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• Single Sign On for WebServices, WCS, WFS, WMS (Geoserver), etc.

  - by lajuette

  I'm trying to implement a Single Sign On (SSO) for a web application. Maybe you can help me find a proper solution, give me a direction or tell me, that solutions already exist. The scenario: A GeoExt (ExtJS for geodata/map based apps) webapp (JavaScript only) has a login form to let the user authenticate himself. The authentication is not implemented yet, so i'm flexible with respect to that. After authenticating to the main webapp the user indirectly accesses multiple 3rd-party services like WebServices, GeoServer WFS, Google Maps, etc. These services might require additional authentication like credentials or keys. We are (so far) not talking about additional login screens, just some kind of "machine to machine"-authentication. The main problem: I'm unable to modify the 3rd party services (e.g. Google) to add a SSO mechanism. I'd like to have a solution that allows the user to log in once to have access to all the services required. My first idea was a repository that stores all the required credentials or keys. The user logs in and can retrieve all required information to acces sthe other services. Does anybody know of existing implementations, papers, maybe implementations of such services? Other requirements: The communication between the JS application and the repository must be secure. The credentials must be stored in a secure manner. But the JS app must be able to use them to access the services (no chance to store a decryption key in a JS-app securely, eh? *g).

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• Send post request from client to node.js

  - by Husar

  In order to learn node.js I have built a very simple guestbook app. There is basically just a comment form and a list of previous comments. Currently the app is client side only and the items are stored within local storage. What I want to do is send the items to node where I will save them using Mongo DB. The problem is I have not yet found a way to establish a connection to send data back and forth the client and node.js using POST requests. What I do now is add listeners to the request and wait for data I send: request.addListener('data', function(chunk) { console.log("Received POST data chunk '"+ chunk + "'."); }); On the client side I send the data using a simple AJAX request: $.ajax({ url: '/', type: 'post', dataType: 'json', data: 'test' }) This does not work at all in them moment. It could be that I don't know what url to place in the AJAX request 'url' parameter. Or the whole thing might just be the build using the wrong approach. I have also tried implementing the method described here, but also with no success. It would really help if anyone can share some tips on how to make this work (sending POST request from the client side to node and back) or share any good tutorials. thanks.

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• jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

  - by Josh

  http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

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• iPhone accelerometer:didAccelerate: seems to not get called while I am running a loop

  - by AJ

  An accelerometer related question. (Sorry the formatting may not look right, its the first time I am using this site). I got the accelerometer working as expected using the standard code UIAccelerometer *accel = [UIAccelerometer sharedAccelerometer]; accel.delegate = self; accel.updateInterval = 0.1; //I also tried other update values I use NSLog to log every time the accelerometer:didAccelerate: method in my class is called. The function gets called as expected and everything works fine till here. However, when I run a loop, the above method doesn't seem to get called. Something like this float firstAccelValue = globalAccel; //this is the x-accel value (stored in a global by the above method) float nextAccelValue = firstAccelValue; while (nextAccelValue == firstAccelValue){ //do something nextAccelValue = globalAccel; // note globalAccel is updated by the accelerometer method } The above loop never exits, expectedly since the accelerometer:didAccelerate: method is not getting called, and hence globalAccel never changes value. If I use a fixed condition to break the while loop, I can see that after the loop ends, the method calls work fine again. Am I missing something obvious here? Or does the accelerometer method not fire when certain processing is being done? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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• Strategies for serializing an object for auditing/logging purpose in .NET?

  - by Jiho Han

  Let's say I have an application that processes messages. Messages are just objects in this case that implements IMessage interface which is just a marker. In this app, if a message fails to process, then I want to log it, first of all for auditing and troubleshooting purposes. Secondly I might want to use it for re-processing. Ideally, I want the message to be serialized into a format that is human-readable. The first candidate is XML although there are others like JSON. If I were to serialize the messages as XML, I want to know whether the message object is XML-serializable. One way is to reflect on the type and to see if it has a parameter-less constructor and the other is to require IXmlSerializable interface. I'm not too happy with either of these approaches. There is a third option which is to try to serialize it and catch exceptions. This doesn't really help - I want to, in some way, stipulate that IMessage (or a derived type) should be xml-serializable. The reflection route has obvious disadvantages such as security, performance, etc. IXmlSerializable route locks down my messages to one format, when in the future, I might want to change the serialization format to be JSON. The other thing is even the simplest objects now must implement ReadXml and WriteXml methods. Is there a route that involves the least amount of work that lets me serialize an arbitrary object (as long as it implements the marker interface) into XML but not lock future messages into XML?

