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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • Is it possible to use .data() as a search criteria?

    - by Andrew
    I have a pretty complex chat application going on, and there are multiple chat panes, chat entries, chat submits, etc. going on in the same window. At first I was going to do something like.... <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-42"> <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-93"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-42"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-93"> ... etc. (of course this is vastly simplified, they'd be in separate divs, separate visibilities, etc) So, when they clicked on a .chatsubmit, it would then get the id of that and find the last two characters for the chat ID. This presents some problems, as it would require rewrites if IDs changed lengths, and seems just plain inelegant to me. I then remembered the .data() facility in jQuery... I thought, maybe I could do it more like this: <input type="text" class="chattext"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) to this one <input type="button" class="chatsubmit"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) So that when they click chatsubmit, it gets the ID, and then finds the chattext with that ID and processes it. But looking at the documentation, I don't see an easy way to search by this. For example, let's say the event target in this case is the chatsubmit with the data('id') of 42... var ID = $(event.target).data('id'); // Sets it to 42 var chattext = ... And here I run into the trouble. How do I find which DOM element matches a class of chattext and a data('id') of 42? Is there any easy method, or do I have to search every .chattext for the one with an id of 42? Or is there another easy way of doing this? I did consider the possibility of the container div having the ID, which would make it, I think,? slightly easier to get. But if this works, it could be dealing with things in other container divs as well, making that not a long-term solution. Edit: Literally seconds after posting this, I found this: http://james.padolsey.com/javascript/extending-jquerys-selector-capabilities/ which includes information on extending the selector to data. So I'll try that out, and in the meantime, is this a completely foolhardy way of handling this?

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  • PHP Changing Class Variables Outside of Class

    - by Jamie Bicknell
    Apologies for the wording on this question, I'm having difficulties explaining what I'm after, but hopefully it makes sense. Let's say I have a class, and I wish to pass a variable through one of it's methods, then I have another method which outputs this variable. That's all fine, but what I'm after is that if I update the variable which was originally passed, and do this outside the class methods, it should be reflected in the class. I've created a very basic example: class Test { private $var = ''; function setVar($input) { $this->var = $input; } function getVar() { echo 'Var = ' . $this->var . '<br />'; } } If I run $test = new Test(); $string = 'Howdy'; $test->setVar($string); $test->getVar(); I get Var = Howdy However, this is the flow I would like: $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $string = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $string = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Expected output to be Var = Hello Var = Goodbye I don't know what the correct naming of this would be, and I've tried using references to the original variable but no luck. I've come across this in the past, with the PDO prepared statements, see Example #2 $stmt = $dbh->prepare("INSERT INTO REGISTRY (name, value) VALUES (?, ?)"); $stmt->bindParam(1, $name); $stmt->bindParam(2, $value); // insert one row $name = 'one'; $value = 1; $stmt->execute(); // insert another row with different values $name = 'two'; $value = 2; $stmt->execute(); I know I can change the variable to public and do the following, but it isn't quite the same as how the PDO class handles it, and I'm really looking to mimic that behaviour. $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $test->var = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $test->var = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Any help, ideas, pointers, or advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Getting caught in loops - R

