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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Reading bmp file for encrypting and decrypting txt file into it

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am trying to read a bmp file in C++(Turbo). But i m not able to print binary stream. I want to encode txt file into it and decrypt it. How can i do this. I read that bmp file header is of 54 byte. But how and where should i append txt file in bmp file. ? I know only Turbo C++, so it would be helpfull for me if u provide solution or suggestion related to topic for the same. int main() { ifstream fr; //reads ofstream fw; // wrrites to file char c; int random; clrscr(); char file[2][100]={"s.bmp","s.txt"}; fr.open(file[0],ios::binary);//file name, mode of open, here input mode i.e. read only if(!fr) cout<<"File can not be opened."; fw.open(file[1],ios::app);//file will be appended if(!fw) cout<<"File can not be opened"; while(!fr) cout<<fr.get(); // error should be here. but not able to find out what error is it fr.close(); fw.close(); getch(); } This code is running fine when i pass txt file in binary mode

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  • Cryptic Erlang Errors

    - by Jim
    Okay so I started learning erlang recently but am baffled by the errors it keeps returning. I made a bunch of changes but I keep getting errors. The syntax is correct as far as I can tell but clearly I'm doing something wrong. Have a look... -module(pidprint). -export([start/0]). dostuff([]) - receive begin - io:format("~p~n", [This is a Success]) end. sender([N]) - N ! begin, io:format("~p~n", [N]). start() - StuffPid = spawn(pidprint, dostuff, []), spawn(pidprint, sender, [StuffPid]). Basically I want to compile the script, call start, spawn the "dostuff" process, pass its process identifier to the "sender" process, which then prints it out. Finally I want to send a the atom "begin" to the "dostuff" process using the process identifier initially passed into sender when I spawned it. The errors I keep getting occur when I try to use c() to compile the script. Here they are.. ./pidprint.erl:6: syntax error before: '-' ./pidprint.erl:11: syntax error before: ',' What am I doing wrong?

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  • Architecting ASP.net MVC App to use repositories and services

    - by zaladane
    Hello, I recently started reading about ASP.net MVC and after getting excited about the concept, i started to migrate all my webform project to MVC but i am having a hard time keeping my controller skinny even after following all the good advices out there (or maybe i just don't get it ... ). The website i deal with has Articles, Videos, Quotes ... and each of these entities have categories, comments, images that can be associated with it. I am using Linq to sql for database operations and for each of these Entities, i have a Repository, and for each repository, i create a service to be used in the controller. so i have - ArticleRepository ArticleCategoryRepository ArticleCommentRepository and the corresponding service ArticleService ArticleCategoryService ... you see the picture. The problem i have is that i have one controller for article,category and comment because i thought that having ArticleController handle all of that might make sense, but now i have to pass all of the services needed to the Controller constructor. So i would like to know what it is that i am doing wrong. Are my services not designed properly? should i create Bigger service to encapsulate smaller services and use them in my controller? or should i have an articleCategory Controller and an articleComment Controller? A page viewed by the user is made of all of that, thee article to be viewed,the comments associated with it, a listing of the categories to witch it applies ... how can i efficiently break down the controller to keep it "skinny" and solve my headache? Thank you! I hope my question is not too long to be read ...

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  • Python: Created nested dictionary from list of paths

