Search Results

Search found 19966 results on 799 pages for 'wild thing'.

Page 743/799 | < Previous Page | 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750  | Next Page >

  • Animating a pulsing UILabel?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I am trying to animate the color the the text on a UILabel to pulse from: [Black] to [White] to [Black] and repeat. - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:0.0]]; [UIView animateWithDuration:1 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:1.0]];} completion:nil]; } . [self setFadeTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(timerFlash:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]]; Firstly I am not sure of my method, my plan (as you can see above) was to set up a animation block and call it using a repeating NSTimer until canceled. My second problem (as you can see above) is that I am animating from black (alpha 0) to white (alpha 1) but I don't know how to animate back to black again so the animation loops seamlessly Essentially what I want is the text color to pulse on a UILabel until the user presses a button to continue. EDIT_001: I was getting into trouble because you can't animate [UILabel setColor:] you can however animated [UILabel setAlpha:] so I am going to give that a go. EDIT_002: - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.5]; [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.9];} completion:nil]; } This works (BTW: I do want it to stop which is why I hooked it up to a NSTimer so I can cancel that) the only thing is that this animates from midGray to nearWhite and then pops back. Does anyone know how I would animate back from nearWhite to midGray so I get a nice smooth cycle? EDIT_003: (Solution) The code suggested by dave DeLong (see below) does indeed work when modified to use the CALayer opacity style attribute: UILabel *navTitle; @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *navTitle; . // ADD ANIMATION CABasicAnimation *anim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; [anim setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]]; [anim setFromValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.5]]; [anim setToValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]]; [anim setAutoreverses:YES]; [anim setDuration:0.5]; [[[self navTitle] layer] addAnimation:anim forKey:@"flash"]; . // REMOVE ANIMATION [[[self navTitle] layer] removeAnimationForKey:@"flash__"];

    Read the article

  • What to name column in database table that holds versioning number

    - by rwmnau
    I'm trying to figure out what to call the column in my database table that holds an INT to specific "record version". I'm currently using "RecordOrder", but I don't like that, because people think higher=newer, but the way I'm using it, lower=newer (with "1" being the current record, "2" being the second most current, "3" older still, and so on). I've considered "RecordVersion", but I'm afraid that would have the same problem. Any other suggestions? "RecordAge"? I'm doing this because when I insert into the table, instead of having to find out what version is next, then run the risk of having that number stolen from me before I write, I just insert insert with a "RecordOrder" of 0. There's a trigger on the table AFTER INSERT that increments all the "RecordOrder" numbers for that key by 1, so the record I just inserted becomes "1", and all others are increased by 1. That way, you can get a person's current record by selection RecordOrder=1, instead of getting the MAX(RecordOrder) and then selecting that. PS - I'm also open to criticism about why this is a terrible idea and I should be incrementing this index instead. This just seemed to make lookups much easier, but if it's a bad idea, please enlighten me! Some details about the data, as an example: I have the following database table: CREATE TABLE AmountDue ( CustomerNumber INT, AmountDue DECIMAL(14,2), RecordOrder SMALLINT, RecordCreated DATETIME ) A subset of my data looks like this: CustomerNumber Amountdue RecordOrder RecordCreated 100 0 1 2009-12-19 05:10:10.123 100 10.05 2 2009-12-15 06:12:10.123 100 100.00 3 2009-12-14 14:19:10.123 101 5.00 1 2009-11-14 05:16:10.123 In this example, there are three rows for customer 100 - they owed $100, then $10.05, and now they owe nothing. Let me know if I need to clarify it some more. UPDATE: The "RecordOrder" and "RecordCreated" columns are not available to the user - they're only there for internal use, and to help figure out which is the current customer record. Also, I could use it to return an appropriately-ordered customer history, though I could just as easily do that with the date. I can accomplish the same thing as an incrementing "Record Version" with just the RecordCreated date, I suppose, but that removes the convenience of knowing that RecordOrder=1 is the current record, and I'm back to doing a sub-query with MAX or MIN on the DateTime to determine the most recent record.

