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• App dies on startup but not crash report

  - by brettr

  I've given an ad hoc version of my app to some users. Two of them have the app die on start up while one user has no issues. I can also install the ad hoc without issue...but that is always the case for me. One user sent the info below from the Xcode Organizer Console. They didn't find any crash logs. I don't know what to make of the info below. The one thing that stands out is "Permission denied". I place the provisioning and myapp.app files in a dropbox folder. The user then retrieves the files from the same location. I've run codesign against the .app file in the dropbox and get valid output: codesign -vvvv myapp.app myapp.app: valid on disk myapp.app: satisfies its Designated Requirement Any one have some ideas how I can figure out why the app doesn't work for this user? Here is the Console output from one user. They couldn't find any associated crash logs: Stats totalMLSITDBPostProcessing=5.31s commands=0.01 misc=0.45s icuSort=4.41s (MLS_icu_data=0.23s, MLS_icu_sec_data=0.13, dropIdx=0.04, normalize=0.13, update_orders=1.31, tStatsICUOther1=0.02, createIndex=2.50) Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 179: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:10 unknown springboardservicesrelay[155] <Warning>: Unable to parse property list data of length: 0 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 182: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1

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• symfony/zend integration - blank screen

  - by user142176

  Hi, I need to use ZendAMF on a symfony project and I'm currently working on integrating the two. I have a frontend app with two modules, one of which is 'gateway' - the AMF gateway. In my frontend app config, I have the following in the configure function: // load symfony autoloading first parent::initialize(); // Integrate Zend Framework require_once('[MY PATH TO ZEND]\Loader.php'); spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); The executeIndex function my the gateway actions.class.php looks like this // No Layout $this->setLayout(false); // Set MIME Type $this->getResponse()->setContentType('application/x-amf; charset='.sfConfig::get('sf_charset')); // Disable cause this is a non-html page sfConfig::set('sf_web_debug', false); // Create AMF Server $server = new Zend_Amf_Server(); $server->setClass('MYCLASS'); echo $server->handle(); return sfView::NONE; Now when I try to visit the url for the gateway module, or even the other module which was working perfectly fine until this attempt, I only see a blank screen, with not even the symfony dev bar loaded. Oddly enough, my symfony logs are not being updated as well, which suggests that Synfony is not even being 'reached'. So presumably the error has something to do with Zend, but I have no idea how to figure out what the error could be. One thing I do know for sure is that this is not a file path error, because if I change the path in the following line (a part of frontendConfiguration as shown above), I get a Zend_Amf_Server not found error. So the path must be correct. Also if I comment out this very same line, the second module resumes to normality, and my gateway broadcasts a blank x-amf stream. spl_autoload_register(array('Zend_Loader', 'autoload')); Does anyone have any tips on how I could attach this problem? Thanks P.S. I'm currently running an older version of Zend, which is why I am using Zend_Loader instead of Zend_autoLoader (I think). But I've tried switching to the new lib, but the error still remains. So it's not a version problem as well.

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• Direct show video renderers suck?

  - by Daniel

  So I've been looking into the world of media playback for windows and I've started making a C# Media Player using DirectShow. I started off using the VRM-7 windowed video renderer and it was brilliant except it had a couple of small problems (multi monitors, fullscreen). But after some research I found that it's deprecated and I should be using VRM9. So I changed it to use VRM9 windowless then found out that was an old post rofl _< so finally I'm using Vista/Win7 (or XP .net 3) Enhanced Video Renderer (EVR) which is apparently the most up to date Microsoft video renderer and has all the flashy performance/quality things added to it. (tbh I haven't noticed any difference but maybe I need a blue-ray or HQ video to notice it). With using EVR everything is working fine except resizing the video. Its really laggy/choppy/teary and problem something to do with its frame queueing mechanism. To demonstrate my problem open up windows media player classic. View - Options - Playback - output Chose the "EVR" DirectShow Video renderer Now restart wmp class and play a video, while it's playing click and drag a corner to resize it. You'll notice its horribly laggy. This is the exact same problem i am having. But if you chose "EVR Custom Pres. *" or EVR Sync *" resizing works beautifully! So i tried googling around for anything about EVR resizing issues and how to fix it but i couldn't believe how little i could find. I'm guessing "Custom Pres." stands for "Custom Presenter" which sounds like they made their own. Also you'll notice on the right hand size when you swap between EVR and the other EVR's the Resizer drop down on the right greys out. So basically I wan't to know how I can fix this retarded resizing problem and is there any decent documentation out there? There is a fair bit for VMR7/9 but not much for EVR. I downloaded the DirectX SDK which apparently has samples but it was a waste of 500mb of bandwidth as it had nothing relevant. Perhaps there is some way to force it not queueing up frames if that is the problem? If you want code say the word and I'll paste some in. But it's really quite simple and nothing much happens, i'm convinced it's a problem with the EVR renderer. EDIT: Oh and one other thing, what does VLC use? If you go into vlc options and change the renderer to anything but default, they all suck. So is it using VMR7? Or its own?

