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  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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  • Image processing on bifurcation diagram to get small eps size

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hello, I'm producing bifurcation diagrams (which are normally used in nonlinear dynamics). These diagrams identify abrupt changes in topologies due to stability changes. These abrupt changes occur as one or more parameters pass through some critical value(s). An example is here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:LogisticMap_BifurcationDiagram.png On the above figure, some image processing has been done so as to make the plot more visually pleasant. A bifurcation diagram usually contains hundreds of thousands of points and the resulting eps file can become very big. Journal submission in the LaTeX format require that figures are to be submitted in the eps format. In my case one of such figures can result in about 6 MB in Matlab and even much more in Gnuplot. For the example in the above figure, 100,000 x values are calculated for each r and one can imagine that the resulting eps file would be huge. The site however explains some image processing that makes the plot more visually pleasing. Can anyone explain to me stepwise how go about? I can't understand the explanation provided in the "summary" section. Will the resulting image processing also reduce the figure size? Furthermore, any tips on reducing the file size of such a huge eps figure? Thanks a lot...

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  • Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

    - by Ken Downs
    EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

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  • Simple encryption - Sum of Hashes in C

    - by Dogbert
    I am attempting to demonstrate a simple proof of concept with respect to a vulnerability in a piece of code in a game written in C. Let's say that we want to validate a character login. The login is handled by the user choosing n items, (let's just assume n=5 for now) from a graphical menu. The items are all medieval themed: eg: _______________________________ | | | | | Bow | Sword | Staff | |-----------|-----------|-------| | Shield | Potion | Gold | |___________|___________|_______| The user must click on each item, then choose a number for each item. The validation algorithm then does the following: Determines which items were selected Drops each string to lowercase (ie: Bow becomes bow, etc) Calculates a simple string hash for each string (ie: `bow = b=2, o=15, w=23, sum = (2+15+23=40) Multiplies the hash by the value the user selected for the corresponding item; This new value is called the key Sums together the keys for each of the selected items; this is the final validation hash IMPORTANT: The validator will accept this hash, along with non-zero multiples of it (ie: if the final hash equals 1111, then 2222, 3333, 8888, etc are also valid). So, for example, let's say I select: Bow (1) Sword (2) Staff (10) Shield (1) Potion (6) The algorithm drops each of these strings to lowercase, calculates their string hashes, multiplies that hash by the number selected for each string, then sums these keys together. eg: Final_Validation_Hash = 1*HASH(Bow) + 2*HASH(Sword) + 10*HASH(Staff) + 1*HASH(Shield) + 6*HASH(Potion) By application of Euler's Method, I plan to demonstrate that these hashes are not unique, and want to devise a simple application to prove it. in my case, for 5 items, I would essentially be trying to calculate: (B)(y) = (A_1)(x_1) + (A_2)(x_2) + (A_3)(x_3) + (A_4)(x_4) + (A_5)(x_5) Where: B is arbitrary A_j are the selected coefficients/values for each string/category x_j are the hash values for each string/category y is the final validation hash (eg: 1111 above) B,y,A_j,x_j are all discrete-valued, positive, and non-zero (ie: natural numbers) Can someone either assist me in solving this problem or point me to a similar example (ie: code, worked out equations, etc)? I just need to solve the final step (ie: (B)(Y) = ...). Thank you all in advance.

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  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • What happens when value types are created?

    - by Bob
    I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

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  • Very slow guards in my monadic random implementation (haskell)

    - by danpriduha
    Hi! I was tried to write one random number generator implementation, based on number class. I also add there Monad and MonadPlus instance. What mean "MonadPlus" and why I add this instance? Because of I want to use guards like here: -- test.hs -- import RandomMonad import Control.Monad import System.Random x = Rand (randomR (1 ::Integer, 3)) ::Rand StdGen Integer y = do a <-x guard (a /=2) guard (a /=1) return a here comes RandomMonad.hs file contents: -- RandomMonad.hs -- module RandomMonad where import Control.Monad import System.Random import Data.List data RandomGen g => Rand g a = Rand (g ->(a,g)) | RandZero instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => Monad (Rand g) where return x = Rand (\g ->(x,g)) (RandZero)>>= _ = RandZero (Rand argTransformer)>>=(parametricRandom) = Rand funTransformer where funTransformer g | isZero x = funTransformer g1 | otherwise = (getRandom x g1,getGen x g1) where x = parametricRandom val (val,g1) = argTransformer g isZero RandZero = True isZero _ = False instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => MonadPlus (Rand g) where mzero = RandZero RandZero `mplus` x = x x `mplus` RandZero = x x `mplus` y = x getRandom :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g ->a getRandom (Rand f) g = (fst (f g)) getGen :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g -> g getGen (Rand f) g = snd (f g) when I run ghci interpreter, and give following command getRandom y (mkStdGen 2000000000) I can see memory overflow on my computer (1G). It's not expected, and if I delete one guard, it works very fast. Why in this case it works too slow? What I do wrong?

