Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 703/854 | < Previous Page | 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710  | Next Page >

• IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

  - by Hitesh Riziya

  I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

  Read the article

• How to define and use a friend function to a temlate class with the same template?

  - by Narek

  I have written the following code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template <class T> class AA { T a; public: AA() { a = 7; } friend void print(const AA<T> & z); }; template <class T> void print(const AA<T> & z) { cout<<"Print: "<<z.a<<endl; } void main() { AA<int> a; print<int>(a); } And getting the following error: error C2248: 'AA<T>::a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'AA<T>' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] 1> c:\users\narek\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\aaa\aaa\a.cpp(7) : see declaration of 'AA<T>::a' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] 1> c:\users\narek\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\aaa\aaa\a.cpp(30) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void print<int>(const AA<T> &)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] What's wrong?

  Read the article

• Paperclip failing to upload on specific scaffold, yet works on others

  - by Saifis

  I know there are tons of questions about paperclip, but I failed to find the answer to my problem. I know its prob just something simple, but I I'm running out of hair to pull out. I have paperclip working on other parts of my project, they work with no problem, however, a certain scaffold fails to upload, all the attributes to the uploaded file are nil. Here are the relevant information. Model: has_attached_file :foo, :styles => { :thumb => "140x140>" }, :url => "/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension", :path => ":rails_root/public/data/:id/:style/:basename.:extension" View: <% form_for(@bar, :html => { :multipart => true }) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> ---------- <li><%= f.label :top %> <%= f.file_field :foo %></li> ---------- <ul><%= f.submit "Save" %></ul> <% end %> Also, comparing the logs to the parts that work, the :foo attribute seems to be passing different values than in the ones that work. In the logs, when the paperclip function works, it looks like this "image"=>#<File:/var/folders/M5/M5HEb+WhFxmqNDGH5s-pNE+++TI/-Tmp-/RackMultipart20100512-1302-5e2e6e-0> when it does not, it seems to pass the file name directly "foo"=>"foo_image.png" I am developing locally on MacOSX using local rails and ruby libs.

  Read the article

• Which design pattern is most appropriate?

  - by Anon

  Hello, I want to create a class that can use one of four algorithms (and the algorithm to use is only known at run-time). I was thinking that the Strategy design pattern sounds appropriate, but my problem is that each algorithm requires slightly different parameters. Would it be a bad design to use strategy, but pass in the relevant parameters into the constructor?. Here is an example (for simplicity, let's say there are only two possible algorithms) ... class Foo { private: // At run-time the correct algorithm is used, e.g. a = new Algorithm1(1); AlgorithmInterface* a; }; class AlgorithmInterface { public: virtual void DoSomething = 0; }; class Algorithm1 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm1( int i ) : value(i) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Does something with int value }; int value; }; class Algorithm2 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm2( bool b ) : value(b) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Do something with bool value }; bool value; };

  Read the article

• Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

  - by Crend King

  Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

  Read the article

• How do you deserialize a collection with child collections?

  - by Stuart Helwig

  I have a collection of custom entity objects one property of which is an ArrayList of byte arrays. The custom entity is serializable and the collection property is marked with the following attributes: [XmlArray("Images"), XmlArrayItem("Image",typeof(byte[]))] So I serialize a collection of these custom entities and pass them to a web service, as a string. The web service receives the string and byte array in tact, The following code then attempts to deserialize the collection - back into custom entities for processing... XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(List<myCustomEntity>)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(xmlStringPassedToWS); List<myCustomEntity> entities = (List<myCustomEntity>)ser.Deserialize(reader); foreach (myCustomEntity e in entities) { // ...do some stuff... foreach (myChildCollection c in entities.ChildCollection { // .. do some more stuff.... } } I've checked the XML resulting from the initial serialization and it does contain byte array - the child collection, as does the StringReader built above. After the deserialization process, the resulting collection of custom entites is fine, except that each object in the collection does not contain any items in its child collection. (i.e. it doesn't get to "...do some more stuff..." above. Can someone please explain what I am doing wrong? Is it possible to serialize ArrayLists within a generic collection of custom entities?

