Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 731/906 | < Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >

  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

    Read the article

  • UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

    - by Dmitry
    I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

    Read the article

  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

    Read the article

  • Assign sage variable values into R objects via sagetex and Sweave

    - by sheed03
    I am writing a short Sweave document that outputs into a Beamer presentation, in which I am using the sagetex package to solve an equation for two parameters in the beta binomial distribution, and I need to assign the parameter values into the R session so I can do additional processing on those values. The following code excerpt shows how I am interacting with sage: <<echo=false,results=hide>>= mean.raw <- c(5, 3.5, 2) theta <- 0.5 var.raw <- mean.raw + ((mean.raw^2)/theta) @ \begin{frame}[fragile] \frametitle{Test of Sage 2} \begin{sagesilent} var('a1, b1, a2, b2, a3, b3') eqn1 = [1000*a1/(a1+b1)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[1]}, ((1000*a1*b1)*(1000+a1+b1))/((a1+b1)^2*(a1+b1+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[1]}] eqn2 = [1000*a2/(a2+b2)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[2]}, ((1000*a2*b2)*(1000+a2+b2))/((a2+b2)^2*(a2+b2+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[2]}] eqn3 = [1000*a3/(a3+b3)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[3]}, ((1000*a3*b3)*(1000+a3+b3))/((a3+b3)^2*(a3+b3+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[3]}] s1 = solve(eqn1, a1,b1) s2 = solve(eqn2, a2,b2) s3 = solve(eqn3, a3,b3) \end{sagesilent} Solutions of Beta Binomial Parameters: \begin{itemize} \item $\sage{s1[0]}$ \item $\sage{s2[0]}$ \item $\sage{s3[0]}$ \end{itemize} \end{frame} Everything compiles just fine, and in that slide I am able to see the solutions to the three equations respective parameters in that itemized list (for example the first item in the itemized list from that beamer slide is outputted as [a1=(328/667), b1=(65272/667)] (I am not able to post an image of the beamer slide but I hope you get the idea). I would like to save the parameter values a1,b1,a2,b2,a3,b3 into R objects so that I can use them in simulations. I cannot find any documentation in the sagetex package on how to save output from sage commands into variables for use with other programs (in this case R). Any suggestions on how to get these values into R?

    Read the article

  • Making a jQuery plugin to feed Tumblr to site

    - by tylorreimer
    I have some experience with PHP and a little with JS but I'm far from anything proficient. I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin for my site that I can call in my HTML via something like this: $('.new').tumble({username: "tylor", count: 9}); Which would basically put the Tumblr list the code should make into the DIV with class 'new' in this case. Here is my code so far; the problem seems to be how to get it to pick up class/id from the original call (in the HTML) and use that in the jQuery. Here's the code so far: (function($) { $.fn.tumble = function(options){ var settings = $.extend({ username: null, // [string or array] required to get url for tumblr account count: 3, // [integer] how many posts to display? }, options); //url construction var url = "http://" + settings.username + ".tumblr.com"; var jsonurl = url + "/api/read/json?num=" + settings.count + "&callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonurl, function(data) { var items = []; $.each(data.posts, function(id, url) { // Goes over each post in the JSON document retrieved from data URL var url = this.url; // Just assigns a variable to the url to avoid constantly writing "this.whatever" var photourl = this['photo-url-250']; // photo-url-xxx needs to be called this way due to integers in the name items.push('<li><a href="' + url + '">' + photourl + '</a></li>'); }); $('<ul/>', { // Creates an empty list html: items.join('') // Takes the values in the item array and puts 'em together }).appendTo('.new'); // I don't want this to have the class set in the jQuery itself }); //end json }; })( jQuery ); Any help you can lend would be wonderful. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Ruby: Why is Array.sort slow for large objects?

    - by David Waller
    A colleague needed to sort an array of ActiveRecord objects in a Rails app. He tried the obvious Array.sort! but it seemed surprisingly slow, taking 32s for an array of 3700 objects. So just in case it was these big fat objects slowing things down, he reimplemented the sort by sorting an array of small objects, then reordering the original array of ActiveRecord objects to match - as shown in the code below. Tada! The sort now takes 700ms. That really surprised me. Does Ruby's sort method end up copying objects about the place rather than just references? He's using Ruby 1.8.6/7. def self.sort_events(events) event_sorters = Array.new(events.length) {|i| EventSorter.new(i, events[i])} event_sorters.sort! event_sorters.collect {|es| events[es.index]} end private # Class used by sort_events class EventSorter attr_reader :sqn attr_reader :time attr_reader :index def initialize(index, event) @index = index @sqn = event.sqn @time = event.time end def <=>(b) @time != b.time ? @time <=> b.time : @sqn <=> b.sqn end end

    Read the article

  • PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

    Read the article

  • When and why can sprintf fail?