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• How can I determine if an object or reference has a valid string coercion?

  - by Ether

  I've run into a situation (while logging various data changes) where I need to determine if a reference has a valid string coercion (e.g. can properly be printed into a log or stored in a database). There isn't anything in Scalar::Util to do this, so I have cobbled together something using other methods in that library: use strict; use warnings; use Scalar::Util qw(reftype refaddr); sub has_string_coercion { my $value = shift; my $as_string = "$value"; my $ref = ref $value; my $reftype = reftype $value; my $refaddr = sprintf "0x%x", refaddr $value; if ($ref eq $reftype) { # base-type references stringify as REF(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } else { # blessed objects stringify as REF=REFTYPE(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}=${reftype}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } } # Example: use DateTime; my $ref1 = DateTime->now; my $ref2 = \'foo'; print "DateTime has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref1) . "\n\n"; print "scalar ref has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref2) . "\n"; However, I suspect there might be a better way of determining this by inspecting the guts of the variable in some way. How can this be done better?

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• Send a public broadcast from an AppWidget in Android

  - by greve

  I have a widget for a music player and want to be able to send broadcasts when pushing the different buttons. What I want to do is when a button is pushed, the widget sends a public broadcast to another BroadcastReceiver so it can handle the different actions. In my activity class with the BroadcastReceiver: private BroadcastReceiver broadcastReceiver = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if (action.equals(Constants.ACTION_NEXT)) { Log.d("RECEIVER", "ACTION_NEXT"); } } }; @Override protected void onStart() { super.onStart(); IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter(); //Widget actions filter.addAction(Constants.ACTION_NEXT); registerReceiver(broadcastReceiver, new IntentFilter(filter)); } In my Widget: public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager, int[] appWidgetIds) { RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, new Intent(Constants.ACTION_NEXT), 0); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.WidgetNextButton, pendingIntent); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetId, views); } Any help or other solutions are very much appreciated!

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• Jboss EAP 5 and Tomcat 6 on the same Win env. (Jboss gets Toncat`s home page when`s up)

  - by Eddie

  Hi guys, I`m newbie to Java technologies, just trying to catch up some idea of it. I was trying to build a java environment to play with Eclipse, Mysql, Tomcat and Jboss and integrate these together. I did: 1. Installed jdk1.6.0_20 (including JAVA_HOME and path variables; I work on Win Vista), mysql 5 and eclipse-jee-galileo (the latest one, 3.6 I believe) and all went good - java programs are compiled and run getting a DB connection. 2. Installed Jboss enterprise-installer-5.0.1.jar with localhost:8080 and this also went good - run.bat started it and I could log in as admin thru its home page. I integrated it with eclipse and could start and stop it from there too. 3. I got apache-tomcat-6.0.26-windows-x86 and this also runs and stops from command line and from eclipse. But this one uses localhost:8080 without asking. Now the problem is when I start jboss I get Tomcat home page and I can`t fix it. Is it probably because both now use localhost:8080? BTW, does Jboss EAP 5 contain Tomcat inside and I shouldn't add that Tomcat separately? Thanks for you help in advance, Eddie

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• Logging exceptions during bean injection

  - by Marc W

  I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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• NullReferenceException when initializing NServiceBus within web application Application_Start method

