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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• iPhone: Grouped tables and navigation controller issues

  - by Jack Griffiths

  Hi there, I've set up a grouped table on my app, and pushing to new views works fine. Except for one thing. The titles and stack layout are all weird. Here's the breakdown: I have two sections in my table. When I tap on the first row in the first section, it takes me to the correct view, but the title of the new view is the name of the first row in the second section of the table. In turn, the second row in the first section's title is the second row in the second section's title. If I tap on the second row in the second section of the root view table, the navigation button goes to the second row in the first section of the table. So here's a diagram of my table: Table Section 1 Row 1 Row 2 Row 3 Table Section 2 Row A Row B Row C So if I tap on row 3, the title of the pushed view is Row C. The navigation button tells me to go back to Row 3, then eventually ending up at the root view. Here's my implementation file pushing the views: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //CSS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"CSS"]) { CSSViewController *css = [[CSSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"CSSViewController" bundle:nil]; [css setTitle:@"CSS"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:css animated:YES]; } //HTML if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"HTML"]) { HTMLViewController *html = [[HTMLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HTMLViewController" bundle:nil]; [html setTitle:@"HTML"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:html animated:YES]; } //JS if ([[arryClientSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"JavaScript"]) { JSViewController *js = [[JSViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"JSViewController" bundle:nil]; [js setTitle:@"JavaScript"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:js animated:YES]; } //PHP if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"PHP"]) { PHPViewController *php = [[PHPViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"PHPViewController" bundle:nil]; [php setTitle:@"PHP"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:php animated:YES]; } //SQL if ([[arryServerSide objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"SQL"]) { SQLViewController *sql = [[SQLViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SQLViewController" bundle:nil]; [sql setTitle:@"SQL"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:sql animated:YES]; } & the array feeding the table's data: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; arryClientSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"CSS",@"HTML",@"JavaScript",nil]; arryServerSide = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Objective-C", @"PHP",@"SQL",nil]; // arryResources = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"HTML Colour Codes", @"Useful Resources", @"About",nil]; self.title = @"Select a Language"; [super viewDidLoad]; // Uncomment the following line to display an Edit button in the navigation bar for this view controller. // self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.editButtonItem; } Any help would be greatly appreciated. Jack

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• NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

  - by Daoming Yang

  I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

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• asp.net mvc & jquery dialog: What approach do I take to add items to a dropdownlist/select list with

  - by Mark Redman

  Hi, I am new to MVC and have a grasp of the basic model, but still doing everything with postbacks etc. One aspect of the UI I want to build is to have a drop-down-list of items with a button to add an item to the database and refresh the list. Achieving this with WebForms was straight forward as everything was wrapped in UpdatePanels, but what is the best approach to achieve this using MVC? Part of the markup for the list and button look like this: <table> <tr> <td><%=Html.DropDownList("JobTitleSelectList", Model.JobTitleSelectList, "(select job title)", new { @class = "data-entry-field" })%></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><a id="AddJobTitleDialogLink" href="javascript: addJobTitleDialog();" title="Add Job Title"><img id="AddJobTitleButtonImage" src="/Content/Images/Icons/16x16/PlusGrey.png" border="0" /></a></td> </tr> </table> The Dialog is a standard jquery Ui dialog, looks like this: <div id="SingleTextEntryDialog" style="display:none"> <table> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td><input id="SingleTextEntryDialogText" type="text" size="25" /></td> </tr> </table> </div> I am guessing I need to put this into a UserControl / PartialView (are they the same thing?) Also with the strongly typed View how do I pass the Model or just the SelectList Property to the UserControl or is this not the case? Nor sure if there should be form in the dialog div? or how that is going to postback via ajax. Some examples show a lot of ajax code in the page something like: $.ajax({...}); I assume doing this using jquery is more code than asp.net webforms, but there is just more code to see doing a "View Source" on a page? Your comments appreciated.

