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  • Getting RGB values for each pixel from a 24bpp Bitmap in C

    - by seven
    Hello, i want to read the RGB values for each pixel from a .bmp file , so i can convert the bmp into a format suitable for gba . so i need to get just the RGB for each pixel and then write this information to a file. i am trying to use the windows.h structures : typedef struct { char signature[2]; unsigned int fileSize; unsigned int reserved; unsigned int offset; }BmpHeader; typedef struct { unsigned int headerSize; unsigned int width; unsigned int height; unsigned short planeCount; unsigned short bitDepth; unsigned int compression; unsigned int compressedImageSize; unsigned int horizontalResolution; unsigned int verticalResolution; unsigned int numColors; unsigned int importantColors; }BmpImageInfo; typedef struct { unsigned char blue; unsigned char green; unsigned char red; unsigned char reserved; }Rgb; typedef struct { BmpHeader header; BmpImageInfo info; Rgb colors[256]; unsigned short image[1]; }BmpFile; but i only need RGB struct. So lets say i read "in.bmp": FILE *inFile, *outFile; inFile = fopen("C://in.bmp", "rb"); Rgb Palette[256]; for(i=0;i<256;i++) { fread(&Palette[i],sizeof(Rgb),1,inFile); } fclose(inFile); is this correct ? how do i write only the RGB information to a file ? can anyone please give me some information please . Thank you.

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  • How to listen for file system changes MAC - kFSEventStreamCreateFlagWatchRoot

    - by Cocoa Newbie
    Hi All, I am listening for Directory and disk changes in a COCOA project using FSEvents. I need to get events when a root folder is renamed or deleted. So, I passed kFSEventStreamCreateFlagWatchRoot while creating the FSEventStream.But even if I delete or rename the root folder I am not getting corresponding FSEventStreamEventFlags. Any idea what could possibly be the issue. I am listening for changes in a USB mounted device. I used both FSEventStreamCreate and FSEventStreamCreateRelativeToDevice. One thing I notices is when I try with FSEventStreamCreate I get the following error message while creating FSEventStream: (CarbonCore.framework) FSEventStreamCreate: watch_all_parents: error trying to add kqueue for fd 7 (/Volumes/NO NAME; Operation not supported) But with FSEventStreamCreateRelativeToDevice there are no errors but still not getting kFSEventStreamEventFlagRootChanged in event flags. Also, while creation using FSEventStreamCreateRelativeToDevice apple say's if I want to listen to root path changes pass emty string "". But I am not able to listen to root path changes by passing empty string. But when I pass "/" it works. But even for "/" I do not get any proper FSEventStreamEventFlags. I am pasting the code here: -(void) subscribeFileSystemChanges:(NSString*) path { PRINT_FUNCTION_BEGIN; // if already subscribed then unsubscribe if (stream) { FSEventStreamStop(stream); FSEventStreamInvalidate(stream); /* will remove from runloop */ FSEventStreamRelease(stream); } FSEventStreamContext cntxt = {0}; cntxt.info = self; CFArrayRef pathsToWatch = CFArrayCreate(NULL, (const void**)&path, 1, NULL); stream = FSEventStreamCreate(NULL, &feCallback, &cntxt, pathsToWatch, kFSEventStreamEventIdSinceNow, 1, kFSEventStreamCreateFlagWatchRoot ); FSEventStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(stream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); FSEventStreamStart(stream); } call back function: static void feCallback(ConstFSEventStreamRef streamRef, void* pClientCallBackInfo, size_t numEvents, void* pEventPaths, const FSEventStreamEventFlags eventFlags[], const FSEventStreamEventId eventIds[]) {? char** ppPaths = (char**)pEventPaths; int i; for (i = 0; i < numEvents; i++) { NSLog(@"Event Flags %lu Event Id %llu", eventFlags[i], eventIds[i]); NSLog(@"Path changed: %@", [NSString stringWithUTF8String:ppPaths[i]]); } } Thanks a lot in advance.