    - by sberry2A
    I have a list of tuples the looks similar to this (simplified here, there are over 14,000 of these tuples with more complicated paths than Obj.part) [ (Obj1.part1, {<SPEC>}), (Obj1.partN, {<SPEC>}), (ObjK.partN, {<SPEC>}) ] Where Obj goes from 1 - 1000, part from 0 - 2000. These "keys" all have a dictionary of specs associated with them which act as a lookup reference for inspecting another binary file. The specs dict contains information such as the bit offset, bit size, and C type of the data pointed to by the path ObjK.partN. For example: Obj4.part500 might have this spec, {'size':32, 'offset':128, 'type':'int'} which would let me know that to access Obj4.part500 in the binary file I must unpack 32 bits from offset 128. So, now I want to take my list of strings and create a nested dictionary which in the simplified case will look like this data = { 'Obj1' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} }, 'ObjK' : {'part1':{spec}, 'partN':{spec} } } To do this I am currently doing two things, 1. I am using a dotdict class to be able to use dot notation for dictionary get / set. That class looks like this: class dotdict(dict): def __getattr__(self, attr): return self.get(attr, None) __setattr__ = dict.__setitem__ __delattr__ = dict.__delitem__ The method for creating the nested "dotdict"s looks like this: def addPath(self, spec, parts, base): if len(parts) > 1: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], dotdict()) self.addPath(spec, parts[1:], item) else: item = base.setdefault(parts[0], spec) return base Then I just do something like: for path, spec in paths: self.lookup = dotdict() self.addPath(spec, path.split("."), self.lookup) So, in the end self.lookup.Obj4.part500 points to the spec. Is there a better (more pythonic) way to do this?

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  • jQuery carousel clicks update <select> list's "selected" option to match clicked item's title attrib

    - by Scott B
    The code below allows me to change a preview image outside the carousel widget so that it matches the element under the mouse. For example, if the user mouses over image2's thumbnail, the script updates .selectedImage so that it displays image2's full size version. I'd like to enhance it so that the #myThumbs options listing updates its "selected" option to match the carousel image that receives a click. Mouseover changes the preview image and click changes the select list to match the same name. The items in the carousel will have the same title attribute as the items in the select list, so I would expect that I can pass that value from the carousel to the select list. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite({ btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, mouseWheel: true, speed: 700 }); $('#carousel').show(); $('#carousel ul li').hover(function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>');}); }); <select id="myThumbs"> <option>image1</option> <option selected="selected">image2</option> <option>image3</option> </select>

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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  • How to format individual DropDownlist Items (color, etc.) during onDataBinding event

    - by LesterDove
    Hi, I have a basic DropDownList bound to a ObjectDataSource: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" DataSourceID="objDataSource1" DataTextField="FieldName" DataValueField="FieldID" /> The DataTable from which it receives the DataTextField and DataValueField values also returns some other interesting information about the records. Say Active = Y/N for simplicity's sake. What I'd like to do is to set the background-color property of the DropDownList Item based on that Active field in the DataSource results. Further, I'd like to do this "in the same pass" as when the DropDownList is bound to the data. So my guess is that it has to happen during OnDataBinding. Things I already know/tried: I could go back and loop through the DropDownList items later. But it would involve embedding loops and re-visiting the DataTable rows and it just seems inefficient int row; for (row = 0; row < DropDownList1.Items.Count - 1; row++) { [[if this row = that data row]] DropDownList1.Items[row].[[DoStuffHere, etc.]] } We already do stuff like this with the GridView OnRowDataBound event, by accessing the GridViewRowEventArgs e. What I seem to be missing is an "OnDropDownListItemBound" event, so to speak. Hope I've been clear and concise. Seems as though it should be easy...

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • Can I prevent a Linux user space pthread yielding in critical code?

    - by KermitG
    I am working on an user space app for an embedded Linux project using the 2.6.24.3 kernel. My app passes data between two file nodes by creating 2 pthreads that each sleep until a asynchronous IO operation completes at which point it wakes and runs a completion handler. The completion handlers need to keep track of how many transfers are pending and maintain a handful of linked lists that one thread will add to and the other will remove. // sleep here until events arrive or time out expires for(;;) { no_of_events = io_getevents(ctx, 1, num_events, events, &timeout); // Process each aio event that has completed or thrown an error for (i=0; i<no_of_events; i++) { // Get pointer to completion handler io_complete = (io_callback_t) events[i].data; // Get pointer to data object iocb = (struct iocb *) events[i].obj; // Call completion handler and pass it the data object io_complete(ctx, iocb, events[i].res, events[i].res2); } } My question is this... Is there a simple way I can prevent the currently active thread from yielding whilst it runs the completion handler rather than going down the mutex/spin lock route? Or failing that can Linux be configured to prevent yielding a pthread when a mutex/spin lock is held?