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• Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

  - by swilliams

  Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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• How to check for palindrome using Python logic

  - by DrOnline

  My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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• Stored procedure error when use computed column for ID

  - by Hari

  I got the error: Procedure or function usp_User_Info3 has too many arguments specified When I run the program. I don't know the error in SP or in C# code. I have to display the Vendor_ID after the user clicks the submit button. Where the thing going wrong here ? Table structure : CREATE TABLE User_Info3 ( SNo int Identity (2000,1) , Vendor_ID AS 'VEN' + CAST(SNo as varchar(16)) PERSISTED PRIMARY KEY, UserName VARCHAR(16) NOT NULL, User_Password VARCHAR(12) NOT NULL, User_ConPassword VARCHAR(12) NOT NULL, User_FirstName VARCHAR(25) NOT NULL, User_LastName VARCHAR(25) SPARSE NULL, User_Title VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL, User_EMail VARCHAR(35) NOT NULL, User_PhoneNo VARCHAR(14) NOT NULL, User_MobileNo VARCHAR(14)NOT NULL, User_FaxNo VARCHAR(14)NOT NULL, UserReg_Date DATE DEFAULT GETDATE() ) Stored Procedure : ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_User_Info3] @SNo INT OUTPUT, @Vendor_ID VARCHAR(10) OUTPUT, @UserName VARCHAR(30), @User_Password VARCHAR(12), @User_ConPassword VARCHAR(12), @User_FirstName VARCHAR(25), @User_LastName VARCHAR(25), @User_Title VARCHAR(35), @User_OtherEmail VARCHAR(30), @User_PhoneNo VARCHAR(14), @User_MobileNo VARCHAR(14), @User_FaxNo VARCHAR(14) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; INSERT INTO User_Info3 (UserName,User_Password,User_ConPassword,User_FirstName, User_LastName,User_Title,User_OtherEmail,User_PhoneNo,User_MobileNo,User_FaxNo) VALUES (@UserName,@User_Password,@User_ConPassword,@User_FirstName,@User_LastName, @User_Title,@User_OtherEmail,@User_PhoneNo,@User_MobileNo,@User_FaxNo) SET @SNo = Scope_Identity() SELECT Vendor_ID From User_Info3 WHERE SNo = @SNo END C# Code : protected void BtnUserNext_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "usp_User_Info3"; System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter SNo=cmd.Parameters.Add("@SNo",System.Data.SqlDbType.Int); System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter Vendor_ID=cmd.Parameters.Add("@Vendor_ID", System.Data.SqlDbType.VarChar,10); cmd.Parameters.Add("@UserName", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtUserName.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_Password", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtRegPassword.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_ConPassword", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtRegConPassword.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_FirstName", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtRegFName.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_LastName", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtRegLName.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_Title", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtRegTitle.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_OtherEmail", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = txtOtherEmail.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_PhoneNo", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value =txtRegTelephone.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_MobileNo", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value =txtRegMobile.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@User_FaxNo", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value =txtRegFax.Text; cmd.Connection = SqlCon; try { Vendor_ID.Direction = System.Data.ParameterDirection.Output; SqlCon.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); string VendorID = cmd.ExecuteScalar() as string; } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception(ex.Message); } finally { string url = "../CompanyBasicInfo.aspx?Parameter=" + Server.UrlEncode(" + VendorID + "); SqlCon.Close(); } }

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• Could not load file or assembly 'Base' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied

  - by starcorn

  I have deployed one web project into Azure emulator. And I get this error saying that Could not load file or assembly Base. The thing is that this web project, got dependencies to another project in the same solution. I have added that dependency into the reference list of my web project. And if I run this web application without using the azure emulator it will run fine. But I will get error when I try to run it on the azure emulator. At first glance I thought that I maybe need to add the other project as role also. But it couldn't be that. Anyone know what the problem might be? I hope I got enough data for you to look into. My solution structure looks like following Solution Base WebAPI WebAPI.Azure And it is the WebAPI that has a dependency to the Base project Here's the Assembly load trace WRN: Assembly binding logging is turned OFF. To enable assembly bind failure logging, set the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog] (DWORD) to 1. Note: There is some performance penalty associated with assembly bind failure logging. To turn this feature off, remove the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog]. And stack trace [FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Base' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied.] System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, RuntimeAssembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection, Boolean suppressSecurityChecks) +0 System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.InternalLoadAssemblyName(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection, Boolean suppressSecurityChecks) +567 System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.InternalLoad(String assemblyString, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +192 System.Reflection.Assembly.Load(String assemblyString) +35 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper(String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +123 [ConfigurationErrorsException: Could not load file or assembly 'Base' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied.] System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper(String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +11568160 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAllAssembliesFromAppDomainBinDirectory() +485 System.Web.Configuration.AssemblyInfo.get_AssemblyInternal() +79 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetReferencedAssemblies(CompilationSection compConfig) +337 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CallPreStartInitMethods() +280 System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters, PolicyLevel policyLevel, Exception appDomainCreationException) +1167 [HttpException (0x80004005): Could not load file or assembly 'Base' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.FirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +11700896 System.Web.HttpRuntime.EnsureFirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +141 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +4869125

