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  • Why is cell phone software is still so primitive?

    - by Tomislav Nakic-Alfirevic
    I don't do mobile development, but it strikes me as odd that features like this aren't available by default on most phones: full text search: searches all address book contents, messages, anything else being a plus better call management: e.g. a rotating audio call log, meaning you always have the last N calls recorded for your listening pleasure later (your little girl just said her first "da-da" while you were on a business trip, you had a telephone job interview, you received complex instructions to do something etc.) bluetooth remote control (like e.g. anyRemote, but available by default on a bluetooth phone) no multitasking capabilities worth mentioning and in general no e.g. weekly software updates, making the phone much more usable (even if it had to be done over USB, rather than over the network). I'm sure I was dumbfounded by the lack or design of other features as well, but they don't come to mind right now. To clarify, I'm not talking about smartphones here: my plain, 2-year old phone has a CPU an order of magnitude faster than my first PC, about as much storage space and it's ridiculous how bad (slow, unwieldy) the software is and it's not one phone or one manufacturer. What keeps the (to me) obvious software functionality vacuum on a capable hardware platform from being filled up?

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

    - by Chris
    I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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  • MonoRail ActiveRecord - The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE

    - by Justin
    Hey all, I'm new to MonoRail and ActiveRecord and have inherited an application that I need to modify. I have a Category table (Id, Name) and I'm adding a ParentId FK which references the Id in the same table so that you can have parent/child category relationships. I tried adding this to my Category model class: [Property] public int ParentId { get; set; } I also tried doing it this way: [BelongsTo("ParentId")] public Category Parent { get; set; } When I call a method to get all parent categories (they have a null ParentId), it works fine: public static Category[] GetParentCategories() { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", null)); } However, when I call a method to get all child categories within a specific category, it errors out: public static Category[] GetChildCategories(int parentId) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", parentId)); } The error is: "The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint \"FK_Category_ParentId\". The conflict occurred in database \"UCampus\", table \"dbo.Category\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated." I'm hard-coding in the parentId parameter as 1 and I'm 100% sure it exists as an id in the Category table so I don't know why it'd give this error. Also, I'm doing a select, not an update, so what is going on here?? Thanks for any input on this, Justin

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • What's better practice: objc_msgSendv or NSInvocation?

    - by Jared P
    So I'm working on something in obj-c (I'd rather not say what) where I need to be able to call arbitrary methods on arbitrary objects with arbitrary variables. The first two are easy enough to do, but I am unsure how to do the variable arguments. To be clear, this is not about a function/method receiving variable arguments, but about sending them. I have found two ways to do this: objc_msgSendv (and its variants) in the objective-c runtime, and NSInvocation. NSInvocation seems easier and more like it's the 'best practice', but objc_msgSendv sounds like it should be faster, and I need to do this many, many times over, with completely different messages each time. Which one should I choose? Is objc_msgSendv taboo for a good reason? (the docs say not to call the objc_msgsend functions.) P.S. I know the types of all the arguments, and not all of them are id-s Also, (not part of the main question,) there doesn't appear to be a way to message super from objc_msgSendv, but there doesn't seem to be a way to do that in NSInvocation either, so any help on that would be great too.

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • In languages which create a new scope each time in a loop block, a new local copy of the local loop

    - by Jian Lin
    It seems that in language like C, Java, and Ruby (as opposed to Javascript), a new scope is created for each iteration of a loop block, and the local variable defined for the loop is actually made into a local variable every single time and recorded in this new scope? For example, in Ruby: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ So, it looks like when a new scope is created, a new local copy of i is also created and recorded in this new scope, so that when the function is executed at a later time, the "i" is found in those scope chains as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. Is this true? (It sounds like a heavy operation). Contrast that with p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end This time, the i is defined before entering the loop, so Ruby 1.8.6 will not put this i in the new scope created for the loop block, and therefore when the i is looked up in the scope chain, it always refer to the i that was in the outside scope, and give 5 every time: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $ I heard that in Ruby 1.9, i will be treated as a local defined for the loop even when there is an i defined earlier? The operation of creating a new scope, creating a new local copy of i each time through the loop seems heavy, as it seems it wouldn't have matter if we are not invoking the functions at a later time. So when the functions don't need to be invoked at a later time, could the interpreter and the compiler to C / Java try to optimize it so that there is not local copy of i each time?