  - by SteveBering

  I am running the 2.0 RTM of NServiceBus and am getting a NullReferenceException when my MessageModule binds the CurrentSessionContext to my NHibernate sessionfactory. From within my Application_Start, I call the following method: public static void WithWeb(IUnityContainer container) { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); var childContainer = container.CreateChildContainer(); childContainer.RegisterInstance<ISessionFactory>(NHibernateSession.SessionFactory); var bus = NServiceBus.Configure.WithWeb() .UnityBuilder(childContainer) .Log4Net() .XmlSerializer() .MsmqTransport() .IsTransactional(true) .PurgeOnStartup(false) .UnicastBus() .ImpersonateSender(false) .LoadMessageHandlers() .CreateBus(); var activeBus = bus.Start(); container.RegisterInstance(typeof(IBus), activeBus); } When the bus is started, my message module starts with the following: public void HandleBeginMessage() { try { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_sessionFactory.OpenSession()); } catch (Exception e) { _log.Error("Error occurred in HandleBeginMessage of NHibernateMessageModule", e); throw; } } In looking at my log, we are logging the following error when the bind method is called: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Context.WebSessionContext.GetMap() at NHibernate.Context.MapBasedSessionContext.set_Session(ISession value) at NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ISession session) Apparently, there is some issue in getting access to the HttpContext. Should this call to configure NServiceBus occur later in the lifecycle than Application_Start? Or is there another workaround that others have used to get handlers working within an Asp.NET Web application? Thanks, Steve

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• problem in json response from server to client using jquery

  - by user1400

  hello i try to use ajax and zend framework in my application , i could pass variable to server but i can not get data from server , it does not return values, it return all html code page, where is my mistake? or should i config other thing? $('#myForm').submit(function($e){ $e.preventDefault(); var $paramToServer=$("#myForm").serialize(); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'test', data:$paramToServer , success:function(re){ var res = $.evalJSON(re); console.log(res.id); // to see in firebog }, dataType:'json' }); }); public function testAction() { $this->_helper->getHelper('viewRenderer')->setNoRender(); //disable layout Zend_Layout::getMvcInstance()->disableLayout(); $name=$this->getRequest()->getParam ( 'name' ); //pass $name to server $return = array( 'id' => '5', 'family' => 'hello ', ); $return = Zend_Json::encode( $return); // Response $this->getResponse()->setBody($return); } thanks

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• Incremental Timer

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I'm currently using a Timer and TimerTask to perform some work every 30 seconds. My problem is that after each time I do this work I want to increment the interval time of the Timer. So for example it starts off with 30 seconds between the timer firing but I want to add 10 seconds to the interval then so that the next time the Timer takes 40 seconds before it fires. Here is my current code: public void StartScanning() { scanTask = new TimerTask() { public void run() { handler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { wifiManager.startScan(); scanCount++; if(SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME <= SCAN_MAX_INTERVAL){ SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME = SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME + SCAN_INCREASE_INTERVAL; t.schedule(scanTask, 0, SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME); } } }); }}; Log.d("SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME ** ", "SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME ** = " + SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME); t.schedule(scanTask, 0, SCAN_INTERVAL_TIME); } But the above gives the following error: 05-26 11:48:02.472: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(4210): java.lang.IllegalStateException: TimerTask is scheduled already Calling cancel or purge doesn't help. So I was wondering if anyone can help me find a solution? Is a timer even the right way to approach this?

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• "image contains error", trying to create and display images using google app engine