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  • Is the recent trend toward widescreen (16:9) computer monitors a plus or minus for programmers?

    - by DanM
    It's almost gotten to the point where you can't buy a conventional (4:3) monitor anymore. Pretty much everything is widescreen. This is fine for watching movies or TV, but is it good or bad for programming? My initial thoughts on the issue are that widescreens are a net negative for programmers. Here are some of the disadvantages I see: Poor space utiliziation One disadvantage of widescreens you can't argue with is that they offer poor space utilization for the amount of total pixels you get. For example, my Thinkpad, which I bought just before the widescreen craze, has a 15" monitor with a native resolution of 1600 x 1200. The newer 15.4" Thinkpads run at most 1680 x 1050. So (if you do the math) you get fewer pixels in a wider (but not shorter) package. With desktop monitors, you pay a price in terms of desk space used. Two 1680 x 1050 monitors will simply take up more of your desk than two 1600 x 1200 monitors (assuming equal dot pitch). More scrolling If you compare a 1680 x 1050 monitor to a 1600 x 1200 monitor, you get 80 extra pixels of width but 150 fewer pixels of height. The height reduction means you lose approximately 11 lines of code. That's less you can see on the screen at one time and more scrolling you have to do. This harms productivity, maybe not dramatically, but insidiously. Less room for wide panels Widescreens also mean you lose space for wide but short panels common in programming environments. If you use Visual Studio, for example, your code window will be that much shorter when viewing the Find Results, Task List, or Error List (all of which I use frequently). This isn't to say the 80 pixels of extra width you get with widescreen would never be useful, but I tend to keep my lines of code short, so seeing more lines would be more valuable to me than seeing fewer, longer lines. What do you think? Do you agree/disagree? Are you now using one or more widescreen monitors for development? What resolution are you running on each? Do you ever miss the height of the traditional 4:3 monitor? Would you complain if your monitors were one inch narrower but two inches taller?

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  • IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

    - by Iain Collins
    I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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  • Points in CSS specificity

    - by Sam
    Researching specificity I stumbled upon this blog - http://www.htmldog.com/guides/cssadvanced/specificity/ It states that specificity is a point-scoring system for CSS. It tells us that elements are worth 1 point, classes are worth 10 points and IDs are worth 100 points. It also goes on top say that these points are totaled and the overall amount is that selector's specificity. For example: body = 1 point body .wrapper = 11 points body .wrapper #container = 111 points So, using these points surely the following CSS and HTML will result in the text being blue: CSS: #a { color: red; } .a .b .c .d .e .f .g .h .i .j .k .l .m .n .o { color: blue; } HTML: <div class="a"> <div class="b"> <div class="c"> <div class="d"> <div class="e"> <div class="f"> <div class="g"> <div class="h"> <div class="i"> <div class="j"> <div class="k"> <div class="l"> <div class="m"> <div class="n"> <div class="o" id="a"> This should be blue. </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> RESULT: http://jsfiddle.net/hkqCF/ Why is the text red when 15 classes would equal 150 points compared to 1 ID which equals 100 points?

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

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  • gcc, strict-aliasing, and casting through a union