    - by user334898
    I am looking at whether or not certain 'systems' for betting really do work as claimed, namely, that they have a positive expectation. One such system is based on the rebate on loss. You basically have a large master pot, say $1 million. Your bankroll for each game is $50k. The way it works, is as follows: 1) Start with $50k, always bet on banker 2) If you win, add the money to the master pot. Then play again with $50k. 3) If you lose(now you're at $30k) play till you either: (a) hit 0, you get a rebate of 10%. Begin playing again with $50k+5k=$55k. (b) If you win more than the initial bankroll, add the money to the master pot. Then play again with $50k. 4) Continue until you double the master pot. I just cant find an easy way of programming out the possible cases in R, since you can eventually go down an improbable path. For example, you start at 50k, lose 20, win 19, now you're at 49, now you lose 20, lose 20, now youre at 9, you either lose 9 and get back 5k or you win and this cycle continues until you either end up with more than 50k or hit 0 and get the rebate on the 50k and start again with $50k +5k. Here's some code i started, but i havent figured out a good way of handling the cases where you get stuck and keeping track of the number of games played. Thanks again for your help. Obviously, I understand you may be busy and not have time. p.loss <- .4462466 p.win <- .4585974 p.tie <- 1 - (p.win+p.loss) prob <- c(p.win,p.tie,p.loss) bet<-20 x <- c(19,0,-20) r <- 10 # rebate = 20% br.i <- 50 br<-200 #for(i in 1:100){ # cbr.i<-0 y <- sample(x,1,replace=T,prob) cbr.i<-y+br.i if(cbr.i > br.i){ br<-br+(cbr.i-br.i); cbr.i<-br.i; }else{ y <- sample(x,2,replace=T,prob); if( sum(y)< cbr.i ){ cbr.i<-br.i+(1/r)*br.i; br<-br-br.i} cbr.i<-y+ }else{ cbr.i<- sum(y) + cbr.i; }if(cbr.i <= bet){ y <- sample(x,1,replace=T,prob) if(abs(y)>cbr.i){ cbr.i<-br.i+(1/r)*br.i } }

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  • Is 4-5 years the “Midlife Crisis” for a programming career?

    - by Jeffrey
    I’ve been programming C# professionally for a bit over 4 years now. For the past 4 years I’ve worked for a few small/medium companies ranging from “web/ads agencies”, small industry specific software shops to a small startup. I've been mainly doing "business apps" that involves using high-level programming languages (garbage collected) and my overall experience was that all of the works I’ve done could have been more professional. A lot of the things were done incorrectly (in a rush) mainly due to cost factor that people always wanted something “now” and with the smallest amount of spendable money. I kept on thinking maybe if I could work for a bigger companies or a company that’s better suited for programmers, or somewhere that's got the money and time to really build something longer term and more maintainable I may have enjoyed more in my career. I’ve never had a “mentor” that guided me through my 4 years career. I am pretty much blog / google / self taught programmer other than my bachelor IT degree. I’ve also observed another issue that most so called “senior” programmer in “my working environment” are really not that senior skill wise. They are “senior” only because they’ve been a long time programmer, but the code they write or the decisions they make are absolutely rubbish! They don't want to learn, they don't want to be better they just want to get paid and do what they've told to do which make sense and most of us are like that. Maybe that’s why they are where they are now. But I don’t want to become like them I want to be better. I’ve run into a mental state that I no longer intend to be a programmer for my future career. I started to think maybe there are better things out there to work on. The more blogs I read, the more “best practices” I’ve tried the more I feel I am drifting away from “my reality”. But I am not a great programmer otherwise I don't think I am where I am now. I think 4-5 years is a stage that can be a step forward career wise or a step out of where you are. I just wanted to hear what other have to say about what I’ve mentioned above and whether you’ve experienced similar situation in your past programming career and how you dealt with it. Thanks.

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  • Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

    - by Jim Fell
    It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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  • actionscript 2.0 input text box

    - by user1769760
    So, here's what I'm trying to do, and I, frankly, believe it should be obvious, but I can't figure it out. I am creating a very simple Artificial Intelligence simulation. And in this simulation there's an input box at the bottom of the screen (called "input" exactly). "input" has a variable in its properties that is called "inbox" (exactly). Using a key listener the script calls up a function when the enter button is pressed. This function has 2 if statements and an else statement which dictate the responses of the AI (named "nistra"). The problem is this, When I type in what I want to say, and hit enter, it always uses the second response ("lockpick" in the code below). I have tried variations on the code but I still don't see the solution. I believe the problem is that the "typein" variable holds all the format information from the text box as well as the variable, but I could be wrong, that information is in here as well, underneath the code itself. Any help I can get would be greatly appreciated. var typein = ""; //copies the text from inbox into here, this is what nistra responds to var inbox = ""; //this is where the text from the input text box goes var respond = ""; //nistra's responses go here my_listener = new Object(); // key listener my_listener.onKeyDown = function() { if(Key.isDown(13)) //enter button pressed { typein = inbox; // moves inbox into typein nistraresponse(); // calles nistra's responses } //code = Key.getCode(); //trace ("Key pressed = " + code); } Key.addListener(my_listener); // key listener ends here nistraresponse = function() // nistra's responses { trace(typein); // trace out what "typein" holds if(typein = "Hello") // if you type in "Hello" { respond = "Hello, How are you?"; } if(typein = "lockpick") // if you type in "lockpick" { respond = "Affirmative"; } else // anything else { respond = "I do not understand the command, please rephrase"; } cntxtID = setInterval(clearnistra, 5000); // calls the function that clears out nistra's response box so that her responses don't just sit there } clearnistra = function() // clears her respond box { respond = ""; clearInterval(cntxtID); } // "typein" traces out the following <TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"><P ALIGN="CENTER"><FONT FACE="Times New Roman" SIZE="20" COLOR="#FF0000" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0">test</FONT></P></TEXTFORMAT>

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  • Inbreeding-immune database structure

    - by Nick Savage
    I have an application that requires a "simple" family tree. I would like to be able to perform queries that will give me data for an entire family given one id from a member in the family. I say simple because it does not need to take into account adoption or any other obscurities. The requirements for the application are as follows: Any two people will not be able to breed if they're from the same genetic line Needs to allow for the addition of new family lines (new people with no previous family) Need to be able to pull siblings, parents separately through queries I'm having trouble coming up with the proper structure for the database. So far I've come up with two solutions but they're not very reliable and will probably get out of hand quite quickly. Solution 1 involves placing a family_ids field on the people table and storing a list of unique family ids. Each time two people breed the lists are checked against each other to make sure no ids match and if everything checks out will merge the two lists and set that as the child's family_ids field. Example: Father (family_ids: (null)) breeds with Mother (family_ids: (213, 519)) -> Child (family_ids: (213, 519)) breeds with Random Person (family_ids: (813, 712, 122, 767)) -> Grandchild (family_ids: (213, 519, 813, 712, 122, 767)) And so on and so forth... The problem I see with this is the lists becoming unreasonably large as time goes on. Solution 2 uses cakephp's associations to declare: public $belongsTo = array( 'Father' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'father_id' ), 'Mother' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'mother_id' ) ); Now setting recursive to 2 will fetch the results of the mother and father, along with their mother and father, and so on and so forth all the way down the line. The problem with this route is that the data is in nested arrays and I'm unsure of how to efficiently work through the code. If anyone would be able to steer me in the direction of the most efficient way to handle what I want to achieve that would be tremendously helpful. Any and all help is greatly appreciated and I'll gladly answer any questions anyone has. Thanks a lot.

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  • Repeating a object that only occurs couple of times and has different values with htmlagilitypack c#.

    - by dtd
    I have a problem I cant seem to solve here. Lets say I have some html like beneth here that I want to parse. All this html is within one list on the page. And the names repeat themself like in the example I wrote. <li class = "seperator"> a date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "seperator"> a nother new date </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> <li class = "lol"> some text </li> I did manage to use htmlagility pack to parse every li object seperate, and almost formating it how I want. My print atm looks something like this: "a date" "some text" "some text" "some text" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "some text" "some text" What I want to achive: "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a date" "some text" "a new date" "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" "a nother new date " "some text" But the problem is that beneath every seperator, the count of every lol object may vary. So one day, the webpage may have one lol object beneth date 1, and the next day it may have 10 lol objects. So I am woundering if there is an smart/easy way to somehow count the number of lol objects in between the seperators. Or if there is another way to figure this out? Within for example htmlagilitypack. And yes, I need the correct date in front of every lol object, not just infront the first one. This would have been a pice of cake if the seperator class would have ended beneath the last lol object, but sadly that is not the case... I dont think that I need to paste my code here, but basicly what I do is to parse the page, extract the seperators and lol objects and add them to a list, where I split them up to seperator and lol objects. Then I print it out to a file and since the seperator only occure 3 times(in the example) I will only get out 3 seperate dates.

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  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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  • Fastest way to copy a set (100+) of related SQLAlchemy objects and change attribute on each one

    - by rebus
    I am developing an app that keeps track of items going in and out of factory. For example, lets say you have 3 kinds of plastic coming in, they are mixed in various ratios and then sent out as a new product. So to keep track of this I've created following database structure: This is very simplified overview of my SQLAlchemy models: IN <- RATIO <- OUT <- REPORT ITEMS -> REPORT IN are products coming in, RATIO is various information on measurements, and OUT is a final product. REPORT is basically a header model which has a lot of REPORT ITEMS attached to it, which in turn relate it to OUT products. This would all work perfectly, but IN and RATION values can change. These changes ultimately change the OUT product which would mean the REPORT values would change. So in order to change an attribute on IN object for example I should copy that object with that attribute changed. I would think this is basically a question about database normalization, because i didn't want to duplicate all the IN, RATIO and OUT information by writing it in REPORT ITEMS table for example, but I've came across this problem (well not really a problem but rather a feature I'd like for a user to have). When the attribute on IN object is changed I want related objects (RATIO and OUT) automatically copied and related to a new IN object. So I was thinking something like: Take an existing instance of model IN that needs to change (call it old_in) Create a new one out of it with some attributes changed (call it new_in) Collect all the RATIO objects that are related to old_in Copy each RATIO and relate them to a new_in Collect all the OUT objects that are related to old RATIO Copy each OUT and relate them to a new RATIO Few questions pop to mind when i look at this problem: Should i just duplicate the data, does all this copying even make sense? If it does, should i rather do it in plain SQL? If no what would be the best approach to do it with Python and SQLAlchemy? Any general answer would suffice really, at least a pointer in right direction. I really want to free then end user for hassle of having create new ratios and out products.

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  • Not sure what happens to my apps objects when using NSURLSession in background - what state is my app in?

    - by Avner Barr
    More of a general question - I don't understand the workings of NSURLSession when using it in "background session mode". I will supply some simple contrived example code. I have a database which holds objects - such that portions of this data can be uploaded to a remote server. It is important to know which data/objects were uploaded in order to accurately display information to the user. It is also important to be able to upload to the server in a background task because the app can be killed at any point. for instance a simple profile picture object: @interface ProfilePicture : NSObject @property int userId; @property UIImage *profilePicture; @property BOOL successfullyUploaded; // we want to know if the image was uploaded to out server - this could also be a property that is queryable but lets assume this is attached to this object @end Now Lets say I want to upload the profile picture to a remote server - I could do something like: @implementation ProfilePictureUploader -(void)uploadProfilePicture:(ProfilePicture *)profilePicture completion:(void(^)(BOOL successInUploading))completion { NSUrlSession *uploadImageSession = ..... // code to setup uploading the image - and calling the completion handler; [uploadImageSession resume]; } @end Now somewhere else in my code I want to upload the profile picture - and if it was successful update the UI and the database that this action happened: ProfilePicture *aNewProfilePicture = ...; aNewProfilePicture.profilePicture = aImage; aNewProfilePicture.userId = 123; aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = NO; // write the change to disk [MyDatabase write:aNewProfilePicture]; // upload the image to the server ProfilePictureUploader *uploader = [ProfilePictureUploader ....]; [uploader uploadProfilePicture:aNewProfilePicture completion:^(BOOL successInUploading) { if (successInUploading) { // persist the change to my db. aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = YES; [Mydase update:aNewProfilePicture]; // persist the change } }]; Now obviously if my app is running then this "ProfilePicture" object is successfully uploaded and all is well - the database object has its own internal workings with data structures/caches and what not. All callbacks that may exist are maintained and the app state is straightforward. But I'm not clear what happens if the app "dies" at some point during the upload. It seems that any callbacks/notifications are dead. According to the API documentation- the uploading is handled by a separate process. Therefor the upload will continue and my app will be awakened at some point in the future to handle completion. But the object "aNewProfilePicture" is non existant at that point and all callbacks/objects are gone. I don't understand what context exists at this point. How am I supposed to ensure consistency in my DB and UI (For instance update the "successfullyUploaded" property for that user)? Do I need to re-work everything touching the DB or UI to correspond with the new API and work in a context free environment?

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  • PHP looping through an array to fetch a value for each key from database (third normal form)

    - by zomboble
    I am building a system, mostly for consolidating learning but will be used in practice. I will try and verbally explain the part of the E-R diagram I am focusing on: Each cadet can have many uniformID's Each Uniform ID is a new entry in table uniform, so cadets (table) may look like: id | name | ... | uniformID 1 | Example | ... | 1,2,3 uniform table: id | notes | cadet 1 | Need new blahh | 1 2 | Some stuff needed | 1 3 | Whatever you like | 1 On second thought, looks like I wont need that third column in the db. I am trying to iterate through each id in uniformID, code: <?php $cadet = $_GET['id']; // set from URL $query = mysql_query("SELECT `uniformID` FROM `cadets` WHERE id = '$cadet' LIMIT 1") or die(mysql_error()); // get uniform needed as string // store it while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $uniformArray = $row['uniformID']; } echo $uniformArray . " "; $exploded = explode(",", $uniformArray); // convert into an array // for each key in the array perform a new query foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { $query(count($exploded)); $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); } ? As I say, this is mainly for consolidation purposes but I have come up with a error, sql is saying: Fatal error: Function name must be a string in C:\wamp\www\intranet\uniform.php on line 82 line 82 is: $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); I wasn't sure it would work so I tried it and now i'm stuck! EDIT: Thanks to everyone who has contributed to this! This is now the working code: foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { //$query(count($exploded)); $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<tr> <td>" . $row['id'] . "</td> <td>" . $row['note'] . "</td> </tr>"; } } Added the while and did the iteration by nesting it in the foreach

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  • Best way to have common class shared by both C++ and Ruby?

    - by shuttle87
    I am currently working on a project where a team of us are designing a game, all of us are proficient in ruby and some (but not all) of us are proficient in c++. Initially we made the backend in ruby but we ported it to c++ for more speed. The c++ port of the backend has exactly the same features and algorithms as the original ruby code. However we still have a bunch of code in ruby that does useful things but we want it to now get the data from the c++ classes. Our first thought was that we could save some of the data structures in something like XML or redis and call that, but some of the developers don't like that idea. We don't need anything particularly complex data structures to be passed between the different parts of the code, just tuples, strings and ints. Is there any way of integrating the ruby code so that it can call the c++ stuff natively? Will we need to embed code? Will we have to make a ruby extension? If so are there any good resources/tutorials you could suggest? For example say we have this code in the c++ backend: class The_game{ private: bool printinfo; //print the player diagnostic info at the beginning if true int numplayers; std::vector<Player*> players; string current_action; int action_is_on; // the index of the player in the players array that the action is now on //more code here public: Table(std::vector<Player *> in_players, std::vector<Statistics *> player_stats ,const int in_numplayers); ~Table(); void play_game(); History actions_history; }; class History{ private: int action_sequence_number; std::vector<Action*> hand_actions; public: void print_history(); void add_action(Action* the_action_to_be_added); int get_action_sequence_number(){ return action_sequence_number;} bool history_actions_are_equal(); int last_action_size(int street,int number_of_actions_ago); History(); ~History(); }; Is there any way to natively call something in the actions_history via The_game object in ruby? (The objects in the original ruby code all had the same names and functionality) By this I mean: class MyRubyClass def method1(arg1) puts arg1 self.f() # ... but still available puts cpp_method.the_current_game.actions_history.get_action_sequence_number() end # Constructor: def initialize(arg) puts "In constructor with arg #{arg}" #get the c++ object here and call it cpp_method end end Is this possible? Any advice or suggestions are appreciated.

