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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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  • How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

    - by Vivek
    lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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  • Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

    - by Jason Evans
    I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

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  • Calculating moving average/stdev in SAS?

    - by John
    Hye guys, I included a screenshot to help clarify my problem: http://i40.tinypic.com/mcrnmv.jpg. I'm trying to calculate some kind of moving average and moving standard deviation. The thing is I want to calculate the coefficients of variation (stdev/avg) for the actual value. Normally this is done by calculating the stdev and avg for the past 5 years. However sometimes there will be observations in my database for which I do not have the information of the past 5 years (maybe only 3, 2 etc). That's why i want a code that will calculate the avg and stdev even if there is no information for the whole 5 years. Also, as you see in the observations, sometimes I have information over more than 5 years, when this is the case I need some kind of moving average which allows me to calculate the avg and stdev for the past 5 year. So if a company has information for 7 years I need some kind of code that will calculate the avg and stdev for, lets say, 1997 (by 1991-1996), 1998 (by 1992-1997) and 1999 (1993-1998). As i'm not very familiar with sas commands it should look (very very roughly) like: set var if year = i then stdev=stdev(year(i-6) untill year(i-1)) and average = avg(year(i-6) untill year(i-1)) Or something like this, I really have no clue, I'm gonna try and figure it out but it's worth posting it if I won't find it myself. Thanks!

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  • Bootstrap - Typehead on multiple inputs

    - by Clem
    I have two text intputs, both have to run an autocompletion. The site is using Bootstrap, and the « typeahead » component. I have this HTML : <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="artist" /> <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="location" /> I'm using the « data-role » attribute (that is sent to the Ajax controller as a $_POST index), in order to determine what kind of data has to be retrieved from the database. The Javascript goes this way : var myTypeahead = $('input.js_typeahead').typeahead({ source: function(query, process){ var data_role; data_role = myTypeahead.attr('data-role'); return $.post('/ajax/typeahead', { query:query,data_role:data_role },function(data){ return process(data.options); }); } }); With PHP, I check what $_POST['data-role'] contains, an run the MySQL query (in this case, a query either on a list of Artists, or a list of Locations). But the problem is the second "typeahead" returns the same values than the first one (list of Artists). I assume it's because the listener is attached to the object « myTypeahead », and this way the "data-role" attribute which is used, will always be the same. I think I could fix it by using something like : data_role = $(this).attr('data-role'); But of course this doesn't work, as it's a different scope. Maybe I'm doing it all wrong, but at least maybe you people could give me a hint. Sorry if this has already been discussed, I actually searched but without success. Thanks in advance, Clem (from France, sorry for my english)

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  • event listener says NetStream.Play.Start but I see no video

    - by Curtis
    I'm trying to test out the Adobe Media Server, and I'm following some tutorials in order to stream a video. I have a NetConnection which successfully connects to the application on the server, then I have the code below. It looks like it's supposed to play a video, but it doesn't. It creates the video object as a black square in the top left corner, and the event.info.code says NetStream.Play.Start, but I don't see the video playing. case "NetConnection.Connect.Success": var v:Video = new Video(); v.width=200; v.height=200; v.x=0; v.y=0; v.visible=true; v.opaqueBackground=false; stage.addChild(v); var ns:NetStream = new NetStream(nc); ns.addEventListener(NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS,netStatusHandler); v.attachNetStream(ns); ns.play("mp4:polymorphics.f4v"); I can also try ns.play("rtmp://localhost/vod/mp4:tests/polymorphics.f4v"); but that gives me a Stream Not Found error The lines that begin with "ns" means that they're generated by my NetStream listener, as opposed to my NetConnection listener. Connecting... connected is: true event.info.level: status event.info.code: NetConnection.Connect.Success onReply recieved value: Hello, World! ns connected is: true ns event.info.level: status ns event.info.code: NetStream.Play.Reset ns connected is: true ns event.info.level: status ns event.info.code: NetStream.Play.Start

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • Alignment in assembly

    - by jena
    Hi, I'm spending some time on assembly programming (Gas, in particular) and recently I learned about the align directive. I think I've understood the very basics, but I would like to gain a deeper understanding of its nature and when to use alignment. For instance, I wondered about the assembly code of a simple C++ switch statement. I know that under certain circumstances switch statements are based on jump tables, as in the following few lines of code: .section .rodata .align 4 .align 4 .L8: .long .L2 .long .L3 .long .L4 .long .L5 ... .align 4 aligns the following data on the next 4-byte boundary which ensures that fetching these memory locations is efficient, right? I think this is done because there might be things happening before the switch statement which caused misalignment. But why are there actually two calls to .align? Are there any rules of thumb when to call .align or should it simply be done whenever a new block of data is stored in memory and something prior to this could have caused misalignment? In case of arrays, it seems that alignment is done on 32-byte boundaries as soon as the array occupies at least 32 byte. Is it more efficient to do it this way or is there another reason for the 32-byte boundary? I'd appreciate any explanation or hint on literature.