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• DirectShow EVR resizing window problem

  - by Daniel

  So I've been looking into the world of media playback for windows and I've started making a C# Media Player using DirectShow. I started off using the VRM-7 windowed video renderer and it was brilliant except it had a couple of small problems (multi monitors, fullscreen). But after some research I found that it's deprecated and I should be using VRM9. So I changed it to use VRM9 windowless then found out that was an old post rofl _< so finally I'm using Vista/Win7 (or XP .net 3) Enhanced Video Renderer (EVR) which is apparently the most up to date Microsoft video renderer and has all the flashy performance/quality things added to it. (tbh I haven't noticed any difference but maybe I need a blue-ray or HQ video to notice it). With using EVR everything is working fine except resizing the video. Its really laggy/choppy/teary and probably something to do with its frame queueing mechanism. To demonstrate my problem open up windows media player classic. View - Options - Playback - output Chose the "EVR" DirectShow Video renderer Now restart wmp class and play a video, while it's playing click and drag a corner to resize it. You'll notice its horribly laggy. This is the exact same problem i am having. But if you chose "EVR Custom Pres. *" or EVR Sync *" resizing works beautifully! So i tried googling around for anything about EVR resizing issues and how to fix it but i couldn't believe how little i could find. I'm guessing "Custom Pres." stands for "Custom Presenter" which sounds like they made their own. Also you'll notice on the right hand size when you swap between EVR and the other EVR's the Resizer drop down on the right greys out. So basically I wan't to know how I can fix this retarded resizing problem and is there any decent documentation out there? There is a fair bit for VMR7/9 but not much for EVR. I downloaded the DirectX SDK which apparently has samples but it was a waste of 500mb of bandwidth as it had nothing relevant. Perhaps there is some way to force it not queueing up frames if that is the problem? If you want code say the word and I'll paste some in. But it's really quite simple and nothing much happens, i'm convinced it's a problem with the EVR renderer. EDIT: Oh and one other thing, what does VLC use? If you go into vlc options and change the renderer to anything but default, they all suck. So is it using VMR7? Or its own?

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• Python constructor does weird things with optional parameters

  - by christangrant

  Can you help me understand of the behaviour and implications of the python __init__ constructor. It seems like when there is an optional parameter and you try and set an existing object to a new object the optional value of the existing object is preserved and copied. Ok that was confusing... so look at an example I concocted below. In the code below I am trying to make a tree structure with nodes and possibly many children . In the first class NodeBad, the constructor has two parameters, the value and any possible children. The second class NodeGood only takes the value of the node as a parameter. Both have an addchild method to add a child to a node. When creating a tree with the NodeGood class, it works as expected. However, when doing the same thing with the NodeBad class, it seems as though a child can only be added once! The code below will result in the following output: Good Tree 1 2 3 [< 3 >] Bad Tree 1 2 2 [< 2 >, < 3 >] Que Pasa? Here is the Example: #!/usr/bin/python class NodeBad: def __init__(self, value, c=[]): self.value = value self.children = c def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value class NodeGood: def __init__(self, value): self.value = value self.children = [] def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value if __name__ == '__main__': print 'Good Tree' ng = NodeGood(1) # Root Node rootgood = ng ng.addchild(NodeGood(2)) # 1nd Child ng = ng.children[0] ng.addchild(NodeGood(3)) # 2nd Child print rootgood.value print rootgood.children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children print 'Bad Tree' nb = NodeBad(1) # Root Node rootbad = nb nb.addchild(NodeBad(2)) # 1st Child nb = nb.children[0] nb.addchild(NodeBad(3)) # 2nd Child print rootbad.value print rootbad.children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children

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• How do we, as a community, help encourage programming in public schools? (Or state Schools for the U

  - by NoMoreZealots

  PRIMARY MOTIVATION My office gets involved with the "First Robotics" competitions and one thing that lingers year to year is the students typically have no preparation for doing even simple programming as part of the public schools system. While the science classes provide some basic grasp of mechanical and electrical concepts, by in large computer programming gets no coverage from the curriculum. (This my be different in other areas of the country/world.) What makes it worse is there is only a short period of time you have to prepare the student's and help them design the robot. Talking to some professors from local colleges, it's a problem because you can't assume even the most basic understanding for freshman CS majors. Languages like Python, Lua and BASIC are simple enough for at least high school level students, if not younger. SCOPE So how do you get public schools to support a programming, at least to the level of "Try it in BASIC" examples that used to be at the end of a chapter in my Algebra book? At least enough to prepare them for event's such as the FIRST Robotic competitions. Which the primary objectives are to teach problem solving and team work, and to possible foster an interest in Math, Science and Engineering in general. (Not force feed to them, as some people her seem to be implying.) Edit: Why teach kids: (Since 2000 CS enrollment in US colleges has decreased by 70% while college enrollment has increased, this is a PROBLEM.) Saying there is no value in teaching someone programming in Jr./High school because they might think "they know programming." Is like saying there's no value in teaching High school science and physics, because they might decide they "know physics." Leading to abuse like: "I passed a high school physics class, I'm going to develop a Unified Quantum Gravitational Theory." Better Prepared students are better students. Instead it would allows college programs to raise the bar on the entry level courses, allowing students to be weeded out based on their understanding of more advanced material. Plus people who did poorly in that in topic in High school aren't as likely to say "I think there's money in computer's so I'll computer science." Plus if people take it in high school and decide THEN that it's not for them, it's better than them wasting their money to PAY a college to figure that out. The result is that people who take the degree are more likely to succeed and be there for the RIGHT reasons. (i.e. It's what they REALLY want to do. And that's REALLY the key to being good at anything.) Programming is like anything else, the more practice and genuine interest you have the better you get. If you start them later, they get less practice. The earlier give them the opportunity to start, the more practice they will get. All other things equal, the more practice the better the programmer.

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• Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

  - by xTRUMANx

  I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU. UPDATE Vlad asked me to check what the CurrentThread's CurrentUICulture is. So I added a MessageBox on my constructor to tell me what the CurrentUICulture two-letter code is as well as the value of my Language user string. MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Current Language: {0}\nCurrent UI Culture: {1}", Properties.Settings.Default.Language, Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName)); When the wrong language is loaded, both the Language string and CurrentUICulture have the wrong language. So I guess the CurrentUICulture has been cleared and my problem is actually with the Language Setting. So I guess the problem is that my application sometimes loads the previously saved language string rather than the last saved language string. If the app is restarted, it will then load the actual saved language string.

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• Hotfixing Code running inside Web Container with Groovy

  - by raoulsson

  I have a webapp running that has a bug. I know how to fix it in the sources. However I cannot redeploy the app as I would have to take it offline to do so. (At least not right now). I now want to fix the code "at runtime". Surgery on the living object, so to speak. The app is implemented in Java and is build on top of Seam. I have added a Groovy Console to the app previous to the last release. (A way to run arbitrary code at runtime) The normal way of adding behaviour to a class with Groovy would be similar to this: String.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } println "anything".foo(3) This code added the method foo to java.lang.String and prints 9. I can do the same thing with classes running inside my webapp container. New instances will thereafter show the same behaviour: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) Works as excpected. All good so far. My problem is now that the container, the web framework, Seam in this case, has already instantiated and cached the classes that I would like to manipulate (that is change their behaviour to reflect my bug fix). Ideally this code would work: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def x = org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(com.my.package.SomeService) println x.foo(3) However the instantiation of SomeService has already happened and there is no effect. Thus I need a way to make my changes "sticky". Has the groovy magic gone after my script has been run? Well, after logging out and in again, I can run this piece of code and get the expected result: def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) So the foo method is still around and it looks like my change has been permanent... So I guess the question that remains is how to force Seam to re-instantiate all its components and/or how to permanently make the change on all living instances...?

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• Error trying to run rails server

  - by David87

  I am trying to get a basic Rails application to run on my Mac OS X 10.6.5. I created a new app called demo (rails new demo), then went into the demo directory and tried to start the app with rails server. Here is the error message I received: "/Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" I checked bundle install in the demo folder: "Using rake (0.8.7) Using abstract (1.0.0) Using activesupport (3.0.3) Using builder (2.1.2) Using i18n (0.5.0) Using activemodel (3.0.3) Using erubis (2.6.6) Using rack (1.2.1) Using rack-mount (0.6.13) Using rack-test (0.5.6) Using tzinfo (0.3.23) Using actionpack (3.0.3) Using mime-types (1.16) Using polyglot (0.3.1) Using treetop (1.4.9) Using mail (2.2.13) Using actionmailer (3.0.3) Using arel (2.0.6) Using activerecord (3.0.3) Using activeresource (3.0.3) Using bundler (1.0.7) Using thor (0.14.6) Using railties (3.0.3) Using rails (3.0.3) Using sqlite3-ruby (1.3.2) Your bundle is complete! Use bundle show [gemname] to see where a bundled gem is installed." Ruby, RubyGems, and sqlite3 were installed using MacPorts. Then I used gem to try to install the sqlite3-ruby interface. (sudo gem install sqlite3-ruby). Here is where I first noticed something could be off: "Successfully installed sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known Installing RDoc documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known " I had rails running well on my system a few months ago, so I figured maybe I had some duplicates and it was trying to use the wrong one. I ran: "for cmd in ruby irb gem rake; do which $cmd; done" and got: "/opt/local/bin/ruby /opt/local/bin/irb /opt/local/bin/gem /opt/local/bin/rake" Checking where sqlite3 also gets me: "/opt/local/bin/sqlite3" so they all seem to be in the right place. Obviously /opt/local/bin is in my system path. If I check gems server, it shows that I have installed sqlite3-ruby 1.3.2 gem. Not sure what the problem could be? I am using ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10]. Macports claims this is the latest (although ive seen 1.9.1) One more thing-- in irb, I tried to check which version of sqlite3 my sqlite3-ruby is bound to, but I can only get this far: ":irb(main):001:0 require 'rubygems' = true irb(main):002:0 require 'sqlite3' /Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" Any suggestions? Im hoping I overlooked something obvious. Thanks

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• Android Phonegap - TIMEOUT ERROR when trying to set a WebViewClient

