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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

    - by Yeti
    I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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  • Effective Data Validation

    - by John Conde
    What's an effective way to handle data validation, say, from a form submission? Originally I had a bunch of if statements that checked each value and collected invalid values in an array for later retrieval (and listing). // Store errors here $errors = array(); // Hypothetical check if a string is alphanumeric if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $fieldvalue)) { $errors[$fieldname] = 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'; } // etc... What I did next was create a class that handles various data validation scenarios and store the results in an internal array. After data validation was complete I would check to see if any errors occurred and handle accordingly: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more methods here public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Validate credit card number } // more methods here public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue1, $fieldname1, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validate->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Naturally it didn't take long before this class became bloated with the virtually unlimited types of data to be validated. What I'm doing now is using decorators to separate the different types of data into their own classes and call them only when needed leaving generic validations (i.e. isAlphaNumeric()) in the base class: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more generic methods here public function setError($field, $msg = '') { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } class ValidationCreditCard { protected $validate; public function __construct(Validation $validate) { $this->validate = $validate; } public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Do validation // ... // if there is an error $this->validate->setError($field, $msg); } // more methods here } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue, $fieldname, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validateCC = new ValidationCreditCard($validate); $validateCC->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Am I on the right track? Or did I just complicate data validation more then I needed to?

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • User Control as container

    - by Luca
    I'm designing a simple expander control. I've derived from UserControl, drawn inner controls, built, run; all ok. Since an inner Control is a Panel, I'd like to use it as container at design time. Indeed I've used the attributes: [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] Great I say. But it isn't... The result is that I can use it as container at design time but: The added controls go back the inner controls already embedded in the user control Even if I push to top a control added at design time, at runtime it is back again on controls embedded to the user control I cannot restrict the container area at design time into a Panel area What am I missing? Here is the code for completeness... why this snippet of code is not working? [Designer(typeof(ExpanderControlDesigner))] [Designer("System.Windows.Forms.Design.ParentControlDesigner, System.Design", typeof(IDesigner))] public partial class ExpanderControl : UserControl { public ExpanderControl() { InitializeComponent(); .... [System.Security.Permissions.PermissionSet(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Name = "FullTrust")] internal class ExpanderControlDesigner : ControlDesigner { private ExpanderControl MyControl; public override void Initialize(IComponent component) { base.Initialize(component); MyControl = (ExpanderControl)component; // Hook up events ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); s.SelectionChanged += new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving += new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { } private void OnComponentRemoving(object sender, ComponentEventArgs e) { } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { ISelectionService s = (ISelectionService)GetService(typeof(ISelectionService)); IComponentChangeService c = (IComponentChangeService)GetService(typeof(IComponentChangeService)); // Unhook events s.SelectionChanged -= new EventHandler(OnSelectionChanged); c.ComponentRemoving -= new ComponentEventHandler(OnComponentRemoving); base.Dispose(disposing); } public override System.ComponentModel.Design.DesignerVerbCollection Verbs { get { DesignerVerbCollection v = new DesignerVerbCollection(); v.Add(new DesignerVerb("&asd", new EventHandler(null))); return v; } } } I've found many resources (Interaction, designed, limited area), but nothing was usefull for being operative...

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  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • Are Objective-C initializers allowed to share the same name?

    - by NattKatt
    I'm running into an odd issue in Objective-C when I have two classes using initializers of the same name, but differently-typed arguments. For example, let's say I create classes A and B: A.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface A : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum; @end A.m: #import "A.h" @implementation A - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"A: %f", theNum); } return self; } @end B.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface B : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum; @end B.m: #import "B.h" @implementation B - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"B: %d", theNum); } return self; } @end main.m: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "A.h" #import "B.h" int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; A *a = [[A alloc] initWithNum:20.0f]; B *b = [[B alloc] initWithNum:10]; [a release]; [b release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } When I run this, I get the following output: 2010-04-26 20:44:06.820 FnTest[14617:a0f] A: 20.000000 2010-04-26 20:44:06.823 FnTest[14617:a0f] B: 1 If I reverse the order of the imports so it imports B.h first, I get: 2010-04-26 20:45:03.034 FnTest[14635:a0f] A: 0.000000 2010-04-26 20:45:03.038 FnTest[14635:a0f] B: 10 For some reason, it seems like it's using the data type defined in whichever @interface gets included first for both classes. I did some stepping through the debugger and found that the isa pointer for both a and b objects ends up the same. I also found out that if I no longer make the alloc and init calls inline, both initializations seem to work properly, e.g.: A *a = [A alloc]; [a initWithNum:20.0f]; If I use this convention when I create both a and b, I get the right output and the isa pointers seem to be different for each object. Am I doing something wrong? I would have thought multiple classes could have the same initializer names, but perhaps that is not the case.