    Read the article

  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

    Read the article

  • JPA Inheritance and Relations - Clarification question

    - by Michael
    Here the scenario: I have a unidirectional 1:N Relation from Person Entity to Address Entity. And a bidirectional 1:N Relation from User Entity to Vehicle Entity. Here is the Address class: @Entity public class Address implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) privat Long int ... The Vehicles Class: @Entity public class Vehicle implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne private User owner; ... @PreRemove protected void preRemove() { //this.owner.removeVehicle(this); } public Vehicle(User owner) { this.owner = owner; ... The Person Class: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="PERSON_TYP") public class Person implements Serializable { @Id protected String username; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval=true) @JoinTable(name = "USER_ADDRESS", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USERNAME"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "ADDRESS_ID")) protected List<Address> addresses; ... @PreRemove protected void prePersonRemove(){ this.addresses = null; } ... The User Class which is inherited from the Person class: @Entity @Table(name = "Users") @DiscriminatorValue("USER") public class User extends Person { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.REMOVE}) private List<Vehicle> vehicles; ... When I try to delete a User who has an address I have to use orphanremoval=true on the corresponding relation (see above) and the preRemove function where the address List is set to null. Otherwise (no orphanremoval and adress list not set to null) a foreign key contraint fails. When i try to delete a user who has an vehicle a concurrent Acces Exception is thrown when do not uncomment the "this.owner.removeVehicle(this);" in the preRemove Function of the vehicle. The thing i do not understand is that before i used this inheritance there was only a User class which had all relations: @Entity @Table(name = "Users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id protected String username; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.REMOVE}) private List<Vehicle> vehicles; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_ADDRESS", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USERNAME") inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "ADDRESS_ID")) ptivate List<Address> addresses; ... No orphanremoval, and the vehicle class has used the uncommented statement above in its preRemove function. And - I could delte a user who has an address and i could delte a user who has a vehicle. So why doesn't everything work without changes when i use inheritance? I use JPA 2.0, EclipseLink 2.0.2, MySQL 5.1.x and Netbeans 6.8

    Read the article

  • flickr.photos.search strange behavior with nested xml response

    - by JohnIdol
    I am querying flickr with the following request: view-source:http://www.flickr.com/services/rest/?method=flickr.photos.search&api_key=MY_KEY&text=cork&per_page=12&&format=rest if I put the above url in the browser I get the following as I would expect: <rsp stat="ok"> <photos page="1" pages="22661" perpage="12" total="271924"> <photo id="4587565363" owner="46277999@N05" secret="717118838d" server="4029" farm="5" title="06052010(001)" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587466773" owner="25901874@N06" secret="32c5a1a57f" server="4002" farm="5" title="black wine cork 2 BW" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4588084730" owner="25901874@N06" secret="b27eef5635" server="4032" farm="5" title="black wine cork 2" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587457789" owner="43115275@N00" secret="ae0daa0ab6" server="4034" farm="5" title="Matthew" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587443837" owner="49967920@N07" secret="2b4c1a58de" server="4066" farm="5" title="Two car garage" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4588050906" owner="45827769@N06" secret="72de138f7e" server="4067" farm="5" title="Dabie Mountains, Central China" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587979300" owner="36531359@N00" secret="e5f8b30734" server="3299" farm="4" title="stroll" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587304769" owner="7904649@N02" secret="995062f550" server="4034" farm="5" title="IMG_4325" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587306827" owner="7904649@N02" secret="b92d7ff916" server="4050" farm="5" title="IMG_4329" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587311657" owner="7904649@N02" secret="bb1b34ccf8" server="4053" farm="5" title="IMG_4336" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587933110" owner="7904649@N02" secret="f733b1d482" server="3300" farm="4" title="IMG_4334" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587930650" owner="7904649@N02" secret="9bc202b3ed" server="4018" farm="5" title="IMG_4331" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> </photos> </rsp> Now I've got something very simple PHP to query the exact same url, called from javascript through AJAX - it all works as I can see putting a breakpoint in my javascript function that handles the response: function HandleResponse(response) { document.getElementById('ResponseDiv').innerHTML = response; } Looking at response value in the snippet above I see what I expect (xml formed as above) - then the strangest thing happens: when I inspect the DOM instead of having photo elements all as children of photos they're all nested within each other. What amI missing - How is this possible in light of the fact that the response string is definitely formed as I would expect it to be?

    Read the article

  • Sort/Group XML data with PHP?

    - by Volmar
    I'm trying to make a page using data from the discogs.com (XML)-API. i've been parsing it with simpleXML and it's working pretty well but there is some things i'm not sure how to do. Here is part of the XML: <releases> <release id="1468764" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>Versions</title> <format>12", EP</format> <label>Not On Label</label> <year>1999</year> </release> <release id="72246" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>LP</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="890064" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>CD</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="1563561" status="Accepted" type="TrackAppearance"> <title>Ännu En Gång Vol. 3</title> <trackinfo>Backtrack</trackinfo> <format>Cass, Comp, Mix</format> <label>Hemmalaget</label> <year>2001</year> </release> </releases> What i want to achieve is something similair to how discogs presents the releases: http://www.discogs.com/artist/Mics+Of+Fury where diferent versions of the same release are sorted together. (see. The M.O.F Blend in my link) This is done on discogs with having a master release that features the other releases. unfortunately this information isn't present in the API data, so i want to do the same thing by grouping the <release>-nodes with the same <title>-tags, or add a flag to the <releases> that don't have a unique <title>? any good ideas on the best way of doing this? i also like to know if it's possible to count the <release>-nodes (child of releases) that have the same type-attribute? like in this example count the releases with the type "Main"? maybe it's better to do this things with XMLReader or XPath?

    Read the article

  • Move options between multiple lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. EDIT: Having now actually sat down to try to code the non-javascripty bits, I need to revise my question, because I realized that multiple select lists won't really work from the "how do I inform the server about all this lovely new information" standpoint. So the html code is now a pseudo-listbox, i.e. an unordered list (ul) displayed in a box with a scrollbar, and each list item (<li>) has a set of five radio buttons (unselected/own/read/like/heard). My task is still roughly the same: how to take this one list and make it easy to categorize the items, in such a way that the user can tell at a glance what is in what category. (The pseudo-listbox has some of the same disadvantages as a multi-select listbox, namely it's hard to tell what's selected if the list is long enough to scroll.) The dream solution would be a drag-and-drop type thing, but at this point even buttons would be OK. Another modification (a good one) is that the client has revised the lists, so the longest is now "only" 62 items long (instead of the many hundreds they had before). The categories will still mostly contain zero, one, or two selected items, possibly a couple more if the user was overzealous. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :) [existing code deleted because it's largely irrelevant.]

    Read the article

  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

    Read the article

  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

    Read the article

  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

    Read the article

  • Approach for authentication and storing user details.

    - by cappuccino
    Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

    Read the article

  • Does the <script> tag position in HTML affects performance of the webpage?

    - by Rahul Joshi
    If the script tag is above or below the body in a HTML page, does it matter for the performance of a website? And what if used in between like this: <body> ..blah..blah.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> ... some text here too ... </body> Or is this better?: <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. </body> Or this one?: <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> </body> Need not tell everything is again in the <html> tag!! How does it affect performance of webpage while loading? Does it really? Which one is the best, either out of these 3 or some other which you know? And one more thing, I googled a bit on this, from which I went here: Best Practices for Speeding Up Your Web Site and it suggests put scripts at the bottom, but traditionally many people put it in <head> tag which is above the <body> tag. I know it's NOT a rule but many prefer it that way. If you don't believe it, just view source of this page! And tell me what's the better style for best performance.

    Read the article

  • C++ adding friend to a template class in order to typecast

    - by user1835359
    I'm currently reading "Effective C++" and there is a chapter that contains code similiar to this: template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } }; template <typename T> Num<T> operator*(const Num<T>& lhs, const Num<T>& rhs) { ... } Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); The book says that this won't work (and indeed it doesn't) because you can't expect the compiler to use implicit typecasting to specialize a template. As a soluting it is suggested to use the "friend" syntax to define the function inside the class. //It works template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend Num operator*(const Num& lhs, const Num& rhs) { ... } }; Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); And the book suggests to use this friend-declaration thing whenever I need implicit conversion to a template class type. And it all seems to make sense. But why can't I get the same example working with a common function, not an operator? template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend void doFoo(const Num& lhs) { ... } }; doFoo(5); This time the compiler complaints that he can't find any 'doFoo' at all. And if i declare the doFoo outside the class, i get the reasonable mismatched types error. Seems like the "friend ..." part is just being ignored. So is there a problem with my understanding? What is the difference between a function and an operator in this case?