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  • How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

    - by Alex
    Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

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  • adding results of XML request to a page

    - by user2925833
    I am trying to get a feel for adding content to a page with XMLHTTPRequest. I would like to add the results to existing page content say in a second column, but I am not having any luck. I would appreciate a shove in the right direction. Thanks for any help. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style> #button{ float: left; } #team{ float: left; } </style> <title>XMLHTTPRequest</title> <script src="jquery-1.10.2.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.onreadystatechange = function(){ if (xhr.readyState == 4 && xhr.status == 200) { xmlDoc = xhr.responseXML; var team = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("teammember"); var html = ""; for (i = 0; i < team.length; i++){ html += xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("name")[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue + "<br>" + xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("title")[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue + "<br>" + xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("bio")[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue + "<br><br>"; } //this is the code I would like help with var team = document.getElementById("team"); team.appendChild(document.createTextNode("html")); } } xhr.open("GET", "team.xml", true); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="button"> <button onclick="xhr.send()">Click Me!</button> </div> <div id="team"> </div> </body> </html>

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  • git repository sync between computers, when moving around?

    - by Johan
    Hi Let's say that I have a desktop pc and a laptop, and sometimes I work on the desktop and sometimes I work on the laptop. What is the easiest way to move a git repository back and forth? I want the git repositories to be identical, so that I can continue where I left of at the other computer. I would like to make sure that I have the same branches and tags on both of the computers. Thanks Johan Note: I know how to do this with SubVersion, but I'm curious on how this would work with git. If it is easier, I can use a third pc as classical server that the two pc:s can sync against. Note: Both computers are running Linux. Update: So let's try XANI:s idea with a bare git repo on a server, and the push command syntax from KingCrunch. In this example there is two clients and one server. So let's create the server part first. ssh user@server mkdir -p ~/git_test/workspace cd ~/git_test/workspace git --bare init So then from one of the other computers I try to get a copy of the repo with clone: git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ Initialized empty Git repository in /home/user/git_test/repo1/workspace/.git/ warning: You appear to have cloned an empty repository. Then go into that repo and add a file: cd workspace/ echo "test1" > testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit testfile1.txt -m "Added file testfile1.txt" git push origin master Now the server is updated with testfile1.txt. Anyway, let's see if we can get this file from the other computer. mkdir -p ~/git_test/repo2 cd ~/git_test/repo2 git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ cd workspace/ git pull And now we can see the testfile. At this point we can edit it with some more content and update the server again. echo "test2" >> testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit -m "Test2" git push origin master Then we go back to the first client and do a git pull to see the updated file. And now I can move back and forth between the two computers, and add a third if I like to.

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  • Efficiently fetching and storing tweets from a few hundred twitter profiles?

    - by MSpreij
    The site I'm working on needs to fetch the tweets from 150-300 people, store them locally, and then list them on the front page. The profiles sit in groups. The pages will be showing the last 20 tweets (or 21-40, etc) by date, group of profiles, single profile, search, or "subject" (which is sort of a different group.. I think..) a live, context-aware tag cloud (based on the last 300 tweets of the current search, group of profiles, or single profile shown) various statistics (group stuffs, most active, etc) which depend on the type of page shown. We're expecting a fair bit of traffic. The last, similar site peaked at nearly 40K visits per day, and ran intro trouble before I started caching pages as static files, and disabling some features (some, accidently..). This was caused mostly by the fact that a page load would also fetch the last x tweets from the 3-6 profiles which had not been updated the longest.. With this new site I can fortunately use cron to fetch tweets, so that helps. I'll also be denormalizing the db a little so it needs less joins, optimize it for faster selects instead of size. Now, main question: how do I figure out which profiles to check for new tweets in an efficient manner? Some people will be tweeting more often than others, some will tweet in bursts (this happens a lot). I want to keep the front page of the site as "current" as possible. If it comes to, say, 300 profiles, and I check 5 every minute, some tweets will only appear an hour after the fact. I can check more often (up to 20K) but want to optimize this as much as possible, both to not hit the rate limit and to not run out of resources on the local server (it hit mysql's connection limit with that other site). Question 2: since cron only "runs" once a minute, I figure I have to check multiple profiles each minute - as stated, at least 5, possibly more. To try and spread it out over that minute I could have it sleep a few seconds between batches or even single profiles. But then if it takes longer than 60 seconds altogether, the script will run into itself. Is this a problem? If so, how can I avoid that? Question 3: any other tips? Readmes? URLs?