    - by Joseph Quinsey
    About a year ago the following paragraph was added to the GCC Manual, version 4.3.4, regarding -fstrict-aliasing: Similarly, access by taking the address, casting the resulting pointer and dereferencing the result has undefined behavior [emphasis added], even if the cast uses a union type, e.g.: union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f() { double d = 3.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; } Does anyone have an example to illustrate this undefined behavior? Note this question is not about what the C99 standard says, or does not say. It is about the actual functioning of gcc, and other existing compilers, today. My simple, naive, attempt fails. For example: #include <stdio.h> union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f1(void) { union a_union t; t.d = 3333333.0; return t.i; // gcc manual: 'type-punning is allowed, provided ...' } int f2(void) { double d = 3333333.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; // gcc manual: 'undefined behavior' } int main(void) { printf("%d\n", f1()); printf("%d\n", f2()); return 0; } works fine, giving on CYGWIN: -2147483648 -2147483648 Also note that taking addresses is obviously wrong (or right, if you are trying to illustrate undefined behavior). For example, just as we know this is wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); union a_union t; t.d = 3.0; foo(&t.i, &t.d); // UD behavior so is this wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); double d = 3.0; foo(&((union a_union *)&d)->i, &d); // UD behavior For background discussion about this, see for example: http://www.open-std.org/jtc1/sc22/wg14/www/docs/n1422.pdf http://gcc.gnu.org/ml/gcc/2010-01/msg00013.html http://davmac.wordpress.com/2010/02/26/c99-revisited/ http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/98650/what-is-the-strict-aliasing-rule http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041 The first link, draft minutes of an ISO meeting seven months ago, notes in section 4.16: Is there anybody that thinks the rules are clear enough? No one is really able to interpret tham.

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  • C program using inotify to monitor multiple directories along with sub-directories?

    - by lakshmipathi
    I have program which monitors a directory (/test) and notify me. I want to improve this to monitor another directory (say /opt). And also how to monitor it's subdirectories , current i'll get notified if any changes made to files under /test . but i'm not getting any inotifcation if changes made sub-directory of /test, that is touch /test/sub-dir/files.txt .. Here my current code - hope this will help /* Simple example for inotify in Linux. inotify has 3 main functions. inotify_init1 to initialize inotify_add_watch to add monitor then inotify_??_watch to rm monitor.you the what to replace with ??. yes third one is inotify_rm_watch() */ #include <sys/inotify.h> int main(){ int fd,wd,wd1,i=0,len=0; char pathname[100],buf[1024]; struct inotify_event *event; fd=inotify_init1(IN_NONBLOCK); /* watch /test directory for any activity and report it back to me */ wd=inotify_add_watch(fd,"/test",IN_ALL_EVENTS); while(1){ //read 1024 bytes of events from fd into buf i=0; len=read(fd,buf,1024); while(i<len){ event=(struct inotify_event *) &buf[i]; /* check for changes */ if(event->mask & IN_OPEN) printf("%s :was opened\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_MODIFY) printf("%s : modified\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_ATTRIB) printf("%s :meta data changed\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_ACCESS) printf("%s :was read\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_CLOSE_WRITE) printf("%s :file opened for writing was closed\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_CLOSE_NOWRITE) printf("%s :file opened not for writing was closed\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_DELETE_SELF) printf("%s :deleted\n",event->name); if(event->mask & IN_DELETE) printf("%s :deleted\n",event->name); /* update index to start of next event */ i+=sizeof(struct inotify_event)+event->len; } } }

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  • How to get started with testing(jMock)

    - by London
    Hello, I'm trying to learn how to write tests. I'm also learning Java, I was told I should learn/use/practice jMock, I've found some articles online that help to certain extend like : http://www.theserverside.com/news/1365050/Using-JMock-in-Test-Driven-Development http://jeantessier.com/SoftwareEngineering/Mocking.html#jMock And most articles I found was about test driven development, write tests first then write code to make the test pass. I'm not looking for that at the moment, I'm trying to write tests for already existing code with jMock. The official documentation is vague to say the least and just too hard for me. Does anybody have better way to learn this. Good books/links/tutorials would help me a lot. thank you EDIT - more concrete question : http://jeantessier.com/SoftwareEngineering/Mocking.html#jMock - from this article Tried this to mock this simple class : import java.util.Map; public class Cache { private Map<Integer, String> underlyingStorage; public Cache(Map<Integer, String> underlyingStorage) { this.underlyingStorage = underlyingStorage; } public String get(int key) { return underlyingStorage.get(key); } public void add(int key, String value) { underlyingStorage.put(key, value); } public void remove(int key) { underlyingStorage.remove(key); } public int size() { return underlyingStorage.size(); } public void clear() { underlyingStorage.clear(); } } Here is how I tried to create a test/mock : public class CacheTest extends TestCase { private Mockery context; private Map mockMap; private Cache cache; @Override @Before public void setUp() { context = new Mockery() { { setImposteriser(ClassImposteriser.INSTANCE); } }; mockMap = context.mock(Map.class); cache = new Cache(mockMap); } public void testCache() { context.checking(new Expectations() {{ atLeast(1).of(mockMap).size(); will(returnValue(int.class)); }}); } } It passes the test and basically does nothing, what I wanted is to create a map and check its size, and you know work some variations try to get a grip on this. Understand better trough examples, what else could I test here or any other exercises would help me a lot. tnx

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • Dynamic Multiple Choice (Like a Wizard) - How would you design it? (e.g. Schema, AI model, etc.)

    - by henry74
    This question can probably be broken up into multiple questions, but here goes... In essence, I'd like to allow users to type in what they would like to do and provide a wizard-like interface to ask for information which is missing to complete a requested query. For example, let's say a user types: "What is the weather like in Springfield?" We recognize the user is interested in weather, but it could be Springfield, Il or Springfield in another state. A follow-up question would be: What Springfield did you want weather for? 1 - Springfield, Il 2 - Springfield, Wi You can probably think of a million examples where a request is missing key data or its ambiguous. Make the assumption the gist of what the user wants can be understood, but there are missing pieces of data required to complete the request. Perhaps you can take it as far back as asking what the user wants to do and "leading" them to a query. This is not AI in the sense of taking any input and truly understanding it. I'm not referring to having some way to hold a conversation with a user. It's about inferring what a user wants, checking to see if there is an applicable service to be provided, identifying the inputs needed and overlaying that on top of what's missing from the request, then asking the user for the remaining information. That's it! :-) How would you want to store the information about services? How would you go about determining what was missing from the input data? My thoughts: Use regex expressions to identify clear pieces of information. These will be matched to the parameters of a service. Figure out which parameters do not have matching data and look up the associated question for those parameters. Ask those questions and capture answers. Re-run the service passing in the newly captured data. These would be more free-form questions. For multiple choice, identify the ambiguity and search for potential matches ranked in order of likelihood (add in user history/preferences to help decide). Provide the top 3 as choices. Thoughts appreciated. Cheers, Henry

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  • asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

    - by Paul Hutson
    Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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  • In a PHP project, how do you organize and access your helper objects?

    - by Pekka
    How do you organize and manage your helper objects like the database engine, user notification, error handling and so on in a PHP based, object oriented project? Say I have a large PHP CMS. The CMS is organized in various classes. A few examples: the database object user management an API to create/modify/delete items a messaging object to display messages to the end user a context handler that takes you to the right page a navigation bar class that shows buttons a logging object possibly, custom error handling etc. I am dealing with the eternal question, how to best make these objects accessible to each part of the system that needs it. my first apporach, many years ago was to have a $application global that contained initialized instances of these classes. global $application; $application->messageHandler->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); I then changed over to the Singleton pattern and a factory function: $mh =&factory("messageHandler"); $mh->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); but I'm not happy with that either. Unit tests and encapsulation become more and more important to me, and in my understanding the logic behind globals/singletons destroys the basic idea of OOP. Then there is of course the possibility of giving each object a number of pointers to the helper objects it needs, probably the very cleanest, resource-saving and testing-friendly way but I have doubts about the maintainability of this in the long run. Most PHP frameworks I have looked into use either the singleton pattern, or functions that access the initialized objects. Both fine approaches, but as I said I'm happy with neither. I would like to broaden my horizon on what is possible here and what others have done. I am looking for examples, additional ideas and pointers towards resources that discuss this from a long-term, real-world perspective. Also, I'm interested to hear about specialized, niche or plain weird approaches to the issue. Bounty I am following the popular vote in awarding the bounty, the answer which is probably also going to give me the most. Thank you for all your answers!

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  • Mysterious constraints problem with SQL Server 2000

    - by Ramon
    Hi all I'm getting the following error from a VB NET web application written in VS 2003, on framework 1.1. The web app is running on Windows Server 2000, IIS 5, and is reading from a SQL server 2000 database running on the same machine. System.Data.ConstraintException: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. at System.Data.DataSet.FailedEnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.EnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.set_EnforceConstraints(Boolean value) at System.Data.DataTable.EndLoadData() at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromReader(Object data, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromCommand(Object data, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) The problem appears when the web app is under a high load. The system runs fine when volume is low, but when the number of requests becomes high, the system starts rejecting incoming requests with the above exception message. Once the problem appears, very few requests actually make it through and get processed normally, about 2 in every 30. The vast majority of requests fail, until a SQL Server restart or IIS reset is performed. The system then start processing requests normally, and after some time it starts throwing the same error. The error occurs when a data adapter runs the Fill() method against a SELECT statement, to populate a strongly-typed dataset. It appears that the dataset does not like the data it is given and throws this exception. This error occurs on various SELECT statements, acting on different tables. I have regenerated the dataset and checked the relevant constraints, as well as the table from which the data is read. Both the dataset definition and the data in the table are fine. Admittedly, the hardware running both the web app and SQL Server 2000 is seriously outdated, considering the numbers of incoming requests it currently receives. The amount of RAM consumed by SQL Server is dynamically allocated, and at peak times SQL Server can consume up to 2.8 GB out of a total of 3.5 GB on the server. At first I suspected some sort of index or database corruption, but after running DBCC CHECKDB, no errors were found in the database. So now I'm wondering whether this error is a result of the hardware limitations of the system. Is it possible for SQL Server to somehow mess up the data it's supposed to pass to the dataset, resulting in constraint violation due to, say, data type/length mismatch? I tried accessing the RowError messages of the data rows in the retrieved dataset tables but I kept getting empty strings. I know that HasErrors = true for the datatables in question. I have not set the EnableConstraints = false, and I don't want to do that. Thanks in advance. Ray

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  • Should I add try/catch around when casting on an attribute of JSP implicit object?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Basically what I mean is like this: List<String[]> routes = (List<String[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); For the above code, it tries to get an attribute named "routes" from the JSP implicit object - application. But as everyone knows, after this line of code, routes may very well contains a null - which means this application hasn't got an attribute named "routes". Is this "casting on null" good programming practice in Java or not? Basically I try to avoid exceptions such as java.io.InvalidCastException I reckon things like this are more as "heritage" of Java 1.4 when generic types were not introduced to this language. So I guess everything stored in application attributes as Objects (Similar to traditional ArrayList). And when you do "downcast", there might be invalid casts. What would you do in this case? Update: Just found that although in the implicit object application I did store a List of String arrays, when I do this : List<double[]> routes = (List<double[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); It doesn't produce any error... And I felt not comfortable already... And even with this code: out.print(routes.get(0)); It does print out something strange : [Ljava.lang.String;@18b352f Am I printing a "pointer to String"? I can finally get an exception like this: out.print(routes.get(0)[1]); with error : java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.String; Because it was me to add the application attribute, I know which type should it be cast to. I feel this is not "good enough", what if I forget the exact type? I know there are still some cases where this sort of thing would happen, such as in JSP/Servlet when you do casting on session attributes. Is there a better way to do this? Before you say:"OMG, why you don't use Servlets???", I should justify my reason as this: - because my uni sucks, its server can only work with Servlets generated by JSP, and I don't really want to learn how to fix issues like that. look at my previous question on this , and this is uni homework, so I've got no other choice, forget all about war, WEB-INF,etc, but "code everything directly into JSP" - because the professors do that too. :)

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • Problem in databinding a dictionary in ListView combo-box column.