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  • How do you deserialize a collection with child collections?

    - by Stuart Helwig
    I have a collection of custom entity objects one property of which is an ArrayList of byte arrays. The custom entity is serializable and the collection property is marked with the following attributes: [XmlArray("Images"), XmlArrayItem("Image",typeof(byte[]))] So I serialize a collection of these custom entities and pass them to a web service, as a string. The web service receives the string and byte array in tact, The following code then attempts to deserialize the collection - back into custom entities for processing... XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(List<myCustomEntity>)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(xmlStringPassedToWS); List<myCustomEntity> entities = (List<myCustomEntity>)ser.Deserialize(reader); foreach (myCustomEntity e in entities) { // ...do some stuff... foreach (myChildCollection c in entities.ChildCollection { // .. do some more stuff.... } } I've checked the XML resulting from the initial serialization and it does contain byte array - the child collection, as does the StringReader built above. After the deserialization process, the resulting collection of custom entites is fine, except that each object in the collection does not contain any items in its child collection. (i.e. it doesn't get to "...do some more stuff..." above. Can someone please explain what I am doing wrong? Is it possible to serialize ArrayLists within a generic collection of custom entities?

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  • How to decrypt a string encrypted with HMACSHA1?

    - by Bob
    I'm an encryption novice trying to pass some values back and forth between systems. I can encrypt the value, but can't seem to figure out how to decrypt on the other end. I've created a simple Windows Forms application using VB.NET. Trying to input a value and a key, encrypt and then decrypt to get the original value. Here's my code so far. Any help greatly appreciated. Thanks. Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Security.Cryptography Imports System.Text Public Class Form1 Private Sub btnEncode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEncode.Click Dim hmacsha1 As New HMACSHA1(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtKey.Text)) Dim hashValue As Byte() = hmacsha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtValue.Text)) txtResult.Text = BytesToHexString(hashValue) hmacsha1.Clear() End Sub Private Sub btnDecode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDecode.Click '??? End Sub Private Function BytesToHexString(ByVal bytes As Byte()) As String Dim output As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 Do While i < bytes.Length output += bytes(i).ToString("X2") i += 1 Loop Return output End Function End Class

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • varargs in lambda functions in Python

    - by brain_damage
    Is it possible a lambda function to have variable number of arguments? For example, I want to write a metaclass, which creates a method for every method of some other class and this newly created method returns the opposite value of the original method and has the same number of arguments. And I want to do this with lambda function. How to pass the arguments? Is it possible? class Negate(type): def __new__(mcs, name, bases, _dict): extended_dict = _dict.copy() for (k, v) in _dict.items(): if hasattr(v, '__call__'): extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) return type.__new__(mcs, name, bases, extended_dict) class P(metaclass=Negate): def __init__(self, a): self.a = a def yes(self): return True def maybe(self, you_can_chose): return you_can_chose But the result is totally wrong: >>>p = P(0) >>>p.yes() True >>>p.not_yes() # should be False Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#150>", line 1, in <module> p.not_yes() File "C:\Users\Nona\Desktop\p10.py", line 51, in <lambda> extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) TypeError: __init__() takes exactly 2 positional arguments (1 given) >>>p.maybe(True) True >>>p.not_maybe(True) #should be False True

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  • Aligning music notes using String matching algorithms or Dynamic Programming

    - by Dolphin
    Hi I need to compare 2 sets of musical pieces (i.e. a playing-taken in MIDI format-note details extracted and saved in a database table, against sheet music-taken into XML format). When evaluating playing against sheet music (i.e.note details-pitch, duration, rhythm), note alignment needs to be done - to identify missed/extra/incorrect/swapped notes that from the reference (sheet music) notes. I have like 1800-2500 notes in one piece approx (can even be more-with polyphonic, right now I'm doing for monophonic). So will I have to have all these into an array? Will it be memory overloading or stack overflow? There are string matching algorithms like KMP, Boyce-Moore. But note alignment can also be done through Dynamic Programming. How can I use Dynamic Programming to approach this? What are the available algorithms? Is it about approximate string matching? Which approach is much productive? String matching algos like Boyce-Moore, or dynamic programming? How can I assess which is more effective? Greatly appreciate any insight or suggestions Thanks in advance