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • undefined references

    - by Brandon
    Hello, I'm trying to compile some fortran code and I'm running into some confusing linking errors. I have some code that I compile and place into a static library: >gfortran -c -I../../inc -o bdout.o bdout.F >ar rv libgeo.a bdout.o I then try to compile against that library with some simple test code and get the following: >gfortran -o mytest -L -lgeo mytest.F /tmp/cc4uvcsj.o: In function `MAIN__': mytest.F:(.text+0xb0): undefined reference to `ncwrite1_' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status It's not in the object naming because everything looks fine: >nm -u libgeo.a bdout.o: U _gfortran_exit_i4 U _gfortran_st_write U _gfortran_st_write_done U _gfortran_transfer_character U _gfortran_transfer_integer U ncobjcl_ U ncobjwrp_ U ncopencr_ U ncopenshcr_ U ncopenwr_ U ncwrite1_ U ncwrite2_ U ncwrite3_ U ncwrite4_ U ncwritev_ I can check the original object file too: >nm -u bdout.o U _gfortran_exit_i4 U _gfortran_st_write U _gfortran_st_write_done U _gfortran_transfer_character U _gfortran_transfer_integer U ncobjcl_ U ncobjwrp_ U ncopencr_ U ncopenshcr_ U ncopenwr_ U ncwrite1_ U ncwrite2_ U ncwrite3_ U ncwrite4_ U ncwritev_ The test code simply contains a single call to a function defined in bdout.o: program hello print *,"Hello World!" call ncwrite1( istat, f, ix2, ix3, ix4, ix5, ih ) end program hello I can't figure out what the problem is. Does anyone have any suggestions? Maybe even just a way to track the problem down? Cheers.

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  • Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

    - by user304361
    I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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  • Can I output/flush data to screen while processing ajax page?

    - by Bee
    I need to display on my page a list of records pulled from a table. Ajax works fine (I query the database and put all the data inside a on the main page) but if I have lots of records (say 500+) it will hang until data is fully loaded, THEN it will be sent back to the page and correctly displayed. I would like to be able to display the records on the page while getting them, instead of being forced to wait until completion. I am trying with flush(); inside the remote (ajax) page but it still waits until full data is loaded. This is what I currently have inside the ajax page: At the very beginning: @apache_setenv('no-gzip', 1); @ini_set('zlib.output_compression', 0); @ini_set('implicit_flush', 1); for ($i = 0; $i < ob_get_level(); $i++) { ob_end_flush(); } ob_implicit_flush(1); Then whenever I have a echo call: ob_flush(); Now if I load the ajax page alone... it will list the records while reading them from the database. But if I call the same page via Ajax, it will hang and send all the data at once. Any idea? This is the function I use to get the ajax content ('id' is the target , 'url' refers to the ajax page that runs the database query to list the records): function ajax(id,url) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,false); xmlhttp.send(null); document.getElementById(id).innerHTML = parseScript(xmlhttp.responseText); }

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  • How to highlight the button untill the next view is changed in iphone?

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created five buttons in the view controller. If i clicked the button it goes to the corresponding view. Now i want to display the button in highlighted state when it is clicked. It should go back to the normal state only when i click the other button.(See the image below). I have set the another image for highigthting buttons when i clicked it, but it shows that highlighted state only one sec. Now i want to display the buttons highlighted till another button is clicked. Same like a Tabbar operations.(I have used buttons instead of tabbar for my requirements). Now i have used the following code, void didLoad { [btn1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"ContentColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"bColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"ShColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn4 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"PicturesColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [btn5 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"infoColor.png"] forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; } Please help me out. Thanks.