    - by Srekel
    I'm using swprintf to build a string into a buffer (using a loop among other things). const int MaxStringLengthPerCharacter = 10 + 1; wchar_t* pTmp = pBuffer; for ( size_t i = 0; i < nNumPlayers ; ++i) { const int nPlayerId = GetPlayer(i); const int nWritten = swprintf(pTmp, MaxStringLengthPerCharacter, TEXT("%d,"), nPlayerId); assert(nWritten >= 0 ); pTmp += nWritten; } *pTaskPlayers = '\0'; If during testing the assert never hits, can I be sure that it will never hit in live code? That is, do I need to check if nWritten < 0 and handle that, or can I safely assume that there won't be a problem? Under which circumstances can it return -1? The documentation more or less just states "If the function fails". In one place I've read that it will fail if it can't match the arguments (i.e. the formatting string to the varargs) but that doesn't worry me. I'm also not worried about buffer overrun in this case - I know the buffer is big enough.

    Read the article

  • How to "reduce" a hash?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

    Read the article

  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

    Read the article

  • resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

    - by jml
    Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

    Read the article

  • Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

    - by Justin C
    Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

    Read the article

  • How do I relocate assemblies from a deployment project without breaking application references?

    - by James
    Hi, I have recently refactored a lot of my applications existing code and I am now looking at tidying up the deployment side of things. The existing installer application installs everything in the application folder (with the exclusion of a couple of config files which are located in a sub folder). However, I have multiple applications which all use some common assemblies and my goal is to relocate a these particular assemblies to the "Common Files" folder in the program files directory. NB: I have read a lot about the GAC but I have no experience with it and also read a few horror stories, so trying to get a simple solution for the time being. I managed to get the assemblies installed into the Common Files folder, however, as a result (typical I.T.) I have broken my app! If I copy the assemblies back into the application folder it works fine so the problem is obviously to do with how my app is referencing the assemblies. To get the installer to install the assemblies into the Common Files folder I just updated the Folder property of each assembly in the Detected Dependencies list. My thoughts were when I did that the installer would somehow update my application to tell it to look in that folder for them but that doens't appear to be the case. What exactly am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Grails g:paginate tag and custom URL

    - by aboxy
    Hello, I am trying to use g:paginate in a shared template where depending on the controller, url changes e.g. For my homepage url should be : mydomain[DOT]com/news/recent/(1..n) For search Page: www[DOT]mydomain[DOT]com/search/query/"ipad apps"/filter/this month and my g:paginate looks like this: g:paginate controller=${customeController} action=${customAction} total:${total} For the first case, I was able to provide controller as 'news' and action as 'recent' and mapped url /news/recent/$offset to my controller. But for the search page, I am not able to achieve what I want to do. I have a URL mapping defined as /search/$filter**(controller:"search",action:"fetch") $filter can be /query/"ipad apps"/filter/thismonth/filter/something/filter/somethingelse. I want to be able to show the url as above rather than ?query="ipad apps"&filter=thismonth&filter=something&filter=somethingelse. I believe I can pass all the parameters in params attribute of g:paginate but that will not give me pretty URL. What would be the best way to achieve this? Please feel free to ask questions If i missed anything.Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to extract part of the path and the ending file name with Regex?

    - by brasofilo
    I need to build an associative array with the plugin name and the language file it uses in the following sequence: /whatever/path/length/public_html/wp-content/plugins/adminimize/languages/adminimize-en_US.mo /whatever/path/length/public_html/wp-content/plugins/audio-tube/lang/atp-en_US.mo /whatever/path/length/public_html/wp-content/languages/en_US.mo /whatever/path/length/public_html/wp-content/themes/twentyeleven/languages/en_US.mo Those are the language files WordPress is loading. They are all inside /wp-content/, but with variable server paths. I'm looking only for those inside the plugins folder, grab the plugin folder name and the filename. Hipothetical case in PHP, where reg_extract_* functions are the parts I'm missing: $plugins = array(); foreach( $big_array as $item ) { $folder = reg_extract_folder( $item ); if( 'plugin' == $folder ) { // "folder-name-after-plugins-folder" $plugin_name = reg_extract_pname( $item ); // "ending-mo-file.mo" $file_name = reg_extract_fname( $item ); $plugins[] = array( 'name' => $plugin_name, 'file' => $file_name ); } } [update] Ok, so I was missing quite a basic function, pathinfo... :/ No problem to detect if /plugins/ is contained in the array. But what about the plugin folder name?