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  • Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

    - by Grace K
    Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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  • Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

    - by alex
    I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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  • charsets in MySQL replication

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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  • How to inherit the current path when invoking Maven's exec-maven-plugin?

    - by wishihadabettername
    I have an <exec-maven-plugin> which calls an external command (in this case, svnversion). The command is in the path for the current user. However, when a separate shell is spawned by the plugin, the path is not initialized. I don't want to hardcode or define a variable for each external command (there would be too much to maintain, especially that there are both Windows and *nix users). My pom.xml contains the following: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <id>svnversion-exec</id> <phase>process-resources</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svnversion</executable> <arguments> <argument><![CDATA[ >version.txt ]]></argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Currently I get the following output: [INFO] [exec:exec {execution: svnversion-exec}] 'svnversion' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. [ERROR] BUILD ERROR: Result of cmd.exe /X /C "svnversion >version.txt" execution is: '1'. Thank you!

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  • .NET Regex - Replace multiple characters at once without overwriting?

    - by Everaldo Aguiar
    I'm implementing a c# program that should automatize a Mono-alphabetic substitution cipher. The functionality i'm working on at the moment is the simplest one: The user will provide a plain text and a cipher alphabet, for example: Plain text(input): THIS IS A TEST Cipher alphabet: A - Y, H - Z, I - K, S - L, E - J, T - Q Cipher Text(output): QZKL KL QJLQ I thought of using regular expressions since I've been programming in perl for a while, but I'm encountering some problems on c#. First I would like to know if someone would have a suggestion for a regular expression that would replace all occurrence of each letter by its corresponding cipher letter (provided by user) at once and without overwriting anything. Example: In this case, user provides plaintext "TEST", and on his cipher alphabet, he wishes to have all his T's replaced with E's, E's replaced with Y and S replaced with J. My first thought was to substitute each occurrence of a letter with an individual character and then replace that character by the cipherletter corresponding to the plaintext letter provided. Using the same example word "TEST", the steps taken by the program to provide an answer would be: 1 - replace T's with (lets say) @ 2 - replace E's with # 3 - replace S's with & 4 - Replace @ with E, # with Y, & with j 5 - Output = EYJE This solution doesn't seem to work for large texts. I would like to know if anyone can think of a single regular expression that would allow me to replace each letter in a given text by its corresponding letter in a 26-letter cipher alphabet without the need of splitting the task in an intermediate step as I mentioned. If it helps visualize the process, this is a print screen of my GUI for the program:

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  • Grails g:paginate tag and custom URL

    - by aboxy
    Hello, I am trying to use g:paginate in a shared template where depending on the controller, url changes e.g. For my homepage url should be : mydomain[DOT]com/news/recent/(1..n) For search Page: www[DOT]mydomain[DOT]com/search/query/"ipad apps"/filter/this month and my g:paginate looks like this: g:paginate controller=${customeController} action=${customAction} total:${total} For the first case, I was able to provide controller as 'news' and action as 'recent' and mapped url /news/recent/$offset to my controller. But for the search page, I am not able to achieve what I want to do. I have a URL mapping defined as /search/$filter**(controller:"search",action:"fetch") $filter can be /query/"ipad apps"/filter/thismonth/filter/something/filter/somethingelse. I want to be able to show the url as above rather than ?query="ipad apps"&filter=thismonth&filter=something&filter=somethingelse. I believe I can pass all the parameters in params attribute of g:paginate but that will not give me pretty URL. What would be the best way to achieve this? Please feel free to ask questions If i missed anything.Thanks in advance.

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  • IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

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  • Hibernate saveorUpdate method problem

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi all, i am trying to work on with Hibernate (Database side for first time) and some how struck in choosing best possible way to use saveOrUpdate or Save.Update i have a destination POJO class and its other attributes which needs to be updated along with the Destination entity. i am getting an XML file to be imported and i am using the following code to update/save the destination entity along with its attribute classes. try{ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().commit(); } catch(Exception e){ getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession().getTransaction().rollback(); } finally{ getSessionFactory().close(); } everything is working fine untill i am using the same session instance.but later on when i am using the same XML file to update the destination PO for certain attributes it giving me the following error. SEVERE: Duplicate entry 'MNLI' for key 'DESTINATIONID' 9 Jan, 2011 4:58:11 PM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:94) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:275) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:114) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:109) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.prepareBatchStatement(AbstractBatcher.java:244) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2242) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) i am using UUID as primary key for the Destination table and in destination table i have a destination id which is unique.but i can understand that in the secodn case hibernate is not able to find if there is already an entry for the same destination in the DB and trying to execute insert statement rather than update. one possible solution is i can user destinationid to check if there is already a destination inplace with the given id and based on the results i can issue save or update command. my question is can this be achieve by any other good way..? Thanks in advance

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Ruby: Why is Array.sort slow for large objects?