  - by Spike777

  I'm working with Android and Phonegap, and at the moment I'm having trouble with one simple thing. I need to setup a webViewClient to the PhoneGap webView in order to capture the URL of a page finished and to work with that. This is the code: public class PhoneGapTest extends DroidGap { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); super.setBooleanProperty("loadInWebView", true); super.clearCache(); super.keepRunning = false; super.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/www/index.html"); super.appView.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient(){ @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } }); } That code doesn't seems to work, the page never loads and I get a TIMEOUT ERROR, but if I remove the "setWebViewClient" part the page loads perfectly. I saw that there is a class CordovaWebViewClient, do I have to use that instead of WebViewClient? I found this way on the web: this.appView.setWebViewClient(new CordovaWebViewClient(this){ @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(final WebView view, String url) { Log.i("BugTest", "shouldOverrideUrlLoading: " + url); return true; } @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } @Override public void doUpdateVisitedHistory(WebView view, String url, boolean isReload){ } }); But that code isn't working either, I still got a TIMEOUT ERROR. I also saw that there is already a webVieClient member, but I don't if I have to use it and how. I'm working with Phonegap version 1.9.0 Thanks for reading Answer to Simon: This doesn't work either, I still receive a TIMEOUT ERROR, there is something wrong? public class MainActivity extends DroidGap { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); super.init(); super.appView.clearCache(true); super.appView.clearHistory(); this.appView.setWebViewClient(new CustomCordovaWebViewClient(this)); super.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/www/index.html"); } public class CustomCordovaWebViewClient extends CordovaWebViewClient { public CustomCordovaWebViewClient(DroidGap ctx) { super(ctx); } @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap bitmap) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageStarted: " + url); } @Override public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.i("TEST", "onPageFinished: " + url); } @Override public void doUpdateVisitedHistory(WebView view, String url, boolean isReload){ } @Override public void onReceivedError(WebView view, int errorCode, String description, String failingUrl) { } } }

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• chaining array of tasks with continuation

  - by Andrei Cristof

  I have a Task structure that is a little bit complex(for me at least). The structure is: (where T = Task) T1, T2, T3... Tn. There's an array (a list of files), and the T's represent tasks created for each file. Each T has always two subtasks that it must complete or fail: Tn.1, Tn.2 - download and install. For each download (Tn.1) there are always two subtasks to try, download from two paths(Tn.1.1, Tn.1.2). Execution would be: First, download file: Tn1.1. If Tn.1.1 fails, then Tn.1.2 executes. If either from download tasks returns OK - execute Tn.2. If Tn.2 executed or failed - go to next Tn. I figured the first thing to do, was to write all this structure with jagged arrays: private void CreateTasks() { //main array Task<int>[][][] mainTask = new Task<int>[_queuedApps.Count][][]; for (int i = 0; i < mainTask.Length; i++) { Task<int>[][] arr = GenerateOperationTasks(); mainTask[i] = arr; } } private Task<int>[][] GenerateOperationTasks() { //two download tasks Task<int>[] downloadTasks = new Task<int>[2]; downloadTasks[0] = new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }); downloadTasks[1] = new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }); //one installation task Task<int>[] installTask = new Task<int>[1] { new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }) }; //operations Task is jagged - keeps tasks above Task<int>[][] operationTasks = new Task<int>[2][]; operationTasks[0] = downloadTasks; operationTasks[1] = installTask; return operationTasks; } So now I got my mainTask array of tasks, containing nicely ordered tasks just as described above. However after reading the docs on ContinuationTasks, I realise this does not help me since I must call e.g. Task.ContinueWith(Task2). I'm stumped about doing this on my mainTask array. I can't write mainTask[0].ContinueWith(mainTask[1]) because I dont know the size of the array. If I could somehow reference the next task in the array (but without knowing its index), but cant figure out how. Any ideas? Thank you very much for your help. Regards,

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• Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

  - by epatel

  Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

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• Javascript HTML and Script injection issue in IE

  - by MartinHN

  Hi I have a javascript variable containing escaped HTML. There can be script tags inside the HTML, like this: var valueToInsert = "%3Cscript%20type%3D%22text/javascript%22%3Ealert%28%27test%27%29%3B%3C/script%3E%0A%3Cscript%20type%3D%22text/javascript%22%20src%3D%22http%3A//devserver/testinclude.js%22%3E%3C/script%3E%0A%3Cimg%20src%3D%22http%3A//www.footballpictures.net/data/media/131/manchester_united_logo.jpg%22%20/%3E" I want to append this to the DOM, and get all the javascript fired as expected. Right now I'm using this approach: var div = document.createElement("div"); div.innerHTML = unescape(valueToInsert); document.body.appendChild(div); In IE, at the time i set div.innerHTML - all script tags are removed. If I use jQuery to and do this: $(document.body).append(valueToInsert) It all works fine. Bad thing is, that I cannot use jQuery as this code will be added to sites I'm not in control of using some "already-implemented" script includes. Does someone have a trick? If jQuery can do it, it must be possible? I had another issue in Opera. I changed the injection script to be this: (still doesn't work in IE) var div = document.createElement("div"); div.innerHTML = unescape(valueToInsert); var a = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < div.childNodes.length; i++) a.push(div.childNodes[i]); for (var i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].nodeName == "SCRIPT" && a[i].getAttribute("src") != null && a[i].getAttribute("src") != "" && typeof (a[i].getAttribute("src")) != "undefined") { var scriptTag = document.createElement("script"); scriptTag.src = a[i].getAttribute("src"); scriptTag.type = "text/javascript"; document.body.appendChild(scriptTag); } else if (a[i].nodeName == "SCRIPT") { eval(a[i].innerHTML); } else { document.body.appendChild(a[i]); } }

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• C# Extend array type to overload operators

  - by Episodex

  I'd like to create my own class extending array of ints. Is that possible? What I need is array of ints that can be added by "+" operator to another array (each element added to each), and compared by "==", so it could (hopefully) be used as a key in dictionary. The thing is I don't want to implement whole IList interface to my new class, but only add those two operators to existing array class. I'm trying to do something like this: class MyArray : Array<int> But it's not working that way obviously ;). Sorry if I'm unclear but I'm searching solution for hours now... UPDATE: I tried something like this: class Zmienne : IEquatable<Zmienne> { public int[] x; public Zmienne(int ilosc) { x = new int[ilosc]; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (obj == null || GetType() != obj.GetType()) { return false; } return base.Equals((Zmienne)obj); } public bool Equals(Zmienne drugie) { if (x.Length != drugie.x.Length) return false; else { for (int i = 0; i < x.Length; i++) { if (x[i] != drugie.x[i]) return false; } } return true; } public override int GetHashCode() { int hash = x[0].GetHashCode(); for (int i = 1; i < x.Length; i++) hash = hash ^ x[i].GetHashCode(); return hash; } } Then use it like this: Zmienne tab1 = new Zmienne(2); Zmienne tab2 = new Zmienne(2); tab1.x[0] = 1; tab1.x[1] = 1; tab2.x[0] = 1; tab2.x[1] = 1; if (tab1 == tab2) Console.WriteLine("Works!"); And no effect. I'm not good with interfaces and overriding methods unfortunately :(. As for reason I'm trying to do it. I have some equations like: x1 + x2 = 0.45 x1 + x4 = 0.2 x2 + x4 = 0.11 There are a lot more of them, and I need to for example add first equation to second and search all others to find out if there is any that matches the combination of x'es resulting in that adding. Maybe I'm going in totally wrong direction?

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• Dynamic data-entry value store

  - by simendsjo

  I'm creating a data-entry application where users are allowed to create the entry schema. My first version of this just created a single table per entry schema with each entry spanning a single or multiple columns (for complex types) with the appropriate data type. This allowed for "fast" querying (on small datasets as I didn't index all columns) and simple synchronization where the data-entry was distributed on several databases. I'm not quite happy with this solution though; the only positive thing is the simplicity... I can only store a fixed number of columns. I need to create indexes on all columns. I need to recreate the table on schema changes. Some of my key design criterias are: Very fast querying (Using a simple domain specific query language) Writes doesn't have to be fast Many concurrent users Schemas will change often Schemas might contain many thousand columns The data-entries might be distributed and needs syncronization. Preferable MySQL and SQLite - Databases like DB2 and Oracle is out of the question. Using .Net/Mono I've been thinking of a couple of possible designs, but none of them seems like a good choice. Solution 1: Union like table containing a Type column and one nullable column per type. This avoids joins, but will definitly use a lot of space. Solution 2: Key/value store. All values are stored as string and converted when needed. Also use a lot of space, and of course, I hate having to convert everything to string. Solution 3: Use an xml database or store values as xml. Without any experience I would think this is quite slow (at least for the relational model unless there is some very good xpath support). I also would like to avoid an xml database as other parts of the application fits better as a relational model, and being able to join the data is helpful. I cannot help to think that someone has solved (some of) this already, but I'm unable to find anything. Not quite sure what to search for either... I know market research is doing something like this for their questionnaires, but there are few open source implementations, and the ones I've found doesn't quite fit the bill. PSPP has much of the logic I'm thinking of; primitive column types, many columns, many rows, fast querying and merging. Too bad it doesn't work against a database.. And of course... I don't need 99% of the provided functionality, but a lot of stuff not included. I'm not sure this is the right place to ask such a design related question, but I hope someone here has some tips, know of any existing work, or can point me to a better place to ask such a question. Thanks in advance!