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  • HTTP Negotiate windows vs. Unix server implementation using python-kerberos

    - by ondra
    I tried to implement a simple single-sign-on in my python web server. I have used the python-kerberos package which works nicely. I have tested it from my Linux box (authenticating against active directory) and it was without problem. However, when I tried to authenticate using Firefox from Windows machine (no special setup, just having the user logged into the domain + added my server into negotiate-auth.trusted-uris), it doesn't work. I have looked at what is sent and it doesn't even resemble the things the Linux machine sends. This Microsoft description of the process pretty much resembles the way my interaction from Linux works, but the Windows machine generally sends a very short string, which doesn't even resemble the things microsoft documentation states, and when base64 decoded, it is something like 12 zero bytes followed by 3 or 4 non-zero bytes (GSS functions then return that it doesn't support such scheme) Either there is something wrong with the client Firefox settings, or there is some protocol which I am supposed to follow for the Negotiate protocol, but which I cannot find any reference anywhere. Any ideas what's wrong? Do you have any idea what protocol I should by trying to find, as it doesn' look like SPNEGO, at least from MS documentation.

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  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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  • Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

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  • How can I generate a FindBugs report that shows me the bugs removed between two revisions in the bug

    - by David Deschenes
    I am attempting to execute a combination of the FindBugs commands filterBugs and convertXmlToText, against a bug database that I created, to generate a report that shows me the all of the bugs removed between two revisions of the system that I am working on. Unfortunately, the resulting report does not show any bug details. It appears that the convertXmlToText throws away all bugs that are dead (aka inactive)... the exact set of bugs that I'd like to see. Below is what I see when I pass the results of the filterBugs command to the mineBugHistory command: build/findbugs/bin> ./filterBugs -before r39921 -absent r41558 -active:false ../../../mmfg/bugDB-2.xml | ./mineBugHistory seq version time classes NCSS added newCode fixed removed retained dead active 0 r39764 1271169398000 438 74069 0 64 0 0 0 0 64 1 r39921 1271186932000 441 74333 0 0 22 0 42 0 42 2 r40149 1271185876000 449 74636 0 0 3 0 39 22 39 3 r40344 1271180332000 452 74789 0 0 7 0 32 25 32 4 r40558 1271179612000 452 74806 0 0 1 0 31 32 31 5 r40793 1271178818000 464 75610 0 0 20 0 11 33 11 6 r41016 1271176154000 467 75712 0 0 4 0 7 53 7 7 r41303 1271175616000 481 76931 0 0 7 0 0 57 0 8 r41558 1271175026000 486 77793 0 0 0 0 0 64 0 What I'd like to see in the HTML report is the list of the 64 bugs that are shown as active in version r39764 (sequence # 0). Below is the command line that I am using to generate the HTML report: build/findbugs/bin> ./filterBugs -before r39921 -absent r41558 -active:false ../../../mmfg/bugDB-2.xml | ./convertXmlToText -html:fancy-hist.xsl > ../../../mmfg/bugDB-removed.html

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  • strange memory error when deleting object from Core Data

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements from the xml file. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSMutableArray* mutableFetchResults = [CoreDataHelper getObjectsFromContext:@"Condition" :@"road" :NO :managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the preceeding as it did the first time. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects again. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. See this image for the debugger window as it appears when walking through the deletion FOR loop on the second iteration. Conditions is the fetched array of 7 objects with the objects below. Condition should be an individual condition. link text As you can see 'condition' does not match any of the objects in the 'conditions' array. I'm sure this is why I'm getting the memory access errors. Just not sure why this fetch (or the FOR) is returning a wrong reference. All the code that successfully performes this function on the first iteration is used in the second but with very different results. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

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