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  • UITableViewIndex Grows to Incorrect Bounds Unexpectedly

    - by chadburggraf
    I have a standard UITableView + UISearchDisplayController + UITableViewIndex setup. Everything works like a champ. Except, under very specific conditions, the index grows too long to display on the screen. Specifically, after ending a search and re-displaying the unfiltered, indexed table, the index sometimes grows too long. More specifically, this doesn't happen if I search then cancel. It only happens if I search, then push a view controller from the search table, then pop that view controller back to the still-searching table, then cancel the search, then re-search and then cancel that final search. After the end of the final search the index is too long. In portrait, the table view is reporting a height of 416 and the index a height of 404 under normal conditions. If I log from searchDisplayControllerDidEndSearch when the index is sized incorrectly, it is reporting a height of 620. I've tried everything from setLayout on the table and the index to manually re-sizing the frame. Nothing works (the manual re-size causes the correct height to be logged, but it doesn't change the display on screen). I was about to try re-sizing after a delay in case the cancel animation was interfering, but then I realized what an absurd situation I'm in and thought seeking help might be wise...

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  • How do I relocate assemblies from a deployment project without breaking application references?

    - by James
    Hi, I have recently refactored a lot of my applications existing code and I am now looking at tidying up the deployment side of things. The existing installer application installs everything in the application folder (with the exclusion of a couple of config files which are located in a sub folder). However, I have multiple applications which all use some common assemblies and my goal is to relocate a these particular assemblies to the "Common Files" folder in the program files directory. NB: I have read a lot about the GAC but I have no experience with it and also read a few horror stories, so trying to get a simple solution for the time being. I managed to get the assemblies installed into the Common Files folder, however, as a result (typical I.T.) I have broken my app! If I copy the assemblies back into the application folder it works fine so the problem is obviously to do with how my app is referencing the assemblies. To get the installer to install the assemblies into the Common Files folder I just updated the Folder property of each assembly in the Detected Dependencies list. My thoughts were when I did that the installer would somehow update my application to tell it to look in that folder for them but that doens't appear to be the case. What exactly am I doing wrong here?

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  • Assemble an image browser side with JavaScript or Flash?

    - by Kris Walker
    Would it be possible to assemble an image on the browser by 'concatenating' other downloaded images together? The use case is this. The page will display 36 different tiles (small images). The user should be able to arrange those tiles into a 6 x 6 grid and save the resulting grid to disk as an image. The best solution would be to do it all in the browser without Flash. The next best solution would be to allow the user to create the grid in the browser with simple JavaScript drag and drop functionality and then send the coordinates to the server for image processing. The last solution would be to do it all in the browser with Flash. Is it even possible for Flash to create an image and then allow the user to save it from the browser? I am familiar with the Pixastic JavaScript library ( http://www.pixastic.com/ ), but it relies on getting image data to and from a canvas element which is not very well supported. What if I send the tile images to the browser as base64 encoded strings? Could I use JavaScript to create the 6 x 6 grid image? And if so, is there some way of allowing the user to get it onto disk without relying on the canvas element?

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  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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  • Return value from Object match

    - by Hito_kun
    I'm, by no means, JS fluent, so forgive me if im asking for some really basic stuff, but I've not being able to find a proper answer to my question. Im writting my first Node.js (plus Extra Framework and Socket.io) app and Im having some fun setting up the server side of a FB-like messenger (surprise!!!). So, let's say I have this data structure to store online users(This is a JSON Array, but I'm not sure it is the best way to do it or should I go with Javascript Objects): [ { "site": 45, "users": [ { "idUser": 5, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "Carlos Ray Norris" }, { "idUser": 6, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "John Connor" } ] }, { "site": 48, "users": [ { "idUser": 22, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "David Bowie" }, { "idUser": 23, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "Barack H. Obama" } ] } ] What I want to do is to search in the array for x value given y. In this case, retrieving the idSocket knowing the idUser WITHOUT having to run through the array values. So I have basically 2 questions: first, what would be the proper way to store users online? and secondly, how to find values matching with the values I already know (find the idSocket that has a given idUser). I would like a pure JS approach(or using some of the tools given by Node, Socket.io or Express), but if that's not possible then I can look for some JQuery.