    Read the article

  • Graphical glitches when adding cells and scrolling with UITableView

    - by Daniel I-S
    I am using a UITableView to display the results of a series of calculations. When the user hits 'calculate', I wish to add the latest result to the screen. This is done by adding a new cell to a 'results' section. The UITableViewCell object is added to an array, and then I use the following code to add this new row to what is displayed on the screen: [thisView beginUpdates]; [thisView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newIndexPath] withRowAnimation: UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [thisView endUpdates]; This results in the new cell being displayed. However, I then want to immediately scroll the screen down so that the new cell is the lowermost cell on-screen. I use the following code: [thisView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:newIndexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionBottom animated:YES]; This almost works great. However, the first time a cell is added and scrolled to, it appears onscreen only briefly before vanishing. The view scrolls down to the correct place, but the cell is not there. Scrolling the view by hand until this invisible new cell's position is offscreen, then back again, causes the cell to appear - after which it behaves normally. This only happens the first time a cell is added; subsequent cells don't have this problem. It also happens regardless of the combination of scrollToRowAtIndexPath and insertRowsAtIndexPath animation settings. There is also a problem where, if new cells are added repeatedly and quickly, the new cells stop 'connecting up'. The lowermost cell in a group is supposed to have rounded corners, and when a new cell is added these turn into square corners so that there is a clean join with the next cell in the group. In this case, however, a cell often does not lose its rounded edges despite not being the last cell anymore. This also gets corrected once the affected area moves offscreen and back. This method of adding and scrolling would be perfect for my application if it weren't for these weird glitches. Any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Syntactical analysis with Flex/Bison part 2

    - by Imran
    Hallo, I need help in Lex/Yacc Programming. I wrote a compiler for a syntactical analysis for inputs of many statements. Now i have a special problem. In case of an Input the compiler gives the right output, which statement is uses, constant operator or a jmp instructor to which label, now i have to write so, if now a if statement comes, first the first command (before the else) must be give out when the assignment of the if is yes then it must jump to the end because the command after the else isnt needed, so after this jmp then the second command must be give out. I show it in an example maybe you understand what i mean. Input adr. Output if(x==0) 10 if(x==0) Wait 5 20 WAIT 5 else 30 JMP 50 Wait 1 40 WAIT 1 end 50 END like so. I have an idea, maybe i can do it whith a special if statement like IF exp jmp_stmt_end stmt_seq END when the if statement is given in the input the compiler has to recognize the end ofthe statement and like my jmp_stmt in my compiler ( you have to download the files from http://bitbucket.org/matrix/changed-tiny) only to jump to the end. I hope you understand my problem.thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

    Read the article

  • [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

    - by pbean
    I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

    Read the article

  • Ternary operator

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

    Read the article

  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

    Read the article

  • Trying to fadein divs in a sequence, over time, using JQuery

    - by user346602
    Hi, I'm trying to figure out how to make 4 images fade in sequentially when the page loads. The following is my (amateurish) code: Here is the HTML: <div id="outercorners"> <img id="corner1" src="images/corner1.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner2" src="images/corner2.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner3" src="images/corner3.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner4" src="images/corner4.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> </div><!-- end #outercorners--> Here is the JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $("#corner1").fadeIn("2000", function(){ $("#corner3").fadeIn("4000", function(){ $("#corner2").fadeIn("6000", function(){ $("#corner4").fadeIn("8000", function(){ }); }); }); }); Here is the css: #outercorners { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; width:558px; height:372px; } #corner1 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; display: none; } #corner2 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner3 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner4 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:186px; display: none; } They seem to just wink at me, rather than fade in in the order I've ascribed to them. Should I be using the queue() function? And, if so, how would I implement it in this case? Thank you for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >