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  • UIViewController parentViewController access properties

    - by Dave
    I know this question has been asked several times and I did read existing posts on this topic but I still need help. I have 2 UIViewControllers - Parent and Child. I display the child view using the presentModalViewController as below: ChildController *child = [[ChildController alloc[ initWithNibName:@"ChildView" bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:child animated:YES]; [child release]; The child view has a UIPickerView. When user selects an item from UIPickerView and clicks done, I have to dismiss the modal view and display the selected item on a text field in the parent view. In child's button click delegate, I do the following: ParentController *parent = (ParentController *)[self.navigationController parentViewController]; [parent.myTextField setText:selectedText]; [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; Everything works without errors. But I don't know how to load the Parent View so that it displays the updated text field. I tried [parent reloadInputViews]; doesn' work. Please help.

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  • jquery cycle plugin divs always stacked problem

    - by user315430
    hi! i want to put three jquery slideshows in a div. somehow, without any css positioning the slides wont display below each other, but stacked. how can i get the sildes to display below each other, just as normal divs would? <div id="slidecontainer" style="background-color: red;"> <div id="q1"> <img src="merkel01.jpg"/> <img src="merkel02.jpg"/> <img src="merkel03.jpg"/> <img src="merkel04.jpg"/> <img src="merkel05.jpg"/> </div> <div id="q2"> <img src="poyan01.jpg"/> <img src="poyan02.jpg"/> <img src="poyan03.jpg"/> <img src="poyan04.jpg"/> <img src="poyan05.jpg"/> <img src="poyan06.jpg"/> </div> <div id="q3"> <img src="mirage01.jpg"/> <img src="mirage02.jpg"/> <img src="mirage03.jpg"/> <img src="mirage04.jpg"/> <img src="mirage05.jpg"/> </div> <div>TEST</div> <div>TEST222</div> <div>TEST333</div> </div> also, if i add additional test-divs they will also be placed under the three stacked slides... any help vermy much appreciated!! fusi

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  • TFS Solution build cascading to several other builds even when common components were not modified

    - by Bob Palmer
    Hey all, here is the issue I am currently trying to work through. We are using Team Foundation Server 2008, and utilizing the automated build support out of the box. We have one very large project that encompasses a number of interrelated components and web sites, each of which is set up as a Visual Studio solution file. Many of these solutions are highly interrelated since they may contain applications, or contain common libraries or shared components. We have roughly 20 or so applications, three large web sites, and about 20 components. Each solution may include projects from other solutions. For example, a solution for a console app would also include the project files for all of the components it utilizes, since we need to ensure that when someone changes a component and rebuilds it, it is reflected in all of the projects that consume that component, and we can make sure nothing was broken. We have build projects for each solution, whether that's an application, component, or web site. For this example, we will call them solutions 01, 02, and 03. These reference multiple projects (both their own core project and test projects, plus the projects relating to various components). Solution 01 has projects A, B, and C. Solution 02 has projects C, D, and E. Solution 03 has projects E, F, and G. Now, for the problem. If I modify project A, the system will end up rebuilding all three solutions. Worse, all thirty solutions reference common projects used for data access (let's call it project H). Because they all share one project in common, if I modify any solution in my stack, even if it does not touch project H, I still end up kicking off every single build script. Any thoughts on how to address this? Ideally I would only want to kick off builds where their constituant projects were directly modified - i.e in the example below, if I modified project C, I would only rebuild solutions 01 and 02. Thanks!

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  • Question about effective logging in C#

    - by MartyIX
    I've written a simple class for debugging and I call the method Debugger.WriteLine(...) in my code like this: Debugger.WriteLine("[Draw]", "InProgress", "[x,y] = " + x.ToString("0.00") + ", " + y.ToString("0.00") + "; pos = " + lastPosX.ToString() + "x" + lastPosY.ToString() + " -> " + posX.ToString() + "x" + posY.ToString() + "; SS = " + squareSize.ToString() + "; MST = " + startTime.ToString("0.000") + "; Time = " + time.ToString() + phase.ToString(".0000") + "; progress = " + progress.ToString("0.000") + "; step = " + step.ToString() + "; TimeMovementEnd = " + UI.MovementEndTime.ToString()); The body of the procedure Debugger.WriteLine is compiled only in Debug mode (directives #if, #endif). What makes me worry is that I often need ToString() in Debugger.WriteLine call which is costly because it creates still new strings (for changing number for example). How to solve this problem? A few points/questions about debugging/tracing: I don't want to wrap every Debugger.WriteLine in an IF statement or to use preprocessor directives in order to leave out debugging methods because it would inevitable lead to a not very readable code and it requires too much typing. I don't want to use any framework for tracing/debugging. I want to try to program it myself. Are Trace methods (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.diagnostics.trace.aspx) left out if compiling in release mode? If it is so is it possible that my methods would behave similarly? http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/fht0f5be.aspx output = String.Format("You are now {0} years old.", years); Which seems nice. Is it a solution for my problem with ToString()?