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  • x509 certificate verification in C

    - by sid
    Hi All, I do have certificates in DER and PEM format, My goal is to retrieve the fields of Issuer and Subject And verify the Certificate with the CA public key and simultaneously verify CA certificate with the Root public key. I am able to retrieve all the details of issuer and subject But unable to verify the certificate. Please help. The API's used, x509 = d2i_X509_fp (fp, &x509); //READING DER Format x509 = PEM_read_X509 (fp, &x509, NULL, NULL); //READING PEM Format X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_subject_name(x509), subject, sizeof (subject)); //to retrive the Subject X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_issuer_name(x509), issuer, sizeof (issuer)); //to retrive the Issuer // to store the CA public key (in unsigned char *key)that will be used to verify the certificate (My case Always sha1WithRSAEncryption) RSA *x = X509_get_pubkey(x509)->pkey.rsa; bn = x->n; //extracts the bytes from public key & convert into unsigned char buffer buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); stored_CA_pubKey = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); i_n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey); if (i_n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); stored_CA_pubKeyLen = EVP_PKEY_size(X509_get_pubkey(x509)); For Verification I went through different approaches but unable to verify a) i_x509_verify = X509_verify(cert_x509, ca_pubkey); b) /* verify the signature */ int iRet1, iRet2, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, cert_code, cert_code_len); rv = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey, stored_CA_pubKeyLen, cert_pubkey); NOTE : cert_code & stored_CA_pubKey is unsigned char buffer. Thanks in Advance

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  • Adroid's DateFormat replacement - missing the format() with FieldPosition

    - by user331244
    Hi, I need to split a date string into pieces and I'm doing it using the public final StringBuffer format (Object object, StringBuffer buffer, FieldPosition field) from the java.text.DateFormat class. However, the implementation of this function is really slow, hence Android has an own implementation in android.text.format.DateFormat. BUT, in my case, I want to extract the different pieces of the date string (year, minute and so on). Since I need to be locale independent, I can not use SimpleDateFormat and custom strings. I do it as follows: Calendar c = ... // find out what field to extract int field = getField(); // Create a date string Field calendarField = DateFormat.Field.ofCalendarField(field); FieldPosition fieldPosition = new FieldPosition(calendarField); StringBuffer label = new StringBuffer(); label = getDateFormat().format(c.getTime(), label, fieldPosition); // Find the piece that we are looking for int beginIndex = fieldPosition.getBeginIndex(); int endIndex = fieldPosition.getEndIndex(); String asString = label.substring(beginIndex, endIndex); For some reason, the format() overload with the FieldPosition argument is not included in the android platform. Any ideas of how to do this in another way? Is there any easy way to tokenize the pattern string? Any other ideas?

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  • Binding a null variable in a PreparedStatement

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I swear this used to work, but it's not in this case. I'm trying to match col1, col2 and col3, even if one or more of them is null. I know that in some languages I've had to resort to circumlocutions like ((? is null AND col1 is null) OR col1 = ?). Is that required here? PreparedStatement selStmt = getConn().prepareStatement( "SELECT * " + "FROM tbl1 " + "WHERE col1 = ? AND col2 = ? and col3 = ?"); try { int col = 1; setInt(selStmt, col++, col1); setInt(selStmt, col++, col2); setInt(selStmt, col++, col3); ResultSet rs = selStmt.executeQuery(); try { while (rs.next()) { // process row } } finally { rs.close(); } } finally { selStmt.close(); } // Does the equivalient of stmt.setInt(col, i) but preserves nullness. protected static void setInt(PreparedStatement stmt, int col, Integer i) throws SQLException { if (i == null) stmt.setNull(col, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); else stmt.setInt(col, i); }

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  • Jquery Cycle in Drupal - onAfter effect not working.

    - by jdln
    Im using the views slideshow module for drupal which uses the jquery cycle plugin. Here is my first simple slideshow where everything works properly: smartpeopletalkfast.co.uk/slideshow3/one Here is my 2nd slideshow: smartpeopletalkfast.co.uk/slideshow3/two Im trying to use the onAfter function. I want the next and previous buttons to be hidden when at the end of their cycle. This is demonstrated here: jquery.malsup.com/cycle/after.html The first slideshow that's working has these controls: prev: #prev1, next: #next1 The 2nd slideshow has these: prev: #prev1, next: #next1, end: onAfterr, timeout: 0 And Ive added this to the beginning of my document head. <script type="text/javascript"> function onAfterr(curr, next, opts) { var index = opts.currSlide; $('#prev1')[index == 0 ? 'hide' : 'show'](); $('#next1')[index == opts.slideCount - 1 ? 'hide' : 'show'](); } </script> I changed onAfter to onAfterr in case of a conflict. Nothing ive tried works and ive no idea why! Thanks