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a listview of which itemsource is set to my custom collection, let's say MyCollection. The code below is not full code , it's just a code snippets to explain the problem. class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { Options _options; public Options OptionProp { get { return _options; } set { _options = value; OnPropertyChanged ("OptionProp");} } string _Name; public string NameProp { get { return _Name; } set { _Name = value; OnPropertyChanged ("NameProp");} } } class Options : Dictionary<string,string> { public Options() { this.Clear(); this.Add("One" , "1" ); this.Add("Two" , "2" ); this.Add("Three" , "3" ); } } MyCollection in my viewModel class viewModel { ObservableCollection<Item> **MyCollection**; KeyValuePair<sting,string> **SelectedOption**; } The listview Item Source is set to my MyCollection. <ListView ItemSource = MyCollectoin> I Listview contains two columns of which I have defined a datatemplats in the listview. First column is a combo-box of which Itemsource is set to Options ( defined above ) Second column is a simple textblock to display Name. Problem 1. I have defined a datatemplate for first column in which I have a combo box , I have set the Itemsource =**MyCollection** and SelectedItem = SelectedOption of the combo-box. User can perform following operations in the listview: Add ( Add the row in the listview ) Move Up ( Move row up in the listview ) Move Down ( Move down the item in the listview ) .Now when I add the row in the listview , the combo-box selected index is always comes to -1 (first column). However the combo box contains options One, Two and Three. Also, I have initialized the SelectedOption to contain the first item, i:e One. problem 2. . Let suppose, I have added a single row in a listview and I have selected Option "one" in the combo box manually. Now when I perform Move Up or Move Down operations the selected index of a combo box is again set to -1. In the Move Up or Move Down operation , I am calling MoveUp and MoveDown methods of the Observable collection. Probelm 3 How to serialize the entire collection in XML. Since I can't serialize the Dictionary and KeyValue Pair. I have to restore the state of the listview.

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  • Class template specializations with shared functionality

    - by Thomas
    I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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  • Parse lines of integers in C

    - by Jérôme
    This is a classical problem, but I can not find a simple solution. I have an input file like: 1 3 9 13 23 25 34 36 38 40 52 54 59 2 3 9 14 23 26 34 36 39 40 52 55 59 63 67 76 85 86 90 93 99 108 114 2 4 9 15 23 27 34 36 63 67 76 85 86 90 93 99 108 115 1 25 34 36 38 41 52 54 59 63 67 76 85 86 90 93 98 107 113 2 3 9 16 24 28 2 3 10 14 23 26 34 36 39 41 52 55 59 63 67 76 Lines of different number of integers separated by a space. I would like to parse them in an array, and separate each line with a marker, let say -1. The difficulty is that I must handle integers and line returns. Here my existing code, it loops upon the scanf loop (because scanf can not begin at a given position). #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main(int argc, char **argv) { if (argc != 4) { fprintf(stderr, "Usage: %s <data file> <nb transactions> <nb items>\n", argv[0]); return 1; } FILE * file; file = fopen (argv[1],"r"); if (file==NULL) { fprintf(stderr, "Error: can not open %s\n", argv[1]); fclose(file); return 1; } int nb_trans = atoi(argv[2]); int nb_items = atoi(argv[3]); int *bdd = malloc(sizeof(int) * (nb_trans + nb_items)); char line[1024]; int i = 0; while ( fgets(line, 1024, file) ) { int item; while ( sscanf (line, "%d ", &item )){ printf("%s %d %d\n", line, i, item); bdd[i++] = item; } bdd[i++] = -1; } for ( i = 0; i < nb_trans + nb_items; i++ ) { printf("%d ", bdd[i]); } printf("\n"); }