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  • Delphi How to wait for socket answer inside procedure?

    - by Astronavigator
    For some specific needs i need to create procedure that waits for socket request (or answer) in dll: TForm1 = class(TForm) ServerSocket1: TServerSocket; ...... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Wating... // Application.ProcessMessages; // Works with this line end; end; procedure TForm1.ServerSocket1ClientRead(Sender: TObject; Socket: TCustomWinSocket); begin MessageBoxA(0, PAnsiChar('Received: '+Socket.ReceiveText), '', MB_OK); Go := true; end; exports MyWaitProc; When I call Application.ProcessMessages everything works fine: application waits for request and then continues. But in my case calling Application.ProcessMessages causes to unlocking main form on host application (not dll's one). When I don't call Application.ProcessMessages application just hangs couse it cannot handle message... So, how to create such a procedure that's wating for socket answer ? Maybe there a way to wait for socket answer without using Application.ProcessMessages ? EDIT I also tried to use TIdTCPServer, for some reasons, the result is the same. TForm1 = class(TForm) IdTCPServer1: TIdTCPServer; ..... procedure MyWaitProc; stdcall; begin Go := false; while not Go do begin // Waiting ... // Application.ProcessMessages; end; end; procedure TForm1.IdTCPServer1Execute(AContext: TIdContext); var s: string; begin s := AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadString(1); AllText := AllText + s; Go := True; end;

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  • Using Javascript to submit forms.

    - by Razor Storm
    I am using a jQuery function to submit a form when a certain button is pressed, however this seems to have no effect on the form. My code is as follows: HTML: <form id="loginForm" action="" method="POST"> <input class="loginInput" type="hidden" name="action" value="login"> <input id="step1a" class="loginInput" type="text" name="username"> <input id="step2a" class="loginInput" type="password" name="password" style="display:none;"> <input id="step1b" class="loginSubmit" onclick="loginProceed();" type="button" name="submit" value="Proceed" title="Proceed" /> <input id="step2b" class="loginSubmit" onclick="submitlogin();" type="button" value="Validate" title="Validate" style="display:none;" /> Javascript: function submitlogin() { $("form").submit(); } However, when I press the button, absolutely nothing occurs. PS. This function may seem meaningless since I can just use a input type="submit" but I originally intended this to have some more functionality, I stripped the function to its bare bones for testing purposes.

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  • How to define Module and use it in dojo with AMD?

    - by Devdatta Tengshe
    I am maintaining and extending an old project which was pre-AMD. I wish to add an Chart to the application. for this, I have created a js file as follows: define(["dojox/charting/Chart",...."dijit/Dialog","dojo/dom-construct"], function (Chart) { function showDailyChart(data){ //code to show the chart in a dialog } return customModules.singleChart; }); I have saved this file as /customModules/singleChart.js In My main HTML Page, I have added it to the packages as follows: var dojoConfig = { parseOnLoad: true, packages: [....,{"name":"customModules", "location":location.pathname.replace(/\/[^/]+$/, "")+"/modules" } ]}; The function from which I want to call it, is pre-AMD. So I am calling it as follows: dojo.require("customModules.singleChart"); . . . customModules.singleChart.showDailyChart(data); I can see that /customModules/singleChart.js is loaded in the Firebug console as well as Net Tab. However there is no customModules.singleChart object. Strangely enough there is no error either. I have tested this in Firebug, as well as Google Chrome's developer tools. What is the correct way to call an AMD Module using dojo.require? Or is there a better way to do what I need?