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• Embedded "Smart" character LCD driver. Is this a good idea?

  - by chris12892

  I have an embedded project that I am working on, and I am currently coding the character LCD driver. At the moment, the LCD driver only supports "dumb" writing. For example, let's say line 1 has some text on it, and I make a call to the function that writes to the line. The function will simply seek to the beginning of the line and write the text (plus enough whitespace to erase whatever was last written). This is well and good, but I get the feeling it is horribly inefficient sometimes, since some lines are simply: "Some-reading: some-Value" Rather than "brute force" replacing the entire line, I wanted to develop some code that would figure out the best way to update the information on the LCD. (just as background, it takes 2 bytes to seek to any char position. I can then begin writing the string) My idea was to first have a loop. This loop would compare the input to the last write, and in doing so, it would cover two things: A: Collect all the differences between the last write and the input. For every contiguous segment (be it same or different) add two bytes to the byte count. This is referenced in B to determine if we are wasting serial bandwidth. B: The loop would determine if this is really a smart thing to do. If we end up using more bytes to update the line than to "brute force" the line, then we should just return and let the brute force method take over. We should exit the smart write function as soon as this condition is met to avoid wasting time. The next part of the function would take all the differences, seek to the required char on the LCD, and write them. Thus, if we have a string like this already on the LCD: "Current Temp: 80F" and we want to update it to "Current Temp: 79F" The function will go through and see that it would take less bandwidth to simply seek to the "8" and write "79". The "7" will cover the "8" and the "9" will cover the "0". That way, we don't waste time writing out the entire string. Does this seem like a practical idea?

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• JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

  - by Chris Halcrow

  I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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• Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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• Ideas for designing an automated content tagging system needed

  - by Benjamin Smith

  I am currently designing a website that amongst other is required to display and organise small amounts of text content (mainly quotes, article stubs, etc.). I currently have a database with 250,000+ items and need to come up with a method of tagging each item with relevant tags which will eventually allow for easy searching/browsing of the content for users. A very simplistic idea I have (and one that I believe is employed by some sites that I have been looking to for inspiration (http://www.brainyquote.com/quotes/topics.html)), is to simply search the database for certain words or phrases and use these words as tags for the content. This can easily be extended so that if for example a user wanted to show all items with a theme of love then I would just return a list of items with words and phrases relating to this theme. This would not be hard to implement but does not provide very good results. For example if I were to search for the month 'May' in the database with the aim of then classifying the items returned as realting to the topic of Spring then I would get back all occurrences of the word May, regardless of the semantic meaning. Another shortcoming of this method is that I believe it would be quite hard to automate the process to any large scale. What I really require is a library that can take an item, break it down and analyse the semantic meaning and also return a list of tags that would correctly classify the item. I know this is a lot to ask and I have a feeling I will end up reverting to the aforementioned method but I just thought I should ask if anyone knew of any pre-existing solution. I think that as the items in the database are short then it is probably quite a hard task to analyse any meaning from them however I may be mistaken. Another path to possibly go down would be to use something like amazon turk to outsource the task which may produce good results but would be expensive. Eventually I would like users to be able to (and want to!) tag content and to vote for the most relevant tags, possibly using a gameification mechanic as motivation however this is some way down the line. A temporary fix may be the best thing if this were the route I decided to go down as I could use the rough results I got as the starting point for a more in depth solution. If you've read this far, thanks for sticking with me, I know I'm spitballing but any input would be really helpful. Thanks.