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  • jQuery - Callback failing if there is no options parameter

    - by user249950
    Hi, I'm attempting to build a simple plugin like this (function($) { $.fn.gpSlideOut = function(options, callback) { // default options - these are used when no others are specified $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults = { fadeToColour: "#ffffb3", fadeToColourSpeed: 500, slideUpSpeed: 400 }; // build main options before element iteration var o = $.extend({}, $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults, options); this.each(function() { $(this) .animate({backgroundColor: o.fadeToColour},o.fadeToColourSpeed) .slideUp(o.SlideUpSpeed, function(){ if (typeof callback == 'function') { // make sure the callback is a function callback.call(this); // brings the scope to the callback } }); }); return this; }; // invoke the function we just created passing it the jQuery object })(jQuery); The confusion I'm having is that normally on jQuery plugins you can call something like this: $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(function() { // Do stuff }); Without the options parameter, but it misses the callback if I do it like that so I have to always have var options = {} $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(options, function() { // Do stuff }); Even if I only want to use the defaults. Is there anyway to make sure the callback function is called whether or not the options parameter is there? Cheers.

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  • multiple calender in exchange web service

    - by user3559462
    i have multiple calender in my mailbox, i can retrieve only one calender that is main calnder folder using ews api 2.0, now i want whole list of calenders and appointments and meetings in that. like i have three calender one is main calnder 1.Calender(color-code:default) 2.Jorgen(color-code:pink) 3.Soren(color-code: yellow) i can retrieve all the values of main "Calnder", using the below code Folder inbox = Folder.Bind(service, WellKnownFolderName.Calendar); view.PropertySet = new PropertySet(BasePropertySet.IdOnly); // This results in a FindItem call to EWS. FindItemsResults<Item> results = inbox.FindItems(view); i = 1; m = results.TotalCount; if (results.Count() > 0) { foreach (var item in results) { PropertySet props = new PropertySet(AppointmentSchema.MimeContent,AppointmentSchema.ParentFolderId,AppointmentSchema.Id,AppointmentSchema.Categories,AppointmentSchema.Location); // This results in a GetItem call to EWS. var email = Appointment.Bind(service, item.Id, props); string iCalFileName = @"C:\export\appointment" +i ".ics"; // Save as .eml. using (FileStream fs = new FileStream(iCalFileName, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write)) { fs.Write(email.MimeContent.Content, 0, email.MimeContent.Content.Length); } i++; } now i want to get all the remaining calender schedules also, i am not able to get is Please help, need it urgently

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  • Vertically center a fluid image in a fluid container

    - by Ferdy
    I certainly do not want to add to the pile of vertical alignments CSS questions, but I've spent hours trying to find a solution to no avail yet. Here's the situation: I am building a slideshow gallery of images. I want the images to be displayed as large as the user's window allows. So I have this outer placeholder: <section class="photo full"> (Yes, I'm using HTML5 elements). Which has the following CSS: section.photo.full { display:inline-block; width:100%; height:100%; position:absolute; overflow:hidden; text-align:center; } Next, the image is placed inside it. Depending on the orientation of the image, I set either the width or height to 75%, and the other axis to auto: $wide = $bigimage['width'] >= $bigimage['height'] ? true: false; ?> <img src="<?= $bigimage['url'] ?>" width="<?= $wide? "75%" : "auto"?>" height="<?= $wide? "auto" : "75%"?>"/> So, we have a fluid outer container, with inside a fluid image. The horizontal centering of the image works, yet I cannot seem to find a way to vertically center the image within it's container. I have researched centering methods but most assume either the container or image has a known width or height. Then there is the display:table-cell method, which does not seem to work for me either. I'm stuck. I'm looking for a CSS solution, but am open to js solutions too.

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  • iPhone: Cell imageViews repeating when loaded from url

    - by araid
    I'm developing a demo RSS reader for iPhone. I obviously have a tableview to display the feeds, and then a detailed view. Some of this feeds have a thumbnail that I want to display on cell.imageview of the table, and some don't. The problem is that when scrolling the table, loaded thumbnails start repeating on other cells, and I end up with a thumbnail on every cell. Here's a piece of my code. I may upload screenshots later - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ UITableViewCell * cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: @"rssItemCell"]; if(nil == cell){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"rssItemCell"]autorelease]; } BlogRss *item = [[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [item title]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [item description]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Thumbnail if exists if(noticia.imagePath != nil){ NSData* imageData; @try { imageData = [[NSData alloc]initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:item.imagePath]]; } @catch (NSException * e) { //Some error while downloading data } @finally { item.image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [imageData release]; } } if(item.image != nil){ [[cell imageView] setImage:item.image]; } return cell; } Any help will be very appreciated.