  - by bert

  Hello all the general idea is to create a galaxy-like map. I run into problems when I try to display a generated image. I used Python Image library to create the image and store it in the datastore. when i try to load the image i get no error on the log console and no image on the browser. when i copy/paste the image link (including datastore key) i get a black screen and the following message: The image “view-source:/localhost:8080/img?img_id=ag5kZXZ-c3BhY2VzaW0xMnINCxIHTWFpbk1hcBgeDA” cannot be displayed because it contains errors. the firefox error console: Error: Image corrupt or truncated: /localhost:8080/img?img_id=ag5kZXZ-c3BhY2VzaW0xMnINCxIHTWFpbk1hcBgeDA import cgi import datetime import urllib import webapp2 import jinja2 import os import math import sys from google.appengine.ext import db from google.appengine.api import users from PIL import Image #SNIP #class to define the map entity class MainMap(db.Model): defaultmap = db.BlobProperty(default=None) #SNIP class Generator(webapp2.RequestHandler): def post(self): #SNIP test = Image.new("RGBA",(100, 100)) dMap=MainMap() dMap.defaultmap = db.Blob(str(test)) dMap.put() #SNIP result = db.GqlQuery("SELECT * FROM MainMap LIMIT 1").fetch(1) if result: print"item found<br>" #debug info if result[0].defaultmap: print"defaultmap found<br>" #debug info string = "<div><img src='/img?img_id=" + str(result[0].key()) + "' width='100' height='100'></img>" print string else: print"nothing found<br>" else: self.redirect('/?=error') self.redirect('/') class Image_load(webapp2.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write("started Image load") defaultmap = db.get(self.request.get("img_id")) if defaultmap.defaultmap: try: self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = "image/png" self.response.out.write(defaultmap.defaultmap) self.response.out.write("Image found") except: print "Unexpected error:", sys.exc_info()[0] else: self.response.out.write("No image") #SNIP app = webapp2.WSGIApplication([('/', MainPage), ('/generator', Generator), ('/img', Image_load)], debug=True) the browser shows the "item found" and "defaultmap found" strings and a broken imagelink the exception handling does not catch any errors Thanks for your help Regards Bert

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• iphone-AVAudio Player Crashes

  - by user2779450

  I have an app that uses an avaudio player for two things. One of them is to play an explosion sound when a uiimageview collision is detected, and the other is to play a lazer sound when a button is pressed. I declared the audioplayer in the .h class, and I call it each time the button is clicked by doing this: NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"/lazer" ofType:@"mp3"]]; NSError *error; audioPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url error:&error]; if (error) { NSLog(@"Error in audioPlayer: %@", [error localizedDescription]); } else { [audioPlayer prepareToPlay]; } [audioPlayer play]; This works fine, but after many uses of the game, the audio will stop play when i hit the button, and when a collision is detected, the game crashes. Here is my crash log: 2013-09-18 18:09:19.618 BattleShip[506:907] 18:09:19.617 shm_open failed: "AppleAudioQueue.41.2619" (23) flags=0x2 errno=24 (lldb) Suggestions? Could there be something to do with repeatedly creating an audio player? Alternatives maybe?

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• JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

  - by Nguyen Tuan Linh

  My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

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• SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

  - by StickyMcGinty

  We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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• PHP Performance Metrics

  - by bigstylee

  I am currently developing a PHP MVC Framework for a personal project. While I am developing the framework I am interested to see any notable performance by implementing different techniques for optimization. I have implemented a crude BenchMark class that logs mircotime. The problem is I have no frame of reference for execution times. I am very near the beginnig of this project with a database connection and a few queries but no output (bar some debugging text and BenchMark log). I have a current execution time of 0.01917 seconds. I was expecting this to be lower but as I said before I have no frame of reference. I appreciate there are many variables to take into account when juding performance but I am hoping to find some sort of metric to a) techniques to measure performance for example requests per second and b) compare results for example; how a "moderately" sized PHP application on a "standard" webserver will perform. I appreciate "moderately" and "standard" are very subjective words so perhaps a table of known execution times for a particular application (eg StackOverFlow's executing time). What are other techniques of measuring performance are there other than execution time? When looking at MVC Framework Performance Comparisom it talks about Requests Per Second (RPS). How is this calculated? I am guessing with my current execution time of 0.01917 seconds can handle 52 RPS (= 1 / 0.01917 ). This seems to be significantly lower than that quoted on the graph especially when you consider my current limited funcitonality.