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  • Algorithm for count-down timer that can add on time

    - by Person
    I'm making a general timer that has functionality to count up from 0 or count down from a certain number. I also want it to allow the user to add and subtract time. Everything is simple to implement except for the case in which the timer is counting down from some number, and the user adds or subtracts time from it. For example: (m_clock is an instance of SFML's Clock) float Timer::GetElapsedTime() { if ( m_forward ) { m_elapsedTime += m_clock.GetElapsedTime() - m_elapsedTime; } else { m_elapsedTime -= m_elapsedTime - m_startingTime + m_clock.GetElapsedTime(); } return m_elapsedTime; } To be a bit more clear, imagine that the timer starts at 100 counting down. After 10 seconds, the above function would look like 100 -= 100 - 100 + 10 which equals 90. If it was called after 20 more seconds it would look like 90 -= 90 - 100 + 30 which equals 70. This works for normal counting, but if the user calls AddTime() ( just m_elapsedTime += arg ) then the algorithm for backwards counting fails miserably. I know that I can do this using more members and keeping track of previous times, etc. but I'm wondering whether I'm missing some implementation that is extremely obvious. I'd prefer to keep it as simple as possible in that single operation.

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  • How to get application context path in spring-ws?

    - by Dhaliwal
    I am using Spring-WS to create a webservice. In my project, I have created a Helper class to reads sample response and request xml file which are located in my /src/main/resource folder. When I am unit-testing my webservice application 'locally', I use the System.getProperty("user.dir") to get the application context folder. The following is a method that I created in the Helper class to help me retrieve the file that I am interested in my resource folder. public static File getFileFromResources(String filename) { System.out.println("Getting file from resource folder"); File request = null; String curDir = System.getProperty("user.dir"); String contextpath = "C:\\src\\main\\resources\\"; request = new File(curDir + contextpath + filename); return request; } However, after 'publishing' the compiled WAR file to the ../webapps folder to the Apache Tomcat directory, I realise that System.getProperty("user.dir") no longer returns my application context path. Instead, it is returning the Apache Tomcat root directory as shown C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\src\main\resources\SampleClientFile I cant seem to find any information about getting the root folder of my webservice. I have seen examples on Spring web application where I can retrieve the context path by using the following : request.getSession().getServletContext().getContextPath() But in this case, I am using a Spring web application where there is a servlet context in the request. But the Spring-WS, my entry point is an endpoint. How can I get the context path of my webservice application. I am expecting a context path of something like C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\clientWebService\WEB-INF\classes Could someone suggest a way to achieve this?

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  • Odd 'UNION' behavior in an Oracle SQL query

    - by RenderIn
    Here's my query: SELECT my_view.* FROM my_view WHERE my_view.trial in (select 2 as trial_id from dual union select 3 from dual union select 4 from dual) and my_view.location like ('123-%') When I execute this query it returns results which do not conform to the my_view.location like ('123-%') condition. It's as if that condition is being ignored completely. I can even change it to my_view.location IS NULL and it returns the same results, despite that field being not-nullable. I know this query seems ridiculous with the selects from dual, but I've structured it this way to replicate a problem I have when I use a 'WITH' clause (the results of that query are where the selects from dual inline view are). I can modify the query like so and it returns the expected results: SELECT my_view.* FROM my_view WHERE my_view.trial in (2, 3, 4) and my_view.location like ('123-%') Unfortunately I do not know the trial values up front (they are queried for in a 'WITH' clause) so I cannot structure my query this way. What am I doing wrong? I will say that the my_view view is composed of 3 other views whose results are UNION ALL and each of which retrieve some data over a DB Link. Not that I believe that should matter, but in case it does.

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  • Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

    - by Len
    I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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  • Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

    - by Nikhil
    Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

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  • How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

    - by thecoshman
    I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

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  • Can I connect to SQL from JavaScript MVC?

    - by user54197
    I am populating a list of names that will be added to my Sql Database. In this simple case, how do I send the information to SQL server without my page being refreshed? <script type="text/javascript"> function addNewRow() { $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last').after('<tr><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td></tr>'); var $tr = $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last'); var propertyCondition = $('#txtPropAddress').val(); if (propertyCondition != "") { $tr.find('.name').text($('#txtPropName').val()); $tr.find('.address').text($('#txtPropAddress').val()); } } </script> ... <table id="displayPropertyTable" width= "100%"> <tr> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td> </tr> </table> ... <table> <tr> <td><b>Name</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropName" type="text" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><b>Address</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropAddress" type="text" /></td> </tr> </table> ... <button onclick="addNewRow();">Add</button>

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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