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  • log4js ConsoleAppender initialization

    - by perrierism
    I'm wondering if anyone happens to have some experience using Log4js? It seems its normal ConsoleAppender isn't always ready to use immediately after it's added to a logger object... If I have two sequential script tags in a document like: //Initialize logger <script type="text/javascript"> var logger = new Log4js.getLogger("JSLOG"); logger.addAppender(new Log4js.ConsoleAppender(logger, false)); logger.setLevel(Log4js.Level.INFO); </script> //Use logger <script type="text/javascript"> logger.info('Test test'); </script> ... It causes the console pop-up (pop-up window) to appear with an error message on page load: 12:58:23 PM WARN Log4js - Could not run the listener function () { return fn.apply(object, arguments); }. TypeError: this.outputElement is null The console is still initialised, it's there afterward, but for just that first logger call it doesn't seem to be there fully. If I make the first logger call setTimeout("logger.info('test test')", 1000), it doesn't have the error. So it's like it's not ready immediately. Anyone see this before or know what a workaround might be? Cheers

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  • How can use the currently displayed node to filter a block-level view on that node's page?

    - by Deane
    I have parent/child relationship set up via Node Reference. A Child record can have a Parent record selected from a Node Reference field (this is optional -- I can have Parent-less Children as well). I've created a Views block to appear on the Parent pages, below the content. It's going to show a table of all the Child nodes for that Parent. Problem is, right now it shows every Child node. I need to filter it for just the Parent being displayed. What I need to be able to do is add a filter to this View to effectively say, "Only show the Child nodes that are assigned to the Parent being displayed on this page." So, somehow I need to be able to get the Nid of the currently displaying node (which will be a Parent, in all cases when this block is displayed), and use that in a filter in my View. How exactly can I do this? (Initially I used an attachment view for this (as this page instructs). I created a page view to display the Parent, then an attachment view to display all the Children, then attached that under the page view. This worked, but it was almost absurdly complicated to set up, and it was an undesirable for a number of other reasons -- primarily that my Parent now has two dedicated URLs, it's own node-level page, and the similar page created by this view.) Using Drupal 6.15.

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  • Jquery autocomplete webservices - what am i doing wrong??

    - by dzajdol
    I created a class for JSON responses: public class PostCodeJson { public String Text { get; private set; } public String Value { get; private set; } #region Constructors /// <summary> /// Empty constructor /// </summary> public PostCodeJson() { this.Text = String.Empty; this.Value = String.Empty; } /// <summary> /// Constructor /// </summary> /// <param name="_text"></param> /// <param name="_value"></param> public PostCodeJson(String _text, String _value) { this.Text = _text; this.Value = _value; } #endregion Constructors } and function returns list of this class using in webservices method: [WebMethod] public List<PostCodeJson> GetPostCodesCompletionListJson(String prefixText, Int32 count) { return LibDataAccess.DBServices.PostCodes.GetPostCodeJson(prefixText, count); } And in aspx i do this that: <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=pc.ClientID %>").autocomplete( baseUrl + "WebServices/Autocomplete.asmx/GetPostCodesCompletionListJson", { parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { var datum = data[i]; var name = datum.Text; var display = name; array[array.length] = { data: datum, value: display, result: datum.Value }; } return array; }, dataType: "xml" }); }); </script> and when you enter something in the box i got an error: Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetPostCodesCompletionListJson What am I doing wrong??

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  • Data Mappers, Models and Images