    Read the article

  • How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

    - by Daniel T.
    Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

    Read the article

  • Flipping OpenGL texture

    - by Mk12
    When I load textures from images normally, they are upside down because of OpenGL's coordinate system. What would be the best way to flip them? glScalef(1.0f, -1.0f, 1.0f); vertically flipping the image files manually (in Photoshop) flipping them programatically after loading them (I don't know how) This is the method I'm using to load png textures, in my Utilities.m file (Objective-C): + (GLuint)loadPngTexture:(NSString *)name { CFURLRef textureURL = CFBundleCopyResourceURL( CFBundleGetMainBundle(), (CFStringRef)name, CFSTR("png"), CFSTR("Textures")); NSAssert(textureURL, @"Texture name invalid"); CGImageSourceRef imageSource = CGImageSourceCreateWithURL(textureURL, NULL); NSAssert(imageSource, @"Invalid Image Path."); NSAssert((CGImageSourceGetCount(imageSource) > 0), @"No Image in Image Source."); CFRelease(textureURL); CGImageRef image = CGImageSourceCreateImageAtIndex(imageSource, 0, NULL); NSAssert(image, @"Image not created."); CFRelease(imageSource); NSUInteger width = CGImageGetWidth(image); NSUInteger height = CGImageGetHeight(image); void *data = malloc(width * height * 4); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); NSAssert(colorSpace, @"Colorspace not created."); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate( data, width, height, 8, width * 4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Host); NSAssert(context, @"Context not created."); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height), image); CGImageRelease(image); CGContextRelease(context); GLuint textureId; glGenTextures(1, &textureId); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textureId); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_GENERATE_MIPMAP_SGIS, GL_TRUE); glTexImage2D( GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_INT_8_8_8_8_REV, data); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); free(data); return textureId; } Also, another thing I was wondering about: If I made a simple 2d game, with pixels mapped to units, would it be alright to set it up so that the origin is in the top-left corner, or would I run in to problems with other things (e.g. text rendering)? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • I could use some help with my SQL command

    - by SuperSpy
    I've got a database table called 'mesg' with the following structure: receiver_id | sender_id | message | timestamp | read Example: 2 *(«me)* | 6 *(«nice girl)* | 'I like you, more than ghoti' | yearsago | 1 *(«seen it)* 2 *(«me)* | 6 *(«nice girl)* | 'I like you, more than fish' | now | 1 *(«seen it)* 6 *(«nice girl)* | 2 *(«me)* | 'Hey, wanna go fish?' | yearsago+1sec | 0 *(«she hasn't seen it)* It's quite a tricky thing that I want to achieve. I want to get: the most recent message(=ORDER BY time DESC) + 'contact name' + time for each 'conversation'. Contact name = uname WHERE uid = 'contact ID' (the username is in another table) Contact ID = if(sessionID*(«me)*=sender_id){receiver_id}else{sender_id} Conversation is me = receiver OR me = sender For example: From: **Bas Kreuntjes** *(« The message from bas is the most recent)* Hey $py, How are you doing... From: **Sophie Naarden** *(« Second recent)* Well hello, would you like to buy my spam? ... *(«I'll work on that later >p)* To: **Melanie van Deijk** *(« My message to Melanie is 3th)* And? Did you kiss him? ... That is a rough output. QUESTION: Could someone please help me setup a good SQL command. This will be the while loup <?php $sql = "????"; $result = mysql_query($sql); while($fetch = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)){ ?> <div class="message-block"> <h1><?php echo($fetch['uname']); ?></h1> <p><?php echo($fetch['message']); ?></p> <p><?php echo($fetch['time']); ?></p> </div> <?php } ?> I hope my explanation is good enough, if not, please tell me. Please don't mind my English, and the Dutch names (I am Dutch myself) Feel free to correct my English UPDATE1: Best I've got until now: But I do not want more than one conversation to show up... u=user table m=message table SELECT u.uname, m.message, m.receiver_uid, m.sender_uid, m.time FROM m, u WHERE (m.receiver_uid = '$myID' AND u.uid = m.sender_uid) OR (m.sender_uid = '$myID' AND u.uid = m.receiver_uid) ORDER BY time DESC;

    Read the article

  • What is causing this SQL 2005 Primary Key Deadlock between two real-time bulk upserts?