    - by David Waller
    A colleague needed to sort an array of ActiveRecord objects in a Rails app. He tried the obvious Array.sort! but it seemed surprisingly slow, taking 32s for an array of 3700 objects. So just in case it was these big fat objects slowing things down, he reimplemented the sort by sorting an array of small objects, then reordering the original array of ActiveRecord objects to match - as shown in the code below. Tada! The sort now takes 700ms. That really surprised me. Does Ruby's sort method end up copying objects about the place rather than just references? He's using Ruby 1.8.6/7. def self.sort_events(events) event_sorters = Array.new(events.length) {|i| EventSorter.new(i, events[i])} event_sorters.sort! event_sorters.collect {|es| events[es.index]} end private # Class used by sort_events class EventSorter attr_reader :sqn attr_reader :time attr_reader :index def initialize(index, event) @index = index @sqn = event.sqn @time = event.time end def <=>(b) @time != b.time ? @time <=> b.time : @sqn <=> b.sqn end end

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  • Will Learning C++ Help for Building Fast/No-Additional-Requirements Desktop Applications?

    - by vito
    Will learning C++ help me build native applications with good speed? Will it help me as a programmer, and what are the other benefits? The reason why I want to learn C++ is because I'm disappointed with the UI performances of applications built on top of JVM and .NET. They feel slow, and start slow too. Of course, a really bad programmer can create a slower and sluggish application using C++ too, but I'm not considering that case. One of my favorite Windows utility application is Launchy. And in the Readme.pdf file, the author of the program wrote this: 0.6 This is the first C++ release. As I became frustrated with C#’s large .NET framework requirements and users lack of desire to install it, I decided to switch back to the faster language. I totally agree with the author of Launchy about the .NET framework requirement or even a JRE requirement for desktop applications. Let alone the specific version of them. And some of the best and my favorite desktop applications don't need .NET or Java to run. They just run after installing. Are they mostly built using C++? Is C++ the only option for good and fast GUI based applications? And, I'm also very interested in hearing the other benefits of learning C++.

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  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

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  • Is it possible that we override global variables?

    - by Ram Moj
    I have this function: function example(y) global TICTOC; tic TICTOC=5; toc end and I expect TICTOC=5 change the result of toc, since TICTOC is a global variable in tic and toc functions; but this is not the case; Does anyone know the reason? I like to know the answer, because I 'm worried to declare a global variable, which it's name has been declared global in some other functions, I'm not aware of. I saw this function in matlab 2008b help function tic % TIC Start a stopwatch timer. % TIC; any stuff; TOC % prints the time required. % See also: TOC, CLOCK. global TICTOC TICTOC = clock; function t = toc % TOC Read the stopwatch timer. % TOC prints the elapsed time since TIC was used. % t = TOC; saves elapsed time in t, does not print. % See also: TIC, ETIME. global TICTOC if nargout < 1 elapsed_time = etime(clock, TICTOC) else t = etime(clock, TICTOC); end thanks.

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  • Assign sage variable values into R objects via sagetex and Sweave

    - by sheed03
    I am writing a short Sweave document that outputs into a Beamer presentation, in which I am using the sagetex package to solve an equation for two parameters in the beta binomial distribution, and I need to assign the parameter values into the R session so I can do additional processing on those values. The following code excerpt shows how I am interacting with sage: <<echo=false,results=hide>>= mean.raw <- c(5, 3.5, 2) theta <- 0.5 var.raw <- mean.raw + ((mean.raw^2)/theta) @ \begin{frame}[fragile] \frametitle{Test of Sage 2} \begin{sagesilent} var('a1, b1, a2, b2, a3, b3') eqn1 = [1000*a1/(a1+b1)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[1]}, ((1000*a1*b1)*(1000+a1+b1))/((a1+b1)^2*(a1+b1+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[1]}] eqn2 = [1000*a2/(a2+b2)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[2]}, ((1000*a2*b2)*(1000+a2+b2))/((a2+b2)^2*(a2+b2+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[2]}] eqn3 = [1000*a3/(a3+b3)==\Sexpr{mean.raw[3]}, ((1000*a3*b3)*(1000+a3+b3))/((a3+b3)^2*(a3+b3+1))==\Sexpr{var.raw[3]}] s1 = solve(eqn1, a1,b1) s2 = solve(eqn2, a2,b2) s3 = solve(eqn3, a3,b3) \end{sagesilent} Solutions of Beta Binomial Parameters: \begin{itemize} \item $\sage{s1[0]}$ \item $\sage{s2[0]}$ \item $\sage{s3[0]}$ \end{itemize} \end{frame} Everything compiles just fine, and in that slide I am able to see the solutions to the three equations respective parameters in that itemized list (for example the first item in the itemized list from that beamer slide is outputted as [a1=(328/667), b1=(65272/667)] (I am not able to post an image of the beamer slide but I hope you get the idea). I would like to save the parameter values a1,b1,a2,b2,a3,b3 into R objects so that I can use them in simulations. I cannot find any documentation in the sagetex package on how to save output from sage commands into variables for use with other programs (in this case R). Any suggestions on how to get these values into R?

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  • PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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