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  • Two divs with wrapping text sharing the same line

    - by Jerad Rose
    Simple problem - How do I get these two divs to share the same line: <div style="width: 200px; padding: 0; background-color: #f00; float: left; display: inline; ">Lorem ipsum dolor sit</div> <div style="margin-left: 200px; padding: 0; background-color: #0f0; float: right; display: inline; ">Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Duis interdum leo nec purus eleifend ut laoreet metus varius. Praesent lobortis risus sem. Duis gravida risus convallis purus dapibus fermentum. Nulla nec arcu pellentesque justo hendrerit pulvinar id ac velit. Nulla cursus volutpat risus, id volutpat metus tempus eget. Morbi rhoncus, diam sed vestibulum elementum, odio nulla faucibus ligula, ut dapibus lorem nunc vitae purus. Nam commodo iaculis ultricies. Etiam in velit dolor, vel convallis tellus. Aliquam tincidunt, erat ac dictum varius, sapien mi faucibus est, sit amet venenatis nisl massa non turpis. Donec eget libero mauris. Cras ac magna est, id hendrerit est.</div> Thanks in advance.

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  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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  • Objective-C function dispatch collisions; Or, how to achieve "namespaces"?

    - by fbrereto
    I have an application for Mac OS X that supports plugins that are intended to be loaded at the same time. Some of these plugins are built on top of a Cocoa framework that may receive updates in one plugin but not another. Given Objective-C's current method for function dispatching, any call from any plugin to a given Objective-C routine will go to the same routine every time. That means plugin A can find itself inside plugin B with a trivial Objective-C call! Obviously what we're looking for is for each plugin to interact with its own version of the framework upon which it was built. I have been reading some on Objective-C and this particular need, but haven't found a definitive solution for it yet. Update: My use of the word "framework" above is misleading: the framework is a statically-linked library, built into the plugin(s) that need it. The way Objective-C handles dispatching, however, even these statically linked pieces of disparate code will co-mingle in the Objective-C dispatcher, leading to unintended consequences. Update 2: I'm still a bit fuzzy on the answer provided here, as it doesn't seem to propose a solution as much as an unproven hypothesis.

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  • read text file from phone memory in android

    - by Sudhakar
    Hi..I just wanna create a text file into phone memory and have to read its content to display.Now i created a text file.But its not present in the path data/data/package-name/file name.txt & it didn't display the content on emulator. My code is.. public class PhonememAct extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); TextView tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.tv); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { fos = openFileOutput("Test.txt", Context.MODE_PRIVATE); } catch (FileNotFoundException e2) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e2.printStackTrace(); } try { fos.write("Hai..".getBytes()); } catch (IOException e1) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } try { fos.close(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } FileInputStream fis = null; try { fis = openFileInput("Test.txt"); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } int c; try { while((c=fis.read())!=-1) { tv.setText(c); setContentView(tv); //k += (char)c; } } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } try { fis.close(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } Thanks in adv.

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  • How to TDD Asynchronous Events?

    - by Padu Merloti
    The fundamental question is how do I create a unit test that needs to call a method, wait for an event to happen on the tested class and then call another method (the one that we actually want to test)? Here's the scenario if you have time to read further: I'm developing an application that has to control a piece of hardware. In order to avoid dependency from hardware availability, when I create my object I specify that we are running in test mode. When that happens, the class that is being tested creates the appropriate driver hierarchy (in this case a thin mock layer of hardware drivers). Imagine that the class in question is an Elevator and I want to test the method that gives me the floor number that the elevator is. Here is how my fictitious test looks like right now: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += TestElevatorArrived; elevator.GoToFloor(5); //Here's where I'm getting lost... I could block //until TestElevatorArrived gives me a signal, but //I'm not sure it's the best way int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } Edit: Thanks for all the answers. This is how I ended up implementing it: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += (s, e) => { Monitor.Pulse(this); }; lock (this) { elevator.GoToFloor(5); if (!Monitor.Wait(this, Timeout)) Assert.Fail("Elevator did not reach destination in time"); int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } }

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  • VBA: How go I get the total width from all controls in an MS-Access form?

    - by Stefan Åstrand
    Hi, This is probably very basic stuff, but please bear in mind I am completely new to these things. I am working on a procedure for my Access datasheet forms that will: Adjust the width of each column to fit content Sum the total width of all columns and subtract it from the size of the window's width Adjust the width of one of the columns to fit the remaining space This is the code that adjusts the width of each column to fit content (which works fine): Dim Ctrl As Control Dim Path As String Dim ClmWidth As Integer 'Adjust column width to fit content For Each Ctrl In Me.Controls If TypeOf Ctrl Is TextBox Then Path = Ctrl.Name Me(Path).ColumnWidth = -2 End If Next Ctrl How should I write the code so I get the total width of all columns? Thanks a lot! Stefan Solution This is the code that makes an Access datasheet go from this: To this: Sub AdjustColumnWidth(frm As Form, clm As String) On Error GoTo HandleError Dim intWindowWidth As Integer ' Window width property Dim ctrl As Control ' Control Dim intCtrlWidth As Integer ' Control width property Dim intCtrlSum As Integer ' Control width property sum Dim intCtrlAdj As Integer ' Control width property remaining after substracted intCtrSum 'Adjust column width to standard width For Each ctrl In frm.Controls If TypeOf ctrl Is TextBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is CheckBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is ComboBox Then Path = ctrl.Name frm(Path).ColumnWidth = 1500 End If Next ctrl 'Get total column width For Each ctrl In frm.Controls If TypeOf ctrl Is TextBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is CheckBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is ComboBox Then Path = ctrl.Name intCtrlWidth = frm(Path).ColumnWidth If Path <> clm Then intCtrlSum = intCtrlSum + intCtrlWidth End If End If Next ctrl 'Adjust column to fit window intWindowWidth = frm.WindowWidth - 270 intCtrlAdj = intWindowWidth - intCtrlSum frm.Width = intWindowWidth frm(clm).ColumnWidth = intCtrlAdj Debug.Print "Totalt (Ctrl): " & intCtrlSum Debug.Print "Totalt (Window): " & intWindowWidth Debug.Print "Totalt (Remaining): " & intCtrlAdj Debug.Print "clm : " & clm HandleError: GeneralErrorHandler Err.Number, Err.Description Exit Sub End Sub Code to call procedure: Private Sub Form_Load() Call AdjustColumnWidth(Me, "txtDescription") End Sub

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  • JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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  • Boost causes an invalid block while overloading new/delete operators

    - by user555746
    Hi, I have a problem which appears to a be an invalid memory block that happens during a Boost call to Boost:runtime:cla::parser::~parser. When that global delete is called on that object, C++ asserts on the memory block as an invalid: dbgdel.cpp(52): /* verify block type */ _ASSERTE(_BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead->nBlockUse)); An investigation I did revealed that the problem happened because of a global overloading of the new/delete operators. Those overloadings are placed in a separate DLL. I discovered that the problem happens only when that DLL is compiled in RELEASE while the main application is compiled in DEBUG. So I thought that the Release/Debug build flavors might have created a problem like this in Boost/CRT when overloading new/delete operators. So I then tried to explicitly call to _malloc_dbg and _free_dbg withing the overloading functions even in release mode, but it didn't solve the invalid heap block problem. Any idea what the root cause of the problem is? is that situation solvable? I should stress that the problem began only when I started to use Boost. Before that CRT never complained about any invalid memory block. So could it be an internal Boost bug? Thanks!

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  • SOLVED: Lisp: macro calling a function works in interpreter, fails in compiler (SBCL + CMUCL)

    - by ttsiodras
    As suggested in a macro-related question I recently posted to SO, I coded a macro called "fast" via a call to a function (here is the standalone code in pastebin): (defun main () (progn (format t "~A~%" (+ 1 2 (* 3 4) (+ 5 (- 8 6)))) (format t "~A~%" (fast (+ 1 2 (* 3 4) (+ 5 (- 8 6))))))) This works in the REPL, under both SBCL and CMUCL: $ sbcl This is SBCL 1.0.52, an implementation of ANSI Common Lisp. ... * (load "bug.cl") 22 22 $ Unfortunately, however, the code no longer compiles: $ sbcl This is SBCL 1.0.52, an implementation of ANSI Common Lisp. ... * (compile-file "bug.cl") ... ; during macroexpansion of (FAST (+ 1 2 ...)). Use *BREAK-ON-SIGNALS* to ; intercept: ; ; The function COMMON-LISP-USER::CLONE is undefined. So it seems that by having my macro "fast" call functions ("clone","operation-p") at compile-time, I trigger issues in Lisp compilers (verified in both CMUCL and SBCL). Any ideas on what I am doing wrong and/or how to fix this?

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  • Passing a list of ints to WebMethod using jQuery and ajax.

    - by birdus
    I'm working on a web page (ASP.NET 4.0) and am just starting simple to try and get this ajax call working (I'm an ajax/jQuery neophyte) and I'm getting an error on the call. Here's the js: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Items = new Object; TestParams.Items[0] = 1; TestParams.Items[1] = 5; TestParams.Items[2] = 10; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(TestParams); var _url = 'AdvancedSearch.aspx/TestMethod'; $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: _url, data: finalObj, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { $(".main").html(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(thrownError.toString()); } }); Here's the method in my code behind file: [Serializable] public class TestParams { public List<int> Items { get; set; } } public partial class Search : Page { [WebMethod] public static string TestMethod(TestParams testParams) { // I never hit a breakpoint in here // do some stuff // return some stuff return ""; } } Here's the stringified json I'm sending back: {"Items":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}} When I run it, I get this error: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object It breaks on the error function. I've also tried this variation on building the json (based on a sample on a website) with this final json: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Positions = new Object; TestParams.Positions[0] = 1; TestParams.Positions[1] = 5; TestParams.Positions[2] = 10; var DTO = new Object; DTO.positions = TestParams; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(DTO) {"positions":{"Positions":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}}} Same error message. It doesn't seem like it should be hard to send a list of ints from a web page to my webmethod. Any ideas? Thanks, Jay

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  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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  • Which CSS editor can give formatting like this in one shot automatically?

    - by jitendra
    Which free (offline) CSS tool can give formatting like this in one shot automatically? using any keyboard shortcut of from any command of IDE example This (it can be any type of formatting) #proceed_form ol, #demo_form ol { list-style:none; margin:0; padding:0} #proceed_form ol li, #demo_form ol li { padding:2px 0; margin:0; line-height:normal; height:18px} #proceed_form ol li label, #demo_form ol li label { display:inline-block; width:195px;} into like this #proceed_form ol, #demo_form ol { list-style: none; margin: 0; padding: 0 } #proceed_form ol li, #demo_form ol li { padding: 2px 0; margin: 0; line-height: normal; height: 18px } #proceed_form ol li label, #demo_form ol li label { display: inline-block; width: 195px; } Can we achieve this type of formatting in Dreamweaver? or it not possible in dreamweaver then in any other tool?

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  • Access is denied

    - by Lasse Gaardsholt
    Hi, I got this code for my sharepoint, but I get a Access is Denied, can anyone help me out here ? <!-- Load and display list - iframe version --> <!-- Questions and comments: [email protected] --> <DIV id="ListPlaceholder"><IMG src="/_layouts/images/GEARS_AN.GIF"></DIV> <!-- Paste the URL of the source list below: --> <iframe id="SourceList" style="display:none;" src="xXxXxX" onload="DisplayThisList()"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> function DisplayThisList() { var placeholder = document.getElementById("ListPlaceholder"); var displaylist = null; var sourcelist = document.getElementById("SourceList"); try { if(sourcelist.contentWindow) // Internet Explorer { displaylist = sourcelist.contentWindow.document.getElementById("WebPartWPQ1") ; } } catch(err) { alert(err.message); } displaylist.removeChild(displaylist.getElementsByTagName("table")[0]); placeholder.innerHTML = displaylist.innerHTML; } </script>

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  • How to customize HeaderTemplate of ValidationSummary Silverlight control?

    - by BravcM
    Hello, I'd like to customize HeaderTemplate of ValidationSummary control from Silverlight Toolkit and display localized Header. But I cant figure out how to display error counter right to header's text ... Can anybody help me with this? My current XAML code ... <sdk:ValidationSummary Grid.Row="3"> <sdk:ValidationSummary.HeaderTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Background="Red"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock UseLayoutRounding="False" Foreground="White" Text="Editing Errors:" /> <TextBlock UseLayoutRounding="True" Foreground="White" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding DisplayedErrors.Count}" Grid.Column="1" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </sdk:ValidationSummary.HeaderTemplate> Thanks in advance!

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  • form layout in drupal from a module

    - by EricP
    I created my own module called "cssswitch". I'm trying to create my own html layout to display the admin form portion of the module. I understand how to use the hook_form_alter() to modify form elements, but I need to create the entire form layout to make some fields appear next to each other. It seems I need something like the way I have the frontend view of the node displayed with theme_cssswitch_display(), but for the admin part of the node. function cssswitch_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) { switch($form_id) { case 'cssswitch_node_form': $form['hour_start']['#prefix'] = '<div class="start-box">'; $form['ampm_start']['#suffix'] = '</div>'; $form['ampm_start']['#attributes'] = array("style" => "border-width:2px;"); break; } } function cssswitch_theme() { return array( 'cssswitch_display' => array( 'arguments' => array('node'), ), ); } // to display the view of the node function theme_cssswitch_display($node) { $output = '<div class="cssswitch-cssfilename">Filename: '. check_plain($node->cssfilename). '</div>'; $output .= '<div class="cssswitch-time_start">Start: '. check_plain($node->hour_start). ':'.check_plain($node->minute_start).' '.check_plain($node->ampm_start).'</div>'; $output .= '<div class="cssswitch-time_end">End: '. check_plain($node->hour_end). ':'.check_plain($node->minute_end).' '.check_plain($node->ampm_end).'</div>'; return $output; } thanks for any help

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  • How to associate static entity instances in a Session without database retrieval

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I have a simple Result class that used to be an Enum but has evolved into being its own class with its own table. public class Result { public static readonly Result Passed = new Result(StatusType.Passed) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result NotRun = new Result(StatusType.NotRun) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result Running = new Result(StatusType.Running) { Id = [Predefined] }; } Each of these predefined values has a row in the database at their predefined Guid Id. There is then a failed result that has an instance per failure: public class FailedResult : Result { public FailedResult(string description) : base(StatusType.Failed) { . . . } } I then have an entity that has a Result: public class Task { public Result Result { get; set; } } When I save a Task, if the Result is a predefined one, I want NHibernate to know that it doesn't need to save that to the database, nor does it need to fetch it from the database; I just want it to save by Id. The way I get around this is when I am setting up the session, I call a method to load the static entities: protected override void OnSessionOpened(ISession session) { LockStaticResults(session, Result.Passed, Result.NotRun, Result.Running); } private static void LockStaticResults(ISession session, params Result[] results) { foreach (var result in results) { session.Load(result, result.Id); } } The problem with the session.Load method call is it appears to be fetching to the database (something I don't want to do). How could I make this so it does not fetch the database, but trusts that my static (immutable) Result instances are both up to date and a part of the session?

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  • ASP.NET Membership C# - How to compare existing password/hash

    - by Steve
    I have been on this problem for a while. I need to compare a paasword that the user enters to a password that is in the membership DB. The password is hashed and has a salt. Because of the lack of documentation I do not know if the salt is append to the password and then hashed how how it is created. I am unable to get this to match. The hash returned from the function never matches the hash in the DB and I know for fact it is the same password. Microsoft seems to hash the password in a different way then I am. I hope someone has some insights please. Here is my code: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //HERE IS THE PASSWORD I USE, SAME ONE IS HASHED IN THE DB string pwd = "Letmein44"; //HERE IS THE SALT FROM THE DB string saltVar = "SuY4cf8wJXJAVEr3xjz4Dg=="; //HERE IS THE PASSWORD THE WAY IT STORED IN THE DB AS HASH string bdPwd = "mPrDArrWt1+tybrjA0OZuEG1P5w="; // FOR COMPARISON I DISPLAY IT TextBox1.Text = bdPwd; // HERE IS WHERE I DISPLAY THE return from THE FUNCTION, IT SHOULD MATCH THE PASSWORD FROM THE DB. TextBox2.Text = getHashedPassUsingUserIdAsSalt(pwd, saltVar); } private string getHashedPassUsingUserIdAsSalt(string vPass, string vSalt) { string vSourceText = vPass + vSalt; System.Text.UnicodeEncoding vUe = new System.Text.UnicodeEncoding(); byte[] vSourceBytes = vUe.GetBytes(vSourceText); System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1CryptoServiceProvider vSHA = new System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] vHashBytes = vSHA.ComputeHash(vSourceBytes); return Convert.ToBase64String(vHashBytes); }

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  • Objective-C: How to access methods in other classes

    - by Adam
    I have what I know is a simple question, but after many searches in books and on the Internet, I can't seem to come up with a solution. I have a standard iPhone project that contains, among other things, a ViewController. My app works just fine at this point. I now want to create a generic class (extending NSObject) that will have some basic utility methods. Let's call this class Util.m (along with the associated .h file). I create the Util class (and .h file) in my project, and now I want to access the methods contained in that class class from my ViewController. Here's an example of a simple version of Util.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Util : NSObject { } - (void)myMethod; @end Then the Util.m file would look something like this: #import "Util.h" @implementation Util - (void)myMethod { NSLog(@"myMethod Called"); } @end Now that my Util class is created, I want to call the "myMethod" method from my ViewController. In my ViewController's .h file, I do the following: #import "Util.h" @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { Util *utils; } @property (assign) Util *utils; @end Finally, in the ViewController.m, I do the following: #import "Util.h" @implementation MyViewController @synthesize utils; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; utils.myMethod; //this doesn't work [utils myMethod]; //this doesn't work either NSLog(@"utils = %@", utils); //in the console, this prints "utils = (null)" } What am I doing wrong? I'd like to not only be able to directly reference other classes/methods in a simple util class like this, but I'd also like to directly reference other ViewControllers and their properties and methods as well. I'm stumped! Please Help.

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