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• Hide jQuery Accordion while loading

  - by zac

  I am testing a site build with a slow connection and I noticed the jQuery Accordion stays expanded for a long time, until the rest of the site is loaded, and then finally collapses. Not very pretty. I was wondering how I could keep it collapsed through the loading process and only expand when clicked. I am working with the standalone 1.6 version of the accordion plugin. The basic structure : <div class="sidebar"> <ul id="navigation" class="ui-accordion-container"> <li><a class="head" href="#">1</a> <ul class="sub"> <li><a href="#">1a</a></li> <li><a href="#">2a</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> and the script jQuery().ready(function(){ jQuery('#navigation').accordion({ active: 'false', header: '.head', navigation: true, animated: 'easeslide', collapsible: true }); }); I tried to hide the elements in the CSS to keep them from appearing while loading but all that achieved is in having them always hidden. Maybe the problem is in the CSS I have a background image in each of the sub menus: #navigation{ margin:0px; margin-left: 10px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; font-size: 1.1em; width:200px; text-transform: uppercase; padding-bottom: 30px; } #navigation ul{ border-width:0px; margin:0px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; } #navigation li{ list-style:none outside none; } #navigation li ul{ height:185px; overflow:auto; } #navigation li ul.sub{ background:url('../images/sub.jpg') no-repeat; dispaly: block; } #navigation li li a{ color:#000000; display:block; text-indent:20px; text-decoration: none; padding: 6px 0; } #navigation li li a:hover{ background-color:#FFFF99; color:#FF0000; } Thanks in advance for any advice on how to have this thing run a little smoother and having the accordion always collapsed. -edit - I forgot to mention that I am also hoping for a solution that will allow the nav to still be accessible for those without javscript.

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• how to develop a program to minimize errors in human transcription of hand written surveys

  - by Alex. S.

  I need to develop custom software to do surveys. Questions may be of multiple choice, or free text in a very few cases. I was asked to design a subsystem to check if there is any error in the manual data entry for the multiple choices part. We're trying to speed up the user data entry process and to minimize human input differences between digital forms and the original questionnaires. The surveys are filled with handwritten marks and text by human interviewers, so it's possible to find hard to read marks, or also the user could accidentally select a different value in some question, and we would like to avoid that. The software must include some automatic control to detect possible typing differences. Each answer of the multiple choice questions has the same probability of being selected. This question has two parts: The GUI. The most simple thing I have in mind is to implement the most usable design of the questions display: use of large and readable fonts and space generously the choices. Is there something else? For faster input, I would like to use drop down lists (favoring keyboard over mouse). Given the questions are grouped in sections, I would like to show the answers selected for the questions of that section, but this could slow down the process. Any other ideas? The error checking subsystem. What else can I do to minimize or to check human typos in the multiple choice questions? Is this a solvable problem? is there some statistical methodology to check values that were entered by the users are the same from the hand filled forms? For example, let's suppose the survey has 5 questions, and each has 4 options. Let's say I have n survey forms filled in paper by interviewers, and they're ready to be entered in the software, then how to minimize the accidental differences that can have the manual transcription of the n surveys, without having to double check everything in the 5 questions of the n surveys? My first suggestion is that at the end of the processing of all the hand filled forms, the software could choose some forms randomly to make a double check of the responses in a few instances, but on what criteria can I make this selection? This validation would be enough to cover everything in a significant way? The actual survey is nation level and it has 56 pages with over 200 questions in total, so it will be a lot of hand written pages by many people, and the intention is to reduce the likelihood of errors and to optimize speed in the data entry process. The surveys must filled in paper first, given the complications of taking laptops or handhelds with the interviewers.