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• can't commit or rollback, MySQL out of sync error on .net

  - by sergiogx

  Im having trouble with a stored procedure, I can't commit after I execute it. Its showing this error "[System.Data.Odbc.OdbcException] = {"ERROR [HY000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver]Commands out of sync; you can't run this command now"}" The SP by itself works fine. does anyone have idea of what might be happening? .net code: [WebMethod()] [SoapHeader("sesion")] public Boolean aceptarTasaCero(int idMunicipio, double valor) { Boolean resultado = false; OdbcConnection cxn = new OdbcConnection(); cxn.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["mysqlConnection"].ConnectionString; cxn.Open(); OdbcCommand cmd = new OdbcCommand("call aceptarTasaCero(?,?)", cxn); cmd.Parameters.Add("idMunicipio", OdbcType.Int).Value = idMunicipio; cmd.Parameters.Add("valor", OdbcType.Double).Value = valor; cmd.Transaction = cxn.BeginTransaction(); try { OdbcDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.Read()) { resultado = Convert.ToBoolean(dr[0]); } cmd.Transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception ex) { ExBi.log(ex, sesion.idUsuario); cmd.Transaction.Rollback(); } finally { cxn.Close(); } return resultado; } and this is the code for the stored procedure DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `aceptartasacero` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`database`@`%` PROCEDURE `aceptartasacero`(pidMun INTEGER, pvalor double) BEGIN declare vExito BOOLEAN; INSERT INTO tasacero(anio,valor,idmunicipios) VALUES(YEAR(curdate()),pValor,pidMun); set vExito = true; select vExito; END $$ DELIMITER ; thanks.

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• Selenium and Firefox 9's "Will you help improve Mozilla Firefox" popup

  - by Rup

  I'm trying to test a Java web app using Selenium 2.16.1. When Selenium opens Firefox, I see a band at the top of the page with message "Will you help improve Mozilla Firefox" For some reason this breaks selenium.click("id=submit"); selenium.waitForPageToLoad("60000"); which is trying to log in - it becomes a no-op, and the test fails because it's then expecting to have logged in. If I break on the click line and clear the 'will you help' band before continuing then the form submit succeeds. Is there a way to suppress this band from appearing? (I expect that would mean setting a property in Firefox's default profile - where do I find that?) Or is there a way to get Selenium to spot and dismiss this first? Thanks! I'm using Firefox 9.0.1. Solved - thanks Danny! Just in case it isn't clear from the answers and comments below: This was an issue with 2.16.1 and IMO the best solution is to upgrade to 2.17 or later.

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• Silverlight RIA Services - how to do Windows Authentication?

  - by Gustavo Cavalcanti

  I am building my first Silverlight 3 + RI Services application and need some help. It will be deployed in an controlled corporate intranet, 100% windows clients. I have started from the Silverlight Business Application template. These are my requirements: Upon launch the application needs to recognize the currently logged-in user. The application needs to have access to other properties of the user in AD, such as email, full name, and group membership. Group membership is used to grand certain features in the application. A "login as a different user" link is to be always available - Some machines are available throughout the enterprise, logged-in as a certain generic user (verified by the absence of certain membership groups). In this case one can enter credentials and log in (impersonate) to the application as a user different from the one already logged-into the machine. This user is to be used in service calls I have modified the following in the default Business Application template: App.xaml: appsvc:WindowsAuthentication instead of the default FormsAuthentication Web.config: authentication mode="Windows" With these modifications I resolve requirement #1 (get the currently logged-in user). But when I examine RiaContext.Current.User, I don't have access to other properties from AD, such as group memberships. How can I achieve my other requirements? Thanks for your help.

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• Kerberos and/or other authentication systems - One time logon for all PHP scripts

  - by devviedev

  I'm managing a set of web apps, almost exclusively written in PHP, and would like to find an authentication platform to build a role-based authorization system on top of. Also, I'd like the authentication system to be extensible to use for, for example, system services (SSH, etc.) Here are some of the main characteristics I'm looking for, in order of importance: Easy PHP implementation (storing/reading easily roles, etc.). Redundant, if possible. If an auth system goes down everyone is not locked out. Has clients for Windows and Mac. Easy web-based administration (adding/removing users/roles, changing passwords). If not, I can build an administration system without too much effort. One-time log on. I'd also like, when an auth token is issued, to store the user's IP address and use that to authorize the user for some non web-based applications. For that reason, I'd like a desktop client to issue the token and revoke tokens when, for example, the user becomes idle at their workstation. I'm thinking Kerberos might be a solution, but what are other options?