  Read the article

• JMeter CSV Data Set is corrupting Japanese strings stored as proper UTF-8, I get Question Marks instead

  - by Mark Bennett

  I read in search terms from a simple text file to send to a search engine. It works fine in English, but gives me ???? for any Japanese text. Text with mixed English and Japanese does show the English text, so I know it's reading it. What I'm seeing: Input text: Snow Leopard ??????????????? Turns into: Snow Leopard ??????????????? This is in my POST field of an HTTP. If I set JMeter to encode the data, it just puts in the percent sequence for question marks. Interesting note: In the example above there are 15 Japanese characters, and then 15 question marks, so at some point it's being seen as full characters and not just bytes. About the Data: The CSV file is very simple in structure. There's only one field / one column, which I name TERM, and later use as ${TERM} I don't really need full CSV because it's only one string per line. There's no commas or quotes. When I run the Unix "file" command on the file, it says UTF-8 text. I've also verified it in command line and graphical mode on two machines. JMeter CSV Dataset Config: Filename: japanese-searches.csv File encoding: UTF-8 (also tried without) Variable names: TERM Delimiter: , Allow Quoted Data: False (I also tried True, different, but still wrong) Recycle at EOF: True Stop at EOF: False Staring mode: All threads A few things I've tried: Tried Allow quoted Data. It changed to other strange characters. -Dfile.encoding=UTF-8 Tried encoding the POST, but it just turned into a bunch of %nn for question marks And I'm not sure how "debug" just after the each line of the CSV is read in. I think it's corrupted right away, but I'm not sure. If it's only mangled when I reference it, then instead of ${TERM} perhaps there's some other "to bytes" function call. I'll start checking into that. I haven't done anything with the JMeter functions yet.

  Read the article

• Help needed to write input for .net web services

  - by MaheshBabu

  Hi folks, i am new to iphone web services. I need to get data from .net web server for that my soap message is NSString *xml = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo><PhoneNumber>919703661366</PhoneNumber></MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo>"]; NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<GenericAndroidMethod xmlns=\"Mortgage\">\n" "<methodName>MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo</methodName>" "<xmlParam>%@</xmlParam>" "</GenericAndroidMethod>\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n",xml ]; But i did n't get response. While i am checking in charles web debugging proxy it will show like this. But i need to pass <MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo><PhoneNumber>919703661366</PhoneNumber></MortgageGetLoanOfficerInfo> as a single string. How can i done this pls help me. Thank u in advance.

  Read the article

• Seeding many to many tables with Entity Framework

  - by Doozer1979

  I have a meeting entity and a users entity which have a many to many relationship. I'm using Autopoco to create seed data for the Users and meetings How do i seed the UserMeetings linking table that is created by EntityFramework with seed data? The linking table has two fields in it; User_Id, and Meeting_ID. I'm looping through the list of users that autopoco creates and attaching a random number of meetings Here's what i've got so far. foreach (var user in userList) { var rand = new Random(); var amountOfMeetingsToAdd = rand.Next(1, 300); for (var i = 0; i <= amountOfMeetingsToAdd; i++) { var randomMeeting = rand.Next(1, MeetingRecords); //Error occurs on This line user.Meetings.Add(_meetings[randomMeeting]); } } I got an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' even though the meeting record that i'm trying to attach does exist. For info all this is happening prior to me saving the context to the DB.

  Read the article

• Is there unreachable code in this snippet? I don't think so, but Resharper is telling me otherwise.

  - by The Matt

  I have the following method I came across in a code review. Inside the loop Resharper is telling me that if (narrativefound == false) is incorrect becuase narrativeFound is always true. I don't think this is the case, because in order to set narrativeFound to true it has to pass the conditional string compare first, so how can it always be true? Am I missing something? Is this a bug in Resharper or in our code? public Chassis GetChassisForElcomp(SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis asMaintained, SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis newChassis) { Chassis c = asMaintained; List<Narrative> newNarrativeList = new List<Narrative>(); foreach (Narrative newNarrative in newChassis.Narratives) { bool narrativefound = false; foreach (Narrative orig in asMaintained.Narratives) { if (string.Compare(orig.PCode, newNarrative.PCode) ==0 ) { narrativefound = true; if (newNarrative.NarrativeValue.Trim().Length != 0) { orig.NarrativeValue = newNarrative.NarrativeValue; newNarrativeList.Add(orig); } break; } if (narrativefound == false) { newNarrativeList.Add(newNarrative); } } } c.SalesCodes = newChassis.SalesCodes; c.Narratives = newNarrativeList; return c; }