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• How do you create a MANIFEST.MF that's available when you're testing and running from a jar in produ

  - by warvair

  I've spent far too much time trying to figure this out. This should be the simplest thing and everyone who distributes Java applications in jars must have to deal with it. I just want to know the proper way to add versioning to my Java app so that I can access the version information when I'm testing, e.g. debugging in Eclipse and running from a jar. Here's what I have in my build.xml: <target name="jar" depends = "compile"> <property name="version.num" value="1.0.0"/> <buildnumber file="build.num"/> <tstamp> <format property="TODAY" pattern="yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss" /> </tstamp> <manifest file="${build}/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"> <attribute name="Built-By" value="${user.name}" /> <attribute name="Built-Date" value="${TODAY}" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Title" value="MyApp" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Vendor" value="MyCompany" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Version" value="${version.num}-b${build.number}"/> </manifest> <jar destfile="${build}/myapp.jar" basedir="${build}" excludes="*.jar" /> </target> This creates /META-INF/MANIFEST.MF and I can read the values when I'm debugging in Eclipse thusly: public MyClass() { try { InputStream stream = getClass().getResourceAsStream("/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"); Manifest manifest = new Manifest(stream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String implementationTitle = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Title"); String implementationVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); String builtDate = attributes.getValue("Built-Date"); String builtBy = attributes.getValue("Built-By"); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error("Couldn't read manifest."); } } But, when I create the jar file, it loads the manifest of another jar (presumably the first jar loaded by the application - in my case, activation.jar). Also, the following code doesn't work either although all the proper values are in the manifest file. Package thisPackage = getClass().getPackage(); String implementationVersion = thisPackage.getImplementationVersion(); Any ideas?

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• .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

  - by djna

  Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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• What is causing this SQL 2005 Primary Key Deadlock between two real-time bulk upserts?

  - by skimania

  Here's the scenario: I've got a table called MarketDataCurrent (MDC) that has live updating stock prices. I've got one process called 'LiveFeed' which reads prices streaming from the wire, queues up inserts, and uses a 'bulk upload to temp table then insert/update to MDC table.' (BulkUpsert) I've got another process which then reads this data, computes other data, and then saves the results back into the same table, using a similar BulkUpsert stored proc. Thirdly, there are a multitude of users running a C# Gui polling the MDC table and reading updates from it. Now, during the day when the data is changing rapidly, things run pretty smoothly, but then, after market hours, we've recently started seeing an increasing number of Deadlock exceptions coming out of the database, nowadays we see 10-20 a day. The imporant thing to note here is that these happen when the values are NOT changing. Here's all the relevant info: Table Def: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent]( [MDID] [int] NOT NULL, [LastUpdate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Value] [float] NOT NULL, [Source] [varchar](20) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MarketDataCurrent] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [MDID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] - stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][1] [1]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4049/4690759452_6b94ff7b34.jpg I've got a Sql Profiler Trace Running, catching the deadlocks, and here's what all the graphs look like. stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][2] [2]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4035/4690125231_78d84c9e15_b.jpg Process 258 is called the following 'BulkUpsert' stored proc, repeatedly, while 73 is calling the next one: ALTER proc [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_BulkUpload] @updateTime datetime, @source varchar(10) as begin transaction update c with (rowlock) set LastUpdate = getdate(), Value = t.Value, Source = @source from MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #MDTUP t ON c.MDID = t.mdid where c.lastUpdate < @updateTime and c.mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') and c.value <> t.value insert into MarketDataCurrent with (rowlock) select MDID, getdate(), Value, @source from #MDTUP where mdid not in (select mdid from MarketDataCurrent with (nolock)) and mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') commit And the other one: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_LiveFeedUpload] AS begin transaction -- Update existing mdid UPDATE c WITH (ROWLOCK) SET LastUpdate = t.LastUpdate, Value = t.Value, Source = t.Source FROM MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #TEMPTABLE2 t ON c.MDID = t.mdid; -- Insert new MDID INSERT INTO MarketDataCurrent with (ROWLOCK) SELECT * FROM #TEMPTABLE2 WHERE MDID NOT IN (SELECT MDID FROM MarketDataCurrent with (NOLOCK)) -- Clean up the temp table DELETE #TEMPTABLE2 commit To clarify, those Temp Tables are being created by the C# code on the same connection and are populated using the C# SqlBulkCopy class. To me it looks like it's deadlocking on the PK of the table, so I tried removing that PK and switching to a Unique Constraint instead but that increased the number of deadlocks 10-fold. I'm totally lost as to what to do about this situation and am open to just about any suggestion. HELP!!