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  • HTML: Include, or exclude, optional closing tags?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Some HTML1 closing tags are optional, i.e.: </HTML> </HEAD> </BODY> </P> </DT> </DD> </LI> </OPTION> </THEAD> </TH> </TBODY> </TR> </TD> </TFOOT> </COLGROUP> Note: Not to be confused with closing tags that are forbidden to be included, i.e.: </IMG> </INPUT> </BR> </HR> </FRAME> </AREA> </BASE> </BASEFONT> </COL> </ISINDEX> </LINK> </META> </PARAM> Note: xhtml is different from HTML. xhtml is a form of xml, which requires every element have a closing tag. A closing tag can be forbidden in html, yet mandatory in xhtml. Are the optional closing tags ideally included, but we'll accept them if you forgot them, or ideally not included, but we'll accept them if you put them in In other words, should i include them, or should i not include them? The HTML 4.01 spec talks about closing element tags being optional, but doesn't say if it's preferable to include them, or preferable to not include them. On the other hand, a random article on DevGuru says: The ending tag is optional. However, it is recommended that it be included. The reason i ask is because you just know it's optional for compatibility reasons; and they would have made them (mandatory | forbidden) if they could have. Put it another way: What did HTML 1, 2, 3 do with regards to these, now optional, closing tags. What does HTML 5 do? And what should i do? Footnotes 1HTML 4.01

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  • Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

    - by Bob
    I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

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  • How can I ignore an http request without clearing the browser?

    - by Timid Developer
    To prevent duplicate requests (i.e. pressing F5 right after clicking a command button), I've setup my page base class to ignore the request if it's detected as a duplicate. When I say 'ignore' I mean Response.End() Now I thought I've seen this work before, where there's an issue, I just Response.End() and the users page just does nothing. I don't know the exact circumstance in which this worked, but I'm unable to repeat it now. Now when I call Response.End(), I just get an empty browser. More specifically, I get this html. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> <META http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=utf-8"></HEAD> <BODY></BODY></HTML> I setup the following test app to confirm the problem is not elsewhere in my app. Here it is: Add the following to an aspx form <asp:Label ID="lbl" Text="0" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd1" Text="Add 1" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd2" Text="Add 2" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd3" Text="Add 3" runat="server" /><br /> And here's the code behind file using System; namespace TestDupRequestCancellation { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { btnAdd1.Click += btnAdd1_Click; btnAdd2.Click += btnAdd2_Click; btnAdd3.Click += btnAdd3_Click; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) CurrentValue = 0; else if (Int32.Parse(lbl.Text) != CurrentValue) Response.End(); } protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { lbl.Text = CurrentValue.ToString(); } protected int CurrentValue { get { return Int32.Parse(Session["CurrentValue"].ToString()); } set { Session["CurrentValue"] = value.ToString(); } } void btnAdd3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 3; } void btnAdd2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 2; } void btnAdd1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 1; } } } When you load the page, clicking any button does what is expected, but if you press F5 at any time after pressing one of the buttons, it will detect it as a duplicate request and call Response.End() which promptly ends the task. Which leaves the user with an empty browser. Is there anyway to leave the user with the page as it was, so they can just click a button? Also; please note that this code is the simplest code I could come up with to demonstrate my problem. It's not meant to demonstrate how to check for dup requests.

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  • iPhone app works hundreds of times, then crashes from memory error on startup, then never works unti