  Read the article

• PHP Exceptions in Classes

  - by mike condiff

  I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Executing untrusted code

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

  Read the article

• javamail api isertion of main class help

  - by bobby

  import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import javax.mail.event.*; import javax.mail.Authenticator; import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.host","smtp.googlemail.com"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "995"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); javax.mail.Authenticator authenticator = new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected javax.mail.PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new javax.mail.PasswordAuthentication("[email protected]", "password"); } }; Session sess=Session.getDefaultInstance(props,authenticator); sess.setDebug (true); Transport transport =sess.getTransport ("smtp"); Message msg=new MimeMessage(sess); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.addRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.setSubject("Hello JavaMail"); msg.setText("Welcome to JavaMail"); transport.connect(); transport.send(msg); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("err"+e); } } } how to insert main class in above java code and how to pass arguments of "from" and "to"

  Read the article

• How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

  Read the article

• JavaScript (SVG drawing): Positioning x amount of points in an area

  - by Jack

  I'm using http://raphaeljs.com/ to try and draw multiple small circles. The problem I'm having is that the canvas has a fixed width, and if I want to draw, say, 1000 circles, they don't wrap onto a 'new line' (because you have to specify the xy position of each circle). E.g. I want this: .................................................. to look like this: ............................ ...................... At the moment I'm doing this: for ( var i = 0; i < 1000; i++ ) { var multiplier = i*3; if ( i <= 50 ) { paper.circle((2*multiplier),2,2); } else if ( i >= 51 && i <= 101 ) { paper.circle((2*multiplier) - 304,8,2); } else if ( i >= 152 && i <= 202 ) { paper.circle((2*multiplier) - 910,14,2); } } For reference: circle(x co-ord, y co-ord, radius) This is messy. I have to add an if statement for every new line I want. Must be a better way of doing it..?

  Read the article

• Sql Server Compact Edition version error.

  - by Tim

  I am working on .NET ClickOnce project that uses Sql Server 2005 Compact Edition to synchronize remote data through the use of a Merge replication. This application has been live for nearly a year now, and while we encounter occasional synchronization errors, things run quite smoothly for the most part. Yesterday a user reported an error that I have never seen before and have yet to find any information for online. Many users synchronize every night, and I haven't received error reports from anyone else, so this issue must be isolated to this particular user / client machine. Here are the full details of the error: -Error Code : 80004005 -Message : The message contains an unexpected replication operation code. The version of SQL Server Compact Edition Client Agent and SQL Server Compact Edition Server Agent should match. [ replication operation code = 31 ] -Minor Error : 28526 -Source : Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition -Numeric Parameters : 31 One interesting thing that I've found is that his data does get synchronized to the server, so this error must occur after the upload completes. I have yet to determine whether or not changes at the server are still being downloaded to his subscription. Thinking that maybe there was some kind of version conflict going on, I had a remote desktop session with this user last night and uninstalled both the application and the SQL Server Compact Edition prerequisite, then reinstalled both from our ClickOnce publication site. I also removed his existing local database file so that upon synchronization, an entirely new subscription would be issued to him. Still his errors continue. I suppose the error may be somewhat general, and the text in the error message stating that the versions should match may not necessarily reflect the problem at hand. This site contains the only official reference to this error that I've been able to find, and it offers no more detail than the error message itself. Has anyone else encountered this error? Or at least know more about SQL Compact to have a better guess as to what is going on here? Any help / suggestions will be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Ruby On Rails with HTML5 offline apps - Firefox does not cache the application.manifest but Safari does

  - by hoitomt

  I'm working off of this Railscast tutorial: episode 247 I’m up to this point in the tutorial: added the rack-offline gem, added the application.manifest route, and added a reference to the manifest in the html tag. Right before it starts talking about problems with caching. Safari works as intended – When the server is running the page is served. From the server logs I can see that Safari is making a single request to the server every time for the items page. When I turn off the server the page displays as well, even after shutting down the browser and restarting. It appears to be pulling from the application.manifest (cache manifest). Firefox does not work as intended – When accessing the page for the first time, Firefox lets me know that the web page wants to store something locally, I allow. After clicking on allow, Firefox makes 5 requests to the server for the page (from the server log). The hash is different in every request. Is it is possible that the changing hash is triggering Firefox to keep trying to get the new manifest until it reaches some maximum (5 attempts)? Then, after the server is stopped, Firefox will not show the page at all. It looks like it isn’t caching the application.manifest. Firefox also gives you a way to see what sites are storing stuff locally by going to Tools/Options/Advanced/Network (Firefox/Preferences/Advanced/Network on Apple). I see localhost there but the size is 0 bytes. So for some reason, Firefox is not downloading my application.manifest along with the files

  Read the article

• Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

  Read the article

• Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

  - by NXT

  Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

  Read the article

• MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

  - by Eric G

  I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Core Data confusion: fetch without tableview.