    - by skimania
    Here's the scenario: I've got a table called MarketDataCurrent (MDC) that has live updating stock prices. I've got one process called 'LiveFeed' which reads prices streaming from the wire, queues up inserts, and uses a 'bulk upload to temp table then insert/update to MDC table.' (BulkUpsert) I've got another process which then reads this data, computes other data, and then saves the results back into the same table, using a similar BulkUpsert stored proc. Thirdly, there are a multitude of users running a C# Gui polling the MDC table and reading updates from it. Now, during the day when the data is changing rapidly, things run pretty smoothly, but then, after market hours, we've recently started seeing an increasing number of Deadlock exceptions coming out of the database, nowadays we see 10-20 a day. The imporant thing to note here is that these happen when the values are NOT changing. Here's all the relevant info: Table Def: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent]( [MDID] [int] NOT NULL, [LastUpdate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Value] [float] NOT NULL, [Source] [varchar](20) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MarketDataCurrent] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [MDID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] - stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][1] [1]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4049/4690759452_6b94ff7b34.jpg I've got a Sql Profiler Trace Running, catching the deadlocks, and here's what all the graphs look like. stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][2] [2]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4035/4690125231_78d84c9e15_b.jpg Process 258 is called the following 'BulkUpsert' stored proc, repeatedly, while 73 is calling the next one: ALTER proc [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_BulkUpload] @updateTime datetime, @source varchar(10) as begin transaction update c with (rowlock) set LastUpdate = getdate(), Value = t.Value, Source = @source from MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #MDTUP t ON c.MDID = t.mdid where c.lastUpdate < @updateTime and c.mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') and c.value <> t.value insert into MarketDataCurrent with (rowlock) select MDID, getdate(), Value, @source from #MDTUP where mdid not in (select mdid from MarketDataCurrent with (nolock)) and mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') commit And the other one: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_LiveFeedUpload] AS begin transaction -- Update existing mdid UPDATE c WITH (ROWLOCK) SET LastUpdate = t.LastUpdate, Value = t.Value, Source = t.Source FROM MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #TEMPTABLE2 t ON c.MDID = t.mdid; -- Insert new MDID INSERT INTO MarketDataCurrent with (ROWLOCK) SELECT * FROM #TEMPTABLE2 WHERE MDID NOT IN (SELECT MDID FROM MarketDataCurrent with (NOLOCK)) -- Clean up the temp table DELETE #TEMPTABLE2 commit To clarify, those Temp Tables are being created by the C# code on the same connection and are populated using the C# SqlBulkCopy class. To me it looks like it's deadlocking on the PK of the table, so I tried removing that PK and switching to a Unique Constraint instead but that increased the number of deadlocks 10-fold. I'm totally lost as to what to do about this situation and am open to just about any suggestion. HELP!!