    - by James
    Hi, I've seen and read plenty of blog posts and forum topics talking about and giving examples of Data Mapper / Model implementations in PHP, but I've not seen any that also deal with saving files/images. I'm currently working on a Zend Framework based project and I'm doing some image manipulation in the model (which is being passed a file path), and then I'm leaving it to the mapper to save that file to the appropriate location - is this common practise? But then, how do you deal with creating say 3 different size images from the one passed in? At the moment I have a "setImage($path_to_tmp_name)" which checks the image type, resizes and then saves back to the original filename. A call to "getImagePath()" then returns the current file path which the data mapper can use and then change with a call to "setImagePath($path)" once it's saved it to the appropriate location, say "/content/my_images". Does this sound practical to you? Also, how would you deal with getting the URL to that image? Do you see that as being something that the model should be providing? It seems to me like that model should worry about where the images are being stored or ultimately how they're accessed through a browser and so I'm inclined to put that in the ini file and just pass the URL prefix to the view through the controller. Does that sound reasonable? I'm using GD for image manipulation - not that that's of any relevance. UPDATE: I've been wondering if the image resizing should be done in the model at all. The model could require that it's provided a "main" image and a "thumb" image, both of certain dimensions. I've thought about creating a "getImageSpecs()" function in the model that would return something that defines the required sizes, then a separate image manipulation class could carry out the resizing and (perhaps in the controller?) and just pass the final paths in to the model using something like "setImagePaths($images)". Any thoughts much appreciated :) James.

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  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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  • Rate limiting a ruby file stream

    - by Matthew Savage
    I am working on a project which involves uploading flash video files to a S3 bucket from a number of geographically distributed nodes. The video files are about 2-3mb each, and we are only sending one file (per node) every ten minutes, however the bandwidth we consume needs to be rate limited to ~20k/s, as these nodes are delivering streaming media to a CDN, and due to the locations we are only able to get 512k max upload. I have been looking into the ASW-S3 gem and while it doesn't offer any kind of rate limiting I am aware that you can pass in a IO Stream. Given this I am wondering if it might be possible to create a rate-limited stream which overrides the read method, adds in the rate limiting logic (e.g. in its simplest form a call to sleep between reads) and then call out to the super of the overridden method. Another option I considered is hacking the code for Net::HTTP and putting the rate limiting into the send_request_with_body_stream method which is using a while loop, but I'm not entirely sure which would be the best option. I have attempted at extending the IO class, however that didn't work at all, simply inheriting from the class with class ThrottledIO < IO didn't do anything. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Open a buffer as a vertical split in VIM

    - by alfredodeza
    If you are editing a file in VIM and then you need to open an existing buffer (e.g. from your buffer list: :buffers) how can you open it in a vertical split? I know that you already can open it with a normal split like: :sbuffer N Wehere N is the buffer number you want, however, the above opens that N buffer horizontally, not vertically. I'm also aware that you can change the window placement after opening and have a Vertical Split like so: Ctrl-W H Ctrl-W L Which will vertically split the window to the right or the left. It seems to me that if there is a sbuffer there should be a vsbuffer but that doesn't exist (not that I am aware of) Also, please note that I am not looking for a plugin to solve this question. I know about a wealth of plugins that will allow you to do this. I am sure I might be missing something that is already there. EDIT: In the best spirit of collaboration, I have created a simple Function with a Mapping if someone else stumbles across this issue and do not want to install a plugin: Function: " Vertical Split Buffer Function function VerticalSplitBuffer(buffer) execute "vert belowright sb" a:buffer endfunction Mapping: " Vertical Split Buffer Mapping command -nargs=1 Vbuffer call VerticalSplitBuffer(<f-args>) This accomplishes the task of opening a buffer in a right split, so for buffer 1, you would call it like: :Vbuffer 1

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  • jQuery scrolling UL with hidden overflow

    - by papermate
    I have a UL with LI's set to display horizontally. The UL has a fixed width and it's set to hide the overflow. This is so I can display my images, which are to be used in a gallery, neatly. It works and looks nice. I want to, however, use jQuery to scroll the contents of the UL rather than set the overflow property to auto and be presented with those ugly scroll bars. I recycled some code I used to do the same thing a few weeks back but, back then, I was doing it in DIV's. Much easier, apparently. $('.gallery_container span').hover( function() { if ($(this).attr('class') == 'up') direction = '-='; else direction = '+='; var divOffset = $('ul.gallery').offset().top; $('ul.gallery').animate({scrollTop: direction + divOffset}, 5000); }, function() { $('ul.gallery').stop(); }); I saw a site that says the scrollTop property can be applied to UL's. So I'm not sure what exactly is causing this not to work. Any ideas? EDIT: Found what was causing it to not work at all but not it scrolls vertically - Kind of expected that. Is there any way to scroll it horizontally?

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