  - by Mr. McPepperNuts

  I have completed and reproduced Core Data tutorials using a tableview to display contents. However, I want to access an Entity through a fetch on a view without a tableview. I used the following fetch code, but the count returned is always 0. The data exists when the database is opened using SQLite tools. NSManagedObject *entryObj; XYZDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Quote" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"id" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); entryObj = nil; }else { NSLog(@"results %d", [results count]); } [request release]; [sortDescriptors release]; count returned is always 0; it should be 5. Can anyone point me to a reference or tutorial regarding creating a controller not to be used with a tableview.

  Read the article

• Initializing Detail View from nib with parameters passed from Root View

  - by culov

  I'm have a map view with a number of annotations on it... once the callout is clicked, i need to pass several parameters to the DetailViewController, so ive been trying to do this through the constructor. I've debugged a bit and discovered that the arguments are being passed properly and are being received as expected within the constructor, but for some reason whenever I try to change the values of the IBOutlets I've positioned in the nib, it never has an effect. Here's what im passing (btw, im getting a "No initWithNibName : bundle : header' method found" warning at this line): DetailViewController *dvc = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailViewController" bundle:nil header:headerText]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dvc animated:YES]; Now heres my constructor: - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil header:(UILabel*)headerLabel { if ((self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil])) { self.headerTextView = headerLabel; NSLog(@"header:%@", headerLabel.text); } return self; } Once again, the problem is that headerLabel.text is printed properly in the console, but the line self.headerTextView = headerLabel; doesnt seem to be doing what I want it to do. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to decrypt a string encrypted with HMACSHA1?

  - by Bob

  I'm an encryption novice trying to pass some values back and forth between systems. I can encrypt the value, but can't seem to figure out how to decrypt on the other end. I've created a simple Windows Forms application using VB.NET. Trying to input a value and a key, encrypt and then decrypt to get the original value. Here's my code so far. Any help greatly appreciated. Thanks. Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Security.Cryptography Imports System.Text Public Class Form1 Private Sub btnEncode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEncode.Click Dim hmacsha1 As New HMACSHA1(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtKey.Text)) Dim hashValue As Byte() = hmacsha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(txtValue.Text)) txtResult.Text = BytesToHexString(hashValue) hmacsha1.Clear() End Sub Private Sub btnDecode_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDecode.Click '??? End Sub Private Function BytesToHexString(ByVal bytes As Byte()) As String Dim output As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 Do While i < bytes.Length output += bytes(i).ToString("X2") i += 1 Loop Return output End Function End Class

  Read the article

• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

  Read the article

• Prolog singleton variables in Python

  - by Rubens

  I'm working on a little set of scripts in python, and I came to this: line = "a b c d e f g" a, b, c, d, e, f, g = line.split() I'm quite aware of the fact that these are decisions taken during implementation, but shouldn't (or does) python offer something like: _, _, var_needed, _, _, another_var_needed, _ = line.split() as well as Prolog does offer, in order to exclude the famous singleton variables. I'm not sure, but wouldn't it avoid unnecessary allocation? Or creating references to the result of the split call does not count up as overhead? EDIT: Sorry, my point here is: in Prolog, as far as I'm concerned, in an expression like: test(L, N) :- test(L, 0, N). test([], N, N). test([_|T], M, N) :- V is M + 1, test(T, V, N). The variable represented by _ is not accessible, for what I suppose the reference to the value that does exist in the list [_|T] is not even created. But, in Python, if I use _, I can use the last value assigned to _, and also, I do suppose the assignment occurs for each of the variables _ -- which may be considered an overhead. My question here is if shouldn't there be (or if there is) a syntax to avoid such unnecessary attributions.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710  | Next Page >