    Read the article

  • Flash caroussel xml parse html link

    - by Marvin
    Hello I am trying to modify a carousel script I have in flash. Its normal function is making some icons rotate and when clicked they zoom in, fade all others and display a little text. On that text I would like to have a link like a "read more". If I use CDATA it wont display a thing, if I use alt char like &#60;a href=&#34;www.google.com&#34;&#62; Read more + &#60;/a&#62; It just displays the text as: <a href="www.google.com"> Read more + </a>. The flash dynamic text box wont render it as html. I dont enough as2 to figure out how to add this. My code: var xml:XML = new XML(); xml.ignoreWhite = true; //definições do xml xml.onLoad = function() { var nodes = this.firstChild.childNodes; numOfItems = nodes.length; for(var i=0;i<numOfItems;i++) { var t = home.attachMovie("item","item"+i,i+1); t.angle = i * ((Math.PI*2)/numOfItems); t.onEnterFrame = mover; t.toolText = nodes[i].attributes.tooltip; t.content = nodes[i].attributes.content; t.icon.inner.loadMovie(nodes[i].attributes.image); t.r.inner.loadMovie(nodes[i].attributes.image); t.icon.onRollOver = over; t.icon.onRollOut = out; t.icon.onRelease = released; } } And the xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <icons> <icon image="images/product.swf" tooltip="Product" content="Hello this is some random text &#60;a href=&#34;www.google.com&#34;&#62; Read More + &#60;/a&#62; "/> </icons> Any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Should I add try/catch around when casting on an attribute of JSP implicit object?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Basically what I mean is like this: List<String[]> routes = (List<String[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); For the above code, it tries to get an attribute named "routes" from the JSP implicit object - application. But as everyone knows, after this line of code, routes may very well contains a null - which means this application hasn't got an attribute named "routes". Is this "casting on null" good programming practice in Java or not? Basically I try to avoid exceptions such as java.io.InvalidCastException I reckon things like this are more as "heritage" of Java 1.4 when generic types were not introduced to this language. So I guess everything stored in application attributes as Objects (Similar to traditional ArrayList). And when you do "downcast", there might be invalid casts. What would you do in this case? Update: Just found that although in the implicit object application I did store a List of String arrays, when I do this : List<double[]> routes = (List<double[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); It doesn't produce any error... And I felt not comfortable already... And even with this code: out.print(routes.get(0)); It does print out something strange : [Ljava.lang.String;@18b352f Am I printing a "pointer to String"? I can finally get an exception like this: out.print(routes.get(0)[1]); with error : java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.String; Because it was me to add the application attribute, I know which type should it be cast to. I feel this is not "good enough", what if I forget the exact type? I know there are still some cases where this sort of thing would happen, such as in JSP/Servlet when you do casting on session attributes. Is there a better way to do this? Before you say:"OMG, why you don't use Servlets???", I should justify my reason as this: - because my uni sucks, its server can only work with Servlets generated by JSP, and I don't really want to learn how to fix issues like that. look at my previous question on this , and this is uni homework, so I've got no other choice, forget all about war, WEB-INF,etc, but "code everything directly into JSP" - because the professors do that too. :)

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

    - by Daoming Yang
    I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

    Read the article

  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

    Read the article

  • Browser detection Plugin?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

    Read the article

  • creating a JQuery function

    - by Russell Parrott
    Sorry to bother you guys & girls again on Christmas eve, but I need help creating a reusable JQuery function. I have "badly crafted" this set of code that all works. But I would really like to put it as a function so I don't have to keep repeating everything for each form. I am not too sure about how all the if statements can be combined etc. that is why I wrote it as it is. Any help much appreciated - Oh I suppose it could also be some kind of plugin but that might be the next step if I can understand how the function works. $(':input:visible').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('required')) { if($(this).val() == '' ) { $(this).css({'background-color':'#FFEEEE' }); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).next('.errormsg').html('OOPs ... '+$(this).prev('label').html()+' is required'); $(this).focus(); $(this).attr('placeholder').hide(); } else { $(this).css({'background-color':'#FFF' , 'border-color':'#999999'}); $(this).next('.errormsg').empty(); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').show(); } } return false; }); $(':input[max]').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('max') < parseInt($(this).val()) ){ $(this).next('.errormsg').html( 'OOPs ... the maximum value is '+$(this).attr('max') ); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).focus(); } else {} return false; }); $(':input[min]').live('blur',function(){ if($(this).attr('min') > parseInt($(this).val()) ){ $(this).next('.errormsg').html( 'OOPs ... the minimum value is '+$(this).attr('min') ); $(this).parent('form').children('input[type=submit]').hide(); $(this).focus(); } else {} return false; }); $(':input[maxlength]').live('keyup',function(){ if($(this).val()==''){ } else { $(this).next('.errormsg').html( $(this).attr('maxlength')- $(this).val().length +' chars remaining'); } return false; }); As said, help much appreciated with one small (I hope) thing, how can I break out of any function IF there are no error messages to actually submit the form?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750  | Next Page >