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• xml append issue in ie,chrome

  - by 3gwebtrain

  Hi, I am creating a html page, using xml data. in which i am using the following function. It works fine with firefox,opera,safari. but in case of ie7,ie8, and chrome the data what i am getting from xml, is not appending properly. any one help me to solve this issue? in case any special thing need to concentrate on append funcation as well let me know.. $(function(){ var thisPage; var parentPage; $('ul.left-navi li a').each(function(){ $('ul.left-navi li a').removeClass('current'); var pathname = (window.location.pathname.match(/[^\/]+$/)[0]); var currentPage = $(this).attr('href'); var pathArr = new Array(); pathArr = pathname.split("."); var file = pathArr[pathArr.length - 2]; thisPage = file; if(currentPage==pathname){ $(this).addClass("active"); } }) $.get('career-utility.xml',function(myData){ var myXml = $(myData).find(thisPage); parentPage = thisPage; var overviewTitle = myXml.find('overview').attr('title'); var description = myXml.find('discription').text(); var mainsublinkTitle = myXml.find('mainsublink').attr('title'); var thisTitle = myXml.find("intro").attr('title'); var thisIntro = myXml.find("introinfo").text(); $('<h3>'+overviewTitle+'</h3>').appendTo('.overViewInfo'); $('<p>'+description+'</p>').appendTo('.overViewInfo'); var sublinks = myXml.find('mainsublink').children('sublink'); $('#intro h3').append(thisTitle); $('#intro').append(thisIntro); sublinks.each(function(numsub){ var newSubLink = $(this); var sublinkPage = $(this).attr('pageto'); var linkInfo = $(this).text(); $('ul.career-link').append('<li><a href="'+sublinkPage+'">'+linkInfo+'</a></li>'); }) $(myXml).find('listgroup').each(function(index){ var count = index; var listGroup = $(this); var listGroupTitle = $(this).attr('title'); var shortNote = $(this).attr('shortnote'); var subLink = $(this).find('sublist'); var firstList = $(this).find('list'); $('.grouplist').append('<div class="list-group"><h3>'+listGroupTitle+'</h3><ul class="level-one level' + count + '"></ul></div>'); firstList.each(function(listnum) { $(this).wrapInner('<li>') .find('sublistgroup').wrapInner('<ul>').children().unwrap() .find('sublist').wrapInner('<li>').children().unwrap(); $('ul.level'+count).append($(this).children()); }); }); }); }) Thanks for advance..

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• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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• How can you prevent both jumpiness, and interrupting tweens with animated Flash buttons?

  - by Kevin Suttle

  This is something I've never been able to figure out. You've got a button offscreen you want to animate in. We'll call it 'btn.' You've got a hit area that serves as the proximity sensor to trigger btn's animation. We'll call it 'hitZone' (as to not cause confusion with the hitArea property of display objects). Both btn and hitZone are MovieClips. The listeners go something like this. import com.greensock.*; import com.greensock.easing.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; var endPoint:Number = 31; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onHitZoneClick); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onBtnOver); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onBtnOut); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onBtnClick); btn.mouseChildren = false; function onHitZoneOver(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:endPoint, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("over hitZone"); } function onHitZoneOut(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:-1, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("out hitZone"); } function onBtnOver(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = false; hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("over BTN"); // This line is the only thing keeping the btn animation from being fired continuously // causing jumpiness. However, calling this allows the animation to be interrupted // at any point. TweenLite.killTweensOf(btn); } function onBtnOut(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = true; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("out BTN"); } function onBtnClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click BTN"); } function onHitZoneClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click hitZone"); } The issue is when your mouse is over both the hitZone and btn. The button continuously jumps unless you call TweenLite.killAllTweensOf(). This fixes the jumpiness, but it introduces a new problem. Now, it's very easy to interrupt the animation of the btn at any point, stopping it before it's totally visible on the stage. I've seen similar posts, but even they suffer from the same issue. Perhaps it's a problem with how Flash detects edges, because I've never once seen a workaround for this.