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  • Solve a maze using multicores?

    - by acidzombie24
    This question is messy, i dont need a working solution, i need some psuedo code. How would i solve this maze? This is a homework question. I have to get from point green to red. At every fork i need to 'spawn a thread' and go that direction. I need to figure out how to get to red but i am unsure how to avoid paths i already have taken (finishing with any path is ok, i am just not allowed to go in circles). Heres an example of my problem, i start by moving down and i see a fork so one goes right and one goes down (or this thread can take it, it doesnt matter). Now lets ignore the rest of the forks and say the one going right hits the wall, goes down, hits the wall and goes left, then goes up. The other thread goes down, hits the wall then goes all the way right. The bottom path has been taken twice, by starting at different sides. How do i mark this path has been taken? Do i need a lock? Is this the only way? Is there a lockless solution? Implementation wise i was thinking i could have the maze something like this. I dont like the solution because there is a LOT of locking (assuming i lock before each read and write of the haveTraverse member). I dont need to use the MazeSegment class below, i just wrote it up as an example. I am allowed to construct the maze however i want. I was thinking maybe the solution requires no connecting paths and thats hassling me. Maybe i could split the map up instead of using the format below (which is easy to read and understand). But if i knew how to split it up i would know how to walk it thus the problem. How do i walk this maze efficiently? The only hint i receive was dont try to conserve memory by reusing it, make copies. However that was related to a problem with ordering a list and i dont think the hint was a hint for this. class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; int line_length; bool haveTraverse; } MazeSegment root; class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; bool haveTraverse; } void WalkPath(MazeSegment segment) { if(segment.haveTraverse) return; segment.haveTraverse = true; foreach(var v in segment) { if(v.haveTraverse == false) spawn_thread(v); } } WalkPath(root);

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  • Fill 4 input with one textarea

    - by Patrice Poliquin
    I have a question for the community. My problem is that I have 4 input files with a maxlength of 60 caracters for a total of 240 caracters. Because the "backend" of the customer's system, it need to be 4 differents inputs max to be inserted and they say it is not user-friendly to fill 4 fields. My solution I want to make a textarea and when you fill it, il complete the 4 fields. [input text #1] max60 [input text #2] max60 [input text #3] max60 [input text #4] max60 [textarea max 240] What I am trying to do is to make by javascript/jQuery to fill up the four field while typing in. At the moment, here is my code. $(document).ready(function() { // My text area $("#inf_notes").bind('keydown', function () { var maxLength = 240; if ($(this).val().length <= 60) { // The first 60 caracters $('#inf_notes_1').val($(this).val()); } if ($(this).val().length > 60 && $(this).val().length <= 120) { // If more then 60, fill the second field $('#inf_notes_2').val($(this).val()); } // If 121 - 180 ... // If 181 - 240 ... if($(this).val().length == 240) { $(this).val($(this).val().substring(0, maxLength)); $('.alert_textarea').show(); // Simple alert else { $('.alert_textarea').hide(); } }); }); It actually works for the first one, but I would like to have some feedbacks to help me complete the script to fill the 3 nexts. Any guess to complete it? -- EDIT #1 I found a way that could maybe work! When the first input is completly filled, it will jump to the next field with a .focus() $(".inf_notes").bind('keydown', function () { var notes1 = $('#inf_notes_1').val(); var notes2 = $('#inf_notes_2').val(); var notes3 = $('#inf_notes_3').val(); if (notes1.length == 60) { $('#inf_notes_2').focus(); } if (notes2.length == 60) { $('#inf_notes_3').focus(); } if (notes3.length == 60) { $('#inf_notes_4').focus(); } });

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  • Can you get a Func<T> (or similar) from a MethodInfo object?