    - by peter
    I have a Cocos2d/openGL iPhone game. It's a universal app and I'm dealing with an occasional but nasty error on the iPad. We are loading a lot of textures up front (3 2048x2048 textures). I'm working on reducing this up front load, but what worries me is I really don't understand the root cause of this crash that permanently breaks the app. This is the deal: 1. App works fine for hundreds of plays on the iPad 2. Eventually (I'm guessing due to other programs using up some memory and not letting go or whatever) the app starts crashing on startup. It just closes again in the middle of loading. 3. The App will now never work again on that iPad, closing immediately every time, until the iPad is restarted. Obviously my app is demanding too much memory up front to work reliably every time, I get that. What I don't get is why when it fails once, it has failed forever until the iPad is restarted. Can anyone explain what is going on here? EDIT: forgot to add organizer crash lags just say low memory, like this every time (I changed my app name to MyAppName below). Again, I know it's low memory, but why does it stay low memory until restart?: Incident Identifier: E7A2507C-3FB1-4E3B-B315-09F094236541 CrashReporter Key: 0fda9d667f2c6073f20a76809aa25438b6854d15 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.2 (7B367) Date: 2010-04-30 16:59:44 -0400 Free pages: 437 Wired pages: 17228 Purgeable pages: 0 Largest process: MyAppName Processes Name UUID Count resident pages MyAppName <6307ce41802850944baa78d29224fa7f> 22385 (jettisoned) (active) mediaserverd <ea8bac28b06fe3980fdd44b5caceb563> 242 DTMobileIS <a0f651e43881e66f50f8a95abea72921> 5826 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 syslog_relay <4ceaed776d2df957fa130712f4ef21d0> 66 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 afcd <4f3c9566e33b4463f05603d990584e5d> 72 ptpd <83de0f774bd6553d513ae9e19b0f9b56> 181 syslogd <66247e305d5c0bf6f1ce1cc950653263> 81 lsd <a4d852c1c8da2b3d231bdc90887b52ba> 130 iapd <a8534cbde4b90ad5915dd26ab03ff3e3> 204 notifyd <5e9d5bee7c3eae1c8b494c79eb11406e> 71 BTServer <64e4a6ea6b1240db2331e05a29caa862> 108 CommCenter <97bf297944ac4bde19bcee96dd23bd5f> 181 SpringBoard <c7a5904c12db7b14334a4edaa4cabaa9> 5339 (active) configd <aca9fa3380322669164fd6b1a3864300> 373 fairplayd.K48 <2d997ffca1a568f9c5400ac32d8f0782> 84 locationd <dd1ea88105c62173908ce767db5c4d37> 599 mDNSResponder <820560222d47a1f2a0dce98a7f8a9721> 108 lockdownd <497fd54c79a680bf29f5d9320f514613> 303 MobileStorageMou <c277b79c2157c4dc5cfc5c3ca35bd5f2> 69 launchd <66972eee4d865c4383b33d985d22994b> 98 **End**

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  • JavaScript - Cross Site Scripting - Permission Denied

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a web application for which I am trying to use Twitter's OAuth functionality. This application has a link that prompts a user for their Twitter credentials. When a user clicks this link, a new window is opened via JavaScript. This window serves as a dialog. This is accomplished like such: MainPage: <div id="promptDiv"><a href="#" onclick="launchDialog('twitter/prompt.aspx');">Provide Credentials</a></div> ... function launchDialog(url) { var specs = "location=0,menubar=0,status=0,titlebar=0,toolbar=0"; var dialogWindow = window.open(url, "dialog", specs, true); } When a user clicks the link, they are redirected to Twitter's site from the prompt.aspx page. On the Twitter site, the user has the option to enter their Twitter credentials. When they have provided their credentials, they are redirected back to my site. This is accomplished through a callback url which can be set for applications on Twitter's site. When the callback happens, the user is redirected to "/twitter/confirm.aspx" on my site in the dialog window. When this happens I want to update the contents of "promptDiv" to say "You have successfully connected with Twitter" to replace the link and close the dialog. This serves the purpose of notifying the user they have successfully completed this step. I can successfully close the dialog window. However, when I am try to update the HTML DOM, I receive an error that says "Error: Permission denied to get property Window.document". In an attempt to update the HTML DOM, I tried using the following script in "/twitter/confirm.aspx": // Error is thrown on the first line. var confirmDiv = window.opener.document.getElementById("confirmDiv"); if (confirmDiv != null) { // Update the contents } window.close(); I then just tried to read the HTML to see if I could even access the DOM via the following script: alert(window.opener.document.body.innerHTML); When I attempted this, I still got a "Permission denied" error. I know this has something to do with cross-site scripting. However, I do not know how to resolve it. How do I fix this problem? Am I structuring my application incorrectly? How do I update the HTML DOM after a user has been redirected back to my site? Thank you for your help!

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