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• Problems with creating and using of delegate-protocols

  - by Flocked

  Hello, I have the problem that I have created a delegate protocol, but the necessary methods are not executed, although I have implemented the protocol in my header file. Here are the detailed explanation: I created an instance of my ViewController (TimeLineViewController), which will be displayed. This ViewController contains a UITableView, which in turn receives the individual Cells / Rows from one instance of my TableViewCell. So the ViewController creates an instance of TableCellView. The TableViewCell contains a UITextView, which contains web links. Now I want, that not safari opens the links, but my own built-in browser. Unfortunately TableViewCell can not open a new ViewController with a WebView, so I decided to create a delegate protocol. The whole thing looks like this: WebViewTableCellDelegate.h: @protocol WebViewTableCellDelegate -(void)loadWeb; @end Then I created a instance WebViewDelegate in the TableViewCell: id <WebViewTableCellDelegate> _delegate; In the .m of the TableViewCell: @interface UITextView (Override) @end @class WebView, WebFrame; @protocol WebPolicyDecisionListener; @implementation UITextView (Override) - (void)webView:(WebView *)webView decidePolicyForNavigationAction:(NSDictionary *)actionInformation request:(NSURLRequest *)request frame:(WebFrame *)frame decisionListener:(id < WebPolicyDecisionListener >)listener { NSLog(@"request: %@", request); [_delegate loadWeb]; } @end - (void)setDelegate:(id <WebViewTableCellDelegate>)delegate{ _delegate = delegate;} And in my TimeLineViewController I implemented the protocol with < and the loadWeb-metode: - (void)loadWeb{ WebViewController *web = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; web.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController: web animated:YES]; [web release]; } And when the instance of the TableViewCell will be created in the TimelineViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; MyIdentifier = @"tableCell"; TableViewCell *cell = (TableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if(cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TableViewCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = tableCell;} [cell setDelegate:self]; //… } It is the first time I created a own delegate-protocol, so maybe there are stupid mistakes. Also I´m learnung Objective-C and programming generally only for 4 weeks. Thanks for your help! EDIT: I think i found the problem, but I dont know how to resolve it. I try to use [_delegate loadWeb]; in the subclass of the UITextView (because that is the only way i can react on the weblinks) and the subclass can´t use [_delegate loadWeb];. I tried this in a other methode and it worked.

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• dijit/form/Select broken in Internet Explorer using Esri Javascript 3.7

  - by disuse

  After developing a web map app in Firefox, I tested my code in Internet Explorer (company standard) to discover that the dijit/form/Select is misbehaving using the latest Esri JavaScript v3.7. The issue I am seeing is that the Select will not update/change from the first option in the list when using v3.7. If I bump the version down to 3.6, it works as expected. I've tried IE browser modes from 7 to 10 and am experiencing the same behavior between all of them. Can someone confirm they are experiencing the same thing? Example in 3.7 - http://jsbin.com/aVIsApO/1/edit Example in 3.6 - http://jsbin.com/odIxETu/7/edit Codeblock var url = "http://services.arcgis.com/V6ZHFr6zdgNZuVG0/ArcGIS/rest/services/Street_Trees/FeatureServer/0"; var frmTrees; require([ "esri/tasks/query", "esri/tasks/QueryTask", "dojo/dom-construct", "dijit/form/Select", "dojo/parser", "dijit/registry", "dojo/on", "dojo/ready", "dojo/_base/connect", "dojo/domReady!" ], function( Query, QueryTask, domConstruct, Select, parser, registry, on, ready, connect ) { ready(function() { frmTrees = registry.byId("trees"); var qt = new QueryTask(url); var query = new Query(); query.where = "FID < 25"; query.orderByFields = ["qSpecies"]; query.returnGeometry = false; query.outFields = ["qSpecies", "TreeID"]; query.groupByFieldsForStatistics = ["qSpecies"]; //query.returnDistinctValues = true; qt.execute(query, function(results) { //var frm_domain_area = dom.byId("domain_area"); var testVals = {}; for (var i = 0; i < results.features.length; i++) { var id = results.features[i].attributes.TreeID; var desc = results.features[i].attributes.qSpecies; if (!testVals[id]) { testVals[id] = true; var selectElem = domConstruct.create("option",{ label: desc + " (" + id + ")", value: id }); frmTrees.addOption(selectElem); } } }); frmTrees.on("change", function() { console.debug(frmTrees.get("value")); }); }); });