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• Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

  - by sah302

  Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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• Expression Too Complex In Access 2007

  - by Jazzepi

  When I try to run this query in Access through the ODBC interface into a MySQL database I get an "Expression too complex in query expression" error. The essential thing I'm trying to do is translate abbreviated names of languages into their full body English counterparts. I was curious if there was some way to "trick" access into thinking the expression is smaller with sub queries, or if someone else had a better idea of how to solve this problem. I thought about making a temporary table and doing a join on it, but that's not supported in Access SQL. Just as an FYI, the query worked fine until I added the big long IFF chain. I tested the query on a smaller IFF chain for three languages, and that wasn't an issue, so the problem definitely stems from the huge IFF chain (It's 26 deep). Also, I might be able to drop some of the options (like combining the different forms of Chinese or Portuguese) As a test, I was able to get the SQL query to work after paring it down to 14 IFF() statements, but that's a far cry from the 26 languages I'd like to represent. SELECT TOP 5 Count( * ) AS [Number of visits by language], IIf(login.lang="ar","Arabic",IIf(login.lang="bg","Bulgarian",IIf(login.lang="zh_CN","Chinese (Simplified Han)",IIf(login.lang="zh_TW","Chinese (Traditional Han)",IIf(login.lang="cs","Czech",IIf(login.lang="da","Danish",IIf(login.lang="de","German",IIf(login.lang="en_US","United States English",IIf(login.lang="en_GB","British English",IIf(login.lang="es","Spanish",IIf(login.lang="fr","French",IIf(login.lang="el","Greek",IIf(login.lang="it","Italian",IIf(login.lang="ko","Korean",IIf(login.lang="hu","Hungarian",IIf(login.lang="nl","Dutch",IIf(login.lang="pl","Polish",IIf(login.lang="pt_PT","European Portuguese",IIf(login.lang="pt_BR","Brazilian Portuguese",IIf(login.lang="ru","Russian",IIf(login.lang="sk","Slovak",IIf(login.lang="sl","Slovenian","IIf(login.lang="fi","Finnish",IIf(login.lang="sv","Swedish",IIf(login.lang="tr","Turkish","Unknown")))))))))))))))))))))))))) AS [Language] FROM login, reservations, reservation_users, schedules WHERE (reservations.start_date Between DATEDIFF('s','1970-01-01 00:00:00',[Starting Date in the Following Format YYYY/MM/DD]) And DATEDIFF('s','1970-01-01 00:00:00',[Ending Date in the Following Format YYYY/MM/DD])) And reservations.is_blackout=0 And reservation_users.memberid=login.memberid And reservation_users.resid=reservations.resid And reservation_users.invited=0 And reservations.scheduleid=schedules.scheduleid And scheduletitle=[Schedule Title] GROUP BY login.lang ORDER BY Count( * ) DESC; @ Michael Todd I completely agree. The list of languages should have been a table in the database and the login.lang should have been a FK into that table. Unfortunately this isn't how the database was written, and it's not really mine to modify. The languages are placed into the login.lang field by the PHP running on top of the database.

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• Choosing a distributed shared memory solution

  - by mindas

  I have a task to build a prototype for a massively scalable distributed shared memory (DSM) app. The prototype would only serve as a proof-of-concept, but I want to spend my time most effectively by picking the components which would be used in the real solution later on. The aim of this solution is to take data input from an external source, churn it and make the result available for a number of frontends. Those "frontends" would just take the data from the cache and serve it without extra processing. The amount of frontend hits on this data can literally be millions per second. The data itself is very volatile; it can (and does) change quite rapidly. However the frontends should see "old" data until the newest has been processed and cached. The processing and writing is done by a single (redundant) node while other nodes only read the data. In other words: no read-through behaviour. I was looking into solutions like memcached however this particular one doesn't fulfil all our requirements which are listed below: The solution must at least have Java client API which is reasonably well maintained as the rest of app is written in Java and we are seasoned Java developers; The solution must be totally elastic: it should be possible to add new nodes without restarting other nodes in the cluster; The solution must be able to handle failover. Yes, I realize this means some overhead, but the overall served data size isn't big (1G max) so this shouldn't be a problem. By "failover" I mean seamless execution without hardcoding/changing server IP address(es) like in memcached clients when a node goes down; Ideally it should be possible to specify the degree of data overlapping (e.g. how many copies of the same data should be stored in the DSM cluster); There is no need to permanently store all the data but there might be a need of post-processing of some of the data (e.g. serialization to the DB). Price. Obviously we prefer free/open source but we're happy to pay a reasonable amount if a solution is worth it. In any way, paid 24hr/day support contract is a must. The whole thing has to be hosted in our data centers so SaaS offerings like Amazon SimpleDB are out of scope. We would only consider this if no other options would be available. Ideally the solution would be strictly consistent (as in CAP); however, eventual consistence can be considered as an option. Thanks in advance for any ideas.

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• Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

  - by Carl Jokl

  I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

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• Excel string manipulation to check data consistency

