; head = temp->next; int popped = head->nodeNum; delete temp; Return numOut; Question: 1) head should be a pointer or a LinkNode *? 2) Link * temp is created on the call stack and when pop finishes doesn't temp delete automatically? 3) My major confusion is on what is the value of temp-next? Does this point to node1.next which equals node2? Appreciate your help? My reference is C++ for Java Programmers by Weiss.

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  • How can I create objects based on dump file memory in a WinDbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    I work on a large application, and frequently use WinDbg to diagnose issues based on a DMP file from a customer. I have written a few small extensions for WinDbg that have proved very useful for pulling bits of information out of DMP files. In my extension code I find myself dereferencing c++ class objects in the same way, over and over, by hand. For example: Address = GetExpression("somemodule!somesymbol"); ReadMemory(Address, &addressOfPtr, sizeof(addressOfPtr), &cb); // get the actual address ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &addressOfObj, sizeof(addressOfObj), &cb); ULONG offset; ULONG addressOfField; GetFieldOffset("somemodule!somesymbolclass", "somefield", &offset); ReadMemory(addressOfObj+offset, &addressOfField, sizeof(addressOfField), &cb); That works well, but as I have written more extensions, with greater functionality (and accessing more complicated objects in our applications DMP files), I have longed for a better solution. I have access to the source of our own application of course, so I figure there should be a way to copy an object out of a DMP file and use that memory to create an actual object in the debugger extension that I can call functions on (by linking in dlls from our application). This would save me the trouble of pulling things out of the DMP by hand. Is this even possible? I tried obvious things like creating a new object in the extension, then overwriting it with a big ReadMemory directly from the DMP file. This seemed to put the data in the right fields, but freaked out when I tried to call a function. I figure I am missing something...maybe c++ pulls some vtable funky-ness that I don't know about? My code looks similar to this: SomeClass* thisClass = SomeClass::New(); ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &(*thisClass), sizeof(*thisClass), &cb);

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  • SQL to get list of dates as well as days before and after without duplicates

    - by Nathan Koop
    I need to display a list of dates, which I have in a table SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 No problem. However, I now need to display the date before and the date after as well with a different DateType. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 I thought I could use a union SELECT MyDate, DateType FROM ( SELECT mydate - 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate + 1 AS MyDate, 2 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; UNION SELECT mydate AS MyDate, 1 AS DateType FROM myTable WHERE myTable.fkId = @MyFkId; ) AS myCombinedDateTable This however includes duplicates of the original dates. Dec 31, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2009 - 2 Jan 1, 2010 - 1 Jan 2, 2010 - 2 Jan 2, 2010 - 1 Jan 3, 2010 - 2 Jan 9, 2010 - 2 Jan 10, 2010 - 1 Jan 11, 2010 - 2 How can I best remove these duplicates? I am considering a temporary table, but am unsure if that is the best way to do it. This also appears to me that it may provide performance issues as I am running the same query three separate times. What would be the best way to handle this request?

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • Automatically grow document view of NSScrollView using auto layout?

    - by Monolo
    Is there a simple way to get an NSScrollView to adapt to its document view changing size when using autolayout (the Lion feature)? I have tried to call both setNeedsUpdateConstraints: and setNeedsLayout: on the document view, the clip view and the scroll view, without any results. fittingSize of the document view reports the correct size. An NSPopover in conjunction with an NSViewController handles this nicely, with the popover growing and shrinking as needed, and I was hoping to get a similar simple and robust behaviour with the scroll view. I have checked the documentation for scroll views, but they don't seem to be updated to use autolayout. Edited to clarify: The problem I experience is that the document view, which holds subviews, is not re-sized when the subviews change their size, even if they call invalidateIntrinsicContentSize. The contents of the document view are hence clipped to the original size of the document view as they grow. The document view is created in a nib and set as the scroll view's document view in an awakeFromBib method. What I hoped to obtain was that the document view frame would automatically be adjusted to when its fittingSize changes, and the scrollbars updated accordingly. NSPopover does something similar - provided that the subviews of the content controller's view have the constraints set right and various content hugging values are high enough (higher than the hidden popover window's hight constraint priority, for one).

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

    - by Petr Felzmann
    We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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