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• iPhone OpenGL and NSTimer issues

  - by Kyle

  I have an NSTimer that runs at 60hz. With an OpenGL scene loaded and rendering, my game can get 60fps, solid, all day long.. Then if I go and recompile the app, or reload it, it will get 40fps. Same resources loaded. I've been running into this problem for years, and I just want to know why. It's crazy, and I want to know if I should just abandon this stupid Timer. Conditions are not different on my 3GS between loads. It will just get 40fps sometimes. Obviously the clockrate is not different between loads, so the performance figures should be constant given a constant scene. Here is a log of my framerates: A good load: :-) FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 Now, I'll go ahead and do nothing, recompile, and run: FrameRate: 43 FrameRate: 50 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 48 FrameRate: 40 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 44 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 46 ^- Massive difference visually. What the flying heck could cause this? SAME area of the scene, SAME camera setup. No variables are different.

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• CakePHP belongsTo relationship with a variable 'model' field.

  - by gomezuk

  I've got a problem with a belongsTo relationship in CakePHP. I've got an "Action" model that uses the "actions" table and belongs to one of two other models, either "Transaction" or "Tag". The idea being that whenever a user completes a transaction or adds a tag, the action model is created to keep a log of it. I've got that part working, whenever a Transaction or Tag is saved, the aftersave() method also adds an Action record. The problem comes when I try to do a find('all') on the Action model, the related Transaction or Tag record is not being returned. actions: id model model_id created I thought I could use the "conditions" parameter in the belongsTo relationship like this: <?php class Action extends AppModel { var $name = 'Action'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $belongsTo = array( 'Transaction' => array( 'foreignKey' => 'model_id', 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Transaction") ), 'User' => array( 'fields' => array('User.username') ), 'Recommendation' => array( 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Recommendation"), 'foreignKey' => 'model_id' ) ); } ?> But that doesn't work. Am I missing something here, are my relationships wrong (I suspect so)? After Googling this problem I cam across something called Polymorphic Behaviour but I'm not sure this will help me.

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• onsubmit() does not work.

  - by the Hampster

  Here is something that I find disturbing. I created a small form, and I'm using AJAX to validate for me. I have a javascript function authenticate() that works sometimes. <form method="post" action="" id="login_form" onsubmit="authenticate()";> // various inputs <input type="button" onclick="authenticate()" value="Log In"> </form> authenticate() works just fine when I click the button. However, if I press enter the form is submitted, and it fails. It also fails if I call onSubmit(). In my debugging, I alert the outgoing texts-- they are identical. However, the Prototype Ajax function calls it the onSuccess, but there is just no response from the server. (The server outputs either "Success" or "Failure"). Why the different behaviors for onClick() vs onSubmit()? The exact same function is called, but the results are different. Any help would be appreciated. --Dave

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• Javascript and webshop tracking/affiliate across websites, how to do?

  - by H4mm3rHead

  Hi, I have a small front end to a webshop. All customers that go through my website and buy an item from the webshop I get back 5% of the amount. I need to find a way af tracking the customers i forward from my webshop to the other webshop. And then get the webshop to reply to me when the purchase has been made. In my webshop i have made a small page: collect.aspx that requests and saves the values passed in the querystring, something like this pseudo code: string orderid = Request["orderid"]; string amount = Request["amount"]; ..save to database On the webshop i forward customers to i get to insert a javascript on the last page in the purchase flow. I have tried a lot of things but it seems that the only thing that works is to fool the browser into thinking im referring a javascript, like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://domain.com/mypage.aspx?orderid=4&amount=45/> I saw how other trackers did their bit, and this seems to be the general way of doing it. With this script however, i get all the orders, i only want to log those that belong tome, those who entered through my website. Here is my big problem, how to do this? I added a cookie when the user opens my page, and i want to check for this cookie again when the purchase page make the callback. It weems that i cant get the cookie from the browser when it makes the "" call. This is really buggin me now. Could anyone please tell me how this is generally done, this tracking. And what am i missing in regards to this cookie thing? All ideas on how to do this is very welcome.

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