  - by chefsmart

  Background information: - There are nearly 7000 individuals and there is data about their performances in one, two or three tests. Every individual has taken the 1st test (let's call it Test M). Some of those who have taken Test M have also taken Test I, and some of those who have taken Test I have also taken Test B. For the first two tests (M and I), students can score grades I, II, or III. Depending on the grades they are awarded points -- 3 for grade I, 2 for II, 1 for III. The last Test B is just a pass or a fail result with no grades. Those passing this test get 1 point, with no points for failure. (Well actually, grades are awarded, but all grades are given a common 1 point). An amateur has entered data to represent these students and their grades in an Excel file. Problem is, this person has done the worst thing possible - he has developed his own notation and entered all test information in a single cell --- and made my life hell. The file originally had two text columns, one for individual's id, and the second for test info, if one could call it that. It's horrible, I know, and I am suffering. In the image, if you see "M-II-2 I-III-1" it means the person got grade II in Test M for 2 points and grade III in Test I for 1 point. Some have taken only one test, some two, and some three. When the file came to me for processing and analyzing the performance of students, I sent it back with instructions to insert 3 additional columns with only the grades for the three tests. The file now looks as follows. Columns C and D represent grades I, II, and III using 1,2 and 3 respectively. Column C is for Test M, column D for Test I. Column E says BA (B Achieved!) if the individual has passed Test B. Now that you have the above information, let's get to the problem. I don't trust this and want to check whether data in column B matches with data in columns C,D and E. That is, I want to examine the string in column B and find out whether the figures in columns C,D and E are correct. All help is really appreciated. P.S. - I had exported this to MySQL via ODBC and that is why you are seeing those NULLs. I tried doing this in MySQL too, and really will accept a MySQL or an Excel solution, I don't have a preference. Edit : - See file with sample data

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• Why does my ko computed observable not update bound UI elements when its value changes?

  - by Allen

  I'm trying to wrap a cookie in a computed observable (which I'll later turn into a protectedObservable) and I'm having some problems with the computed observable. I was under the opinion that changes to the computed observable would be broadcast to any UI elements that have been bound to it. I've created the following fiddle JavaScript: var viewModel = {}; // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; }, 'read': function () { return privateZipcode; } } }(); viewModel.zipcode = ko.computed({ read: function () { return cookie.read(); }, write: function (value) { cookie.write(value); }, owner: viewModel }); ko.applyBindings(viewModel);? HTML: zipcode: <input type='text' data-bind="value: zipcode"> <br /> zipcode: <span data-bind="text: zipcode"></span>? I'm not using an observable to store privateZipcode since that's really just going to be in a cookie. I'm hoping that the ko.computed will provide the notifications and binding functionality that I need, though most of the examples I've seen with ko.computed end up using a ko.observable underneath the covers. Shouldn't the act of writing the value to my computed observable signal the UI elements that are bound to its value? Shouldn't these just update? Workaround I've got a simple workaround where I just use a ko.observable along side of my cookie store and using that will trigger the required updates to my DOM elements but this seems completely unnecessary, unless ko.computed lacks the signaling / dependency type functionality that ko.observable has. My workaround fiddle, you'll notice that the only thing that changes is that I added a seperateObservable that isn't used as a store, its only purpose is to signal to the UI that the underlying data has changed. // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; // extra observable that isnt really used as a store, just to trigger updates to the UI var seperateObservable = ko.observable(privateZipcode); return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; seperateObservable(val); }, 'read': function () { seperateObservable(); return privateZipcode; } } }(); This makes sense and works as I'd expect because viewModel.zipcode depends on seperateObservable and updates to that should (and does) signal the UI to update. What I don't understand, is why doesn't a call to the write function on my ko.computed signal the UI to update, since that element is bound to that ko.computed? I suspected that I might have to use something in knockout to manually signal that my ko.computed has been updated, and I'm fine with that, that makes sense. I just haven't been able to find a way to accomplish that.

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• How can I limit the cache used by copying so there is still memory available for other cache?

  - by Peter

  Basic situation: I am copying some NTFS disks in openSuSE. Each one is 2TB. When I do this, the system runs slow. My guesses: I believe it is likely due to caching. Linux decides to discard useful cache (eg. kde4 bloat, virtual machine disks, LibreOffice binaries, Thunderbird binaries, etc.) and instead fill all available memory (24 GB total) with stuff from the copying disks, which will be read only once, then written and never used again. So then any time I use these apps (or kde4), the disk needs to be read again, and reading the bloat off the disk again makes things freeze/hiccup. Due to the cache being gone and the fact that these bloated applications need lots of cache, this makes the system horribly slow. Since it is USB,the disk and disk controller are not the bottleneck, so using ionice does not make it faster. I believe it is the cache rather than just the motherboard going too slow, because if I stop everything copying, it still runs choppy for a while until it recaches everything. And if I restart the copying, it takes a minute before it is choppy again. But also, I can limit it to around 40 MB/s, and it runs faster again (not because it has the right things cached, but because the motherboard busses have lots of extra bandwidth for the system disks). I can fully accept a performance loss from my motherboard's IO capability being completely consumed (which is 100% used, meaning 0% wasted power which makes me happy), but I can't accept that this caching mechanism performs so terribly in this specific use case. # free total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 24731556 24531876 199680 0 8834056 12998916 -/+ buffers/cache: 2698904 22032652 Swap: 4194300 24764 4169536 I also tried the same thing on Ubuntu, which causes a total system hang instead. ;) And to clarify, I am not asking how to leave memory free for the "system", but for "cache". I know that cache memory is automatically given back to the system when needed, but my problem is that it is not reserved for caching of specific things. Question: Is there some way to tell these copy operations to limit memory usage so some important things remain cached, and therefore any slowdowns are a result of normal disk usage and not rereading the same commonly used files? For example, is there a setting of max memory per process/user/file system allowed to be used as cache/buffers?