    - by Dan Tao
    I realize that, generally speaking, there are performance implications of using reflection. (I myself am not a fan of reflection at all, actually; this is a purely academic question.) Suppose there exists some class that looks like this: public class MyClass { public string GetName() { return "My Name"; } } Bear with me here. I know that if I have an instance of MyClass called x, I can call x.GetName(). Furthermore, I could set a Func<string> variable to x.GetName. Now here's my question. Let's say I don't know the above class is called MyClass; I've got some object, x, but I have no idea what it is. I could check to see if that object has a GetName method by doing this: MethodInfo getName = x.GetType().GetMethod("GetName"); Suppose getName is not null. Then couldn't I furthermore check if getName.ReturnType == typeof(string) and getName.GetParameters().Length == 0, and at this point, wouldn't I be quite certain that the method represented by my getName object could definitely be cast to a Func<string>, somehow? I realize there's a MethodInfo.Invoke, and I also realize I could always create a Func<string> like: Func<string> getNameFunc = () => getName.Invoke(x, null); I guess what I'm asking is if there's any way to go from a MethodInfo object to the actual method it represents, incurring the performance cost of reflection in the process, but after that point being able to call the method directly (via, e.g., a Func<string> or something similar) without a performance penalty. What I'm envisioning might look something like this: // obviously this would throw an exception if GetActualInstanceMethod returned // something that couldn't be cast to a Func<string> Func<string> getNameFunc = (Func<string>)getName.GetActualInstanceMethod(x); (I realize that doesn't exist; I'm wondering if there's anything like it.) If what I'm asking doesn't make sense, or if I'm being unclear, I'll be happy to attempt to clarify.

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  • probelm with recv() on a tcp connection

    - by michael
    Hi, I am simulating TCP communication on windows in C I have sender and a receiver communicating. sender sends packets of specific size to receiver. receiver gets them and send an ACK for each packet it received back to the sender. If the sender didn't get a specific packet (they are numbered in a header inside the packet) it sends the packet again to the receiver. Here is the getPacket function on the receiver side: //get the next packet from the socket. set the packetSize to -1 //if it's the first packet. //return: total bytes read // return: 0 if socket has shutdown on sender side, -1 error, else number of bytes received int getPakcet(char *chunkBuff,int packetSize,SOCKET AcceptSocket){ int totalChunkLen = 0; int bytesRecv=-1; bool firstTime=false; if (packetSize==-1) { packetSize=MAX_PACKET_LENGTH; firstTime=true; } int needToGet=packetSize; do { char* recvBuff; recvBuff = (char*)calloc(needToGet,sizeof(char)); if(recvBuff == NULL){ fprintf(stderr,"Memory allocation problem\n"); return -1; } bytesRecv = recv(AcceptSocket, recvBuff, needToGet, 0); if (bytesRecv == SOCKET_ERROR){ fprintf(stderr,"recv() error %ld.\n", WSAGetLastError()); totalChunkLen=-1; return -1; } if (bytesRecv == 0){ fprintf(stderr,"recv(): socket has shutdown on sender side"); return 0; } else if(bytesRecv > 0) { memcpy(chunkBuff + totalChunkLen,recvBuff,bytesRecv); totalChunkLen+=bytesRecv; } needToGet-=bytesRecv; } while ((totalChunkLen < packetSize) && (!firstTime)); return totalChunkLen; } i use firstTime because for the first time the receiver doesn't know the normal package size that the sender is going to send to it, so i use a MAX_PACKET_LENGTH to get a package and then set the normal package size to the num of bytes i have received my problem is the last package. it's size is less than the package size so lets say last package size is 2 and the normal package size is 4. so recv() gets two bytes, continues to the while condition, then totalChunkLen < packetSize because 2<4 so it iterates the loop again and the gets stuck in recv() because it's blocking because the sender has nothing to send. on the sender side i can't close the connection because i didn't ACK back, so it's kind of a deadlock. receiver is stuck because it's waiting for more packages but sender has nothing to send. i don't want to use a timeout for recv() or to insert a special character to the package header to mark that it is the last one what can i do ? thanks

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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