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• Persistent (purely functional) Red-Black trees on disk performance

  - by Waneck

  I'm studying the best data structures to implement a simple open-source object temporal database, and currently I'm very fond of using Persistent Red-Black trees to do it. My main reasons for using persistent data structures is first of all to minimize the use of locks, so the database can be as parallel as possible. Also it will be easier to implement ACID transactions and even being able to abstract the database to work in parallel on a cluster of some kind. The great thing of this approach is that it makes possible implementing temporal databases almost for free. And this is something quite nice to have, specially for web and for data analysis (e.g. trends). All of this is very cool, but I'm a little suspicious about the overall performance of using a persistent data structure on disk. Even though there are some very fast disks available today, and all writes can be done asynchronously, so a response is always immediate, I don't want to build all application under a false premise, only to realize it isn't really a good way to do it. Here's my line of thought: - Since all writes are done asynchronously, and using a persistent data structure will enable not to invalidate the previous - and currently valid - structure, the write time isn't really a bottleneck. - There are some literature on structures like this that are exactly for disk usage. But it seems to me that these techniques will add more read overhead to achieve faster writes. But I think that exactly the opposite is preferable. Also many of these techniques really do end up with a multi-versioned trees, but they aren't strictly immutable, which is something very crucial to justify the persistent overhead. - I know there still will have to be some kind of locking when appending values to the database, and I also know there should be a good garbage collecting logic if not all versions are to be maintained (otherwise the file size will surely rise dramatically). Also a delta compression system could be thought about. - Of all search trees structures, I really think Red-Blacks are the most close to what I need, since they offer the least number of rotations. But there are some possible pitfalls along the way: - Asynchronous writes -could- affect applications that need the data in real time. But I don't think that is the case with web applications, most of the time. Also when real-time data is needed, another solutions could be devised, like a check-in/check-out system of specific data that will need to be worked on a more real-time manner. - Also they could lead to some commit conflicts, though I fail to think of a good example of when it could happen. Also commit conflicts can occur in normal RDBMS, if two threads are working with the same data, right? - The overhead of having an immutable interface like this will grow exponentially and everything is doomed to fail soon, so this all is a bad idea. Any thoughts? Thanks! edit: There seems to be a misunderstanding of what a persistent data structure is: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Persistent_data_structure

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• Is Abstract Factory Pattern implemented correctly for given scenario.... ???

  - by Amit

  First thing... I am novice to pattern world, so correct me if wrong anywhere Scenario: There are multiple companies providing multiple products of diff size so there are 3 entities i.e. Companies, Their Product and size of product I have implement Abstract Pattern on this i.e. so that I will create instance of IProductFactory interface to get desired product... Is below implementation of Abstract Factory Pattern correct ??? If not then please correct the approach + Also tell me if any other pattern can be used for such scenario Thanks in advance... public enum Companies { Samsung = 0, LG = 1, Philips = 2, Sony = 3 } public enum Product { PlasmaTv = 0, DVD = 1 } public enum ProductSize { FortyTwoInch, FiftyFiveInch } interface IProductFactory { IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct(); ISony GetSonyProduct(); } interface ISony { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } interface IPhilips { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } class ProductFactory : IProductFactory { public IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct() { return new Philips(); } public ISony GetSonyProduct() { return new Sony(); } } class Philips : IPhilips { #region IPhilips Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) {// I have ingnore size for now.... string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } class Sony : ISony {// I have ingnore size for now.... #region ISony Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) { string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } IProductFactory prodFactory = new ProductFactory(); IPhilips philipsObj = prodFactory.GetPhilipsProduct(); MessageBox.Show(philipsObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch)); or //ISony sonyObj = prodFactory.GetSonyProduct(); //MessageBox.Show(sonyObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch));

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• When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

  - by Steven Lu

  I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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