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• Delphi / MySql : Problems escaping strings

  - by mawg

  N00b here, having problems escaping strings. I used the QuotedStr() function - shouldn't that be enough. Unfortunately, the string that I am trying to quote is rather messy, but I will post it here in case anyone wants to paste it into WinMerge or KDiff3, etc. I am trying to store an entire Delphi form into the database, rather than into a .DFM file. It has only one field, a TEdit edit box. The debugger shows the form as text as 'object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = 'MS Sans Serif''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' 'Visible=False')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A before calling QuotedStr() and ''object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = ''MS Sans Serif'''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' ''Visible=False'')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A''' afterwards. The strange thing is that my complete command 'INSERT INTO designerFormDfm(designerFormDfmText) VALUES ("'object Form1: TScriptForm'#$D#$A' Left = 0'#$D#$A' Top = 0'#$D#$A' Align = alClient'#$D#$A' BorderStyle = bsNone'#$D#$A' ClientHeight = 517'#$D#$A' ClientWidth = 993'#$D#$A' Color = clBtnFace'#$D#$A' Font.Charset = DEFAULT_CHARSET'#$D#$A' Font.Color = clWindowText'#$D#$A' Font.Height = -11'#$D#$A' Font.Name = ''MS Sans Serif'''#$D#$A' Font.Style = []'#$D#$A' OldCreateOrder = False'#$D#$A' SaveProps.Strings = ('#$D#$A' ''Visible=False'')'#$D#$A' PixelsPerInch = 96'#$D#$A' TextHeight = 13'#$D#$A' object Edit1: TEdit'#$D#$A' Left = 192'#$D#$A' Top = 64'#$D#$A' Width = 121'#$D#$A' Height = 21'#$D#$A' TabOrder = 8'#$D#$A' end'#$D#$A'end'#$D#$A''");' executes in a MySql console, but not from Delphi, where I pass that command as parameter command to a function which ADOCommand.CommandText := command; ADOCommand.CommandType := cmdText; ADOCommand.Execute(); I can only assume that I am having problems escpaing sequences which contain single quotes (and QuotedStr() doesn't seem to escape backslahes(?!)) What am I doing that is obviously, glaringly wrong?

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• Accessing Content Page elements

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I am facing a strange problem.. may be i am overlooking something and not able to find the silly issue. Need your help! I have a Master page and a Content Page: <form id="AccountForm" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MenuHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <hr /> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> And my content page has some form elements: <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> First Name: <asp:TextBox ID="fName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Middle Name: <asp:TextBox ID="mName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Family Name: <asp:TextBox ID="lName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Birthday: <asp:TextBox ID="birthday" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Mobile Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="mobile" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Alternate Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="phone" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> I also have the code for submit button in the content page where i try to retrieve the values from the form elements and persist it into DB. Here is the SubmitButton_Click code: protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { log.Info("From Submit button: " + customerObject.first_name + " " + customerObject.family_name); if (fName != null) log.Info("First Name is not null"); log.Info("First Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Middle Name:" + mName.Text); log.Info("Family Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Mobile:" + mobile.Text); log.Info("Phone: " + phone.Text); log.Info("Address:" + bAddressL1.Text + bAddressL2.Text); Strangly.. i don't get any data that is filled into my text fields? Their objects are not null as well!! why is this behaviour happening? I am not trying to access elements in master page or other.. all the fields are in the content page.. only thing is there is no form element in the content page and the form element is in master page! Thanks in advance for your suggestions and answers. Abdel Raoof Olakara

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• [Java] Send cookie with http request problem

  - by nkr1pt

  I'm trying to get a certain cookie in a java client by creating a series of Http requests. It looks like I'm getting a valid cookie from the server but when I'm sending out a request to the fnal url with the seemingly valid cookie I should get some lines of xml in the response but the response is blank because the cookie isw rong or is invalidated because a session has closed or an other problem which I can't figure out. The cookie handed out by the server expires at the end of the session. It seems to me the cookie is valid because when I do the same calls in firefox, a similar cookie with the same name and starting with the 3 first same letters and of the same length is stored in firefox, also expiring at the end of the session. If I then make a request to the final url with only this particular cookie stored in firefox (removed all other cookies), the xml is nicely rendered on the page. Any ideas about what I am doing wrong in this piece of code? One other thing, when I use the value from the very similar cookie generated and strored in firefox in this piece of code, the last request does give xml feedback in the http response! // Validate url = new URL(URL_VALIDATE); conn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setRequestProperty("Cookie", cookie); conn.connect(); String headerName = null; for (int i = 1; (headerName = conn.getHeaderFieldKey(i)) != null; i++) { if (headerName.equals("Set-Cookie")) { if (conn.getHeaderField(i).startsWith("JSESSIONID")) { cookie = conn.getHeaderField(i).substring(0, conn.getHeaderField(i).indexOf(";")).trim(); } } } // Get the XML url = new URL(URL_XML_TOTALS); conn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setRequestProperty("Cookie", cookie); conn.connect(); // Get the response StringBuffer answer = new StringBuffer(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); String line; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { answer.append(line); } reader.close(); //Output the response System.out.println(answer.toString())

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