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  • how to fix protocol violation in c#

    - by Jeremy Styers
    I have a c# "client" and a Java "server". The java server has a wsdl it serves to the client. So far it works for c# to make a request for the server to perform a soap action. My server gets the soap request executes the method and tries to return the result back to the client. When I send the response to c# however, I get "The server committed a protocol violation. Section=ResponseStatusLine". I have spent all day trying to fix this and have come up with nothing that works. If I explain what i did, this post would be very long, so I'll keep it brief. i Googled for hours and everything tells me my "response line" is correct. I tried shutting down Skype, rearranging the response line, adding things, taking things away, etc, etc. All to no avail. This is for a class assignment so no, I can not use apis to help. I must do everything manually on the server side. That means parsing by hand, creating the soap response and the http response by hand. Just thought you'd like to know that before you say to use something that does it for me. I even tried making sure my server was sending the correct header by creating a java client that "mimicked" the c# one so I could see what the server returned. However, it's returning exactly what i told it to send. I tried telling my java client to do the same thing but to an actuall running c# service, to see what a real service returns, and it returned basically the same thing. To be safe, I copied it's response and tried sending it to the c# client and it still threw the error. Can anyone help? I've tried all i can think of, including adding the useUnsafeHeaderParsing to my app config. Nothing is working though. I send it exactly what a real service sends it and it yells at me. I send it what i want and it yells. I'm sending this: "200 OK HTTP/1.0\r\n" + "Content-Length: 201\r\n" + "Cache-Control: private\r\n" + "Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8\r\n\r\n";

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • NHibernate and objects with value-semantics

    - by Groo
    Problem: If I pass a class with value semantics (Equals method overridden) to NHibernate, NHibernate tries to save it to db even though it just saved an entity equal by value (but not by reference) to the database. What am I doing wrong? Here is a simplified example model for my problem: Let's say I have a Person entity and a City entity. One thread (producer) is creating new Person objects which belong to a specific existing City, and another thread (consumer) is saving them to a repository (using NHibernate as DAL). Since there is lot of objects being flushed at a time, I am using Guid.Comb id's to ensure that each insert is made using a single SQL command. City is an object with value-type semantics (equal by name only -- for this example purposes only): public class City : IEquatable<City> { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual bool Equals(City other) { if (other == null) return false; return this.Name == other.Name; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as City); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode(); } } Fluent NH mapping is something like: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.City) .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } } public class CityMap : ClassMap<City> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); } } Right now (with my current NHibernate mapping config), my consumer thread maintains a dictionary of cities and replaces their references in incoming person objects (otherwise NHibernate will see a new, non-cached City object and try to save it as well), and I need to do it for every produced Person object. Since I have implemented City class to behave like a value type, I hoped that NHibernate would compare Cities by value and not try to save them each time -- i.e. I would only need to do a lookup once per session and not care about them anymore. Is this possible, and if yes, what am I doing wrong here?

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  • Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

    - by Evan
    Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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  • C - How to use both aio_read() and aio_write().

    - by Slav
    I implement game server where I need to both read and write. So I accept incoming connection and start reading from it using aio_read() but when I need to send something, I stop reading using aio_cancel() and then use aio_write(). Within write's callback I resume reading. So, I do read all the time but when I need to send something - I pause reading. It works for ~20% of time - in other case call to aio_cancel() fails with "Operation now in progress" - and I cannot cancel it (even within permanent while cycle). So, my added write operation never happens. How to use these functions well? What did I missed? EDIT: Used under Linux 2.6.35. Ubuntu 10 - 32 bit. Example code: void handle_read(union sigval sigev_value) { /* handle data or disconnection */ } void handle_write(union sigval sigev_value) { /* free writing buffer memory */ } void start() { const int acceptorSocket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0); struct sockaddr_in addr; memset(&addr, 0, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); addr.sin_family = AF_INET; addr.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; addr.sin_port = htons(port); bind(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&addr, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in)); listen(acceptorSocket, SOMAXCONN); struct sockaddr_in address; socklen_t addressLen = sizeof(struct sockaddr_in); for(;;) { const int incomingSocket = accept(acceptorSocket, (struct sockaddr*)&address, &addressLen); if(incomingSocket == -1) { /* handle error ... */} else { //say socket to append outcoming messages at writing: const int currentFlags = fcntl(incomingSocket, F_GETFL, 0); if(currentFlags < 0) { /* handle error ... */ } if(fcntl(incomingSocket, F_SETFL, currentFlags | O_APPEND) == -1) { /* handle another error ... */ } //start reading: struct aiocb* readingAiocb = new struct aiocb; memset(readingAiocb, 0, sizeof(struct aiocb)); readingAiocb->aio_nbytes = MY_SOME_BUFFER_SIZE; readingAiocb->aio_fildes = socketDesc; readingAiocb->aio_buf = mySomeReadBuffer; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify = SIGEV_THREAD; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_value.sival_ptr = (void*)mySomeData; readingAiocb->aio_sigevent.sigev_notify_function = handle_read; if(aio_read(readingAiocb) != 0) { /* handle error ... */ } } } } //called at any time from server side: send(void* data, const size_t dataLength) { //... some thread-safety precautions not needed here ... const int cancellingResult = aio_cancel(socketDesc, readingAiocb); if(cancellingResult != AIO_CANCELED) { //this one happens ~80% of the time - embracing previous call to permanent while cycle does not help: if(cancellingResult == AIO_NOTCANCELED) { puts(strerror(aio_return(readingAiocb))); // "Operation now in progress" /* don't know what to do... */ } } //otherwise it's okay to send: else { aio_write(...); } }

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  • MVC how to implement two different post actions

    - by AnonyMouse
    I'm developing this really important squirrel application. There is a wizard where squirrels are added to the database. So say there are three screens to this wizard: Squirrel name details Height and weight Nut storage So at each step of the wizard I'm wanting to save the details to the database. The Height and weight view looks like: @model HeightWeightViewModel @{ ViewBag.Title = "Height and weight"; } <h2>Height and weight</h2> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { <h3>Height</h3> <div> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Squirrel.Height) </div> <h3>Weight</h3> <div> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Squirrel.Weight) </div> <input type="submit" value="Previous" /> <input type="submit" value="Next" /> } So I'm hoping that Previous and Next buttons will save these details. The Previous button while saving will also take the user to the Squirrel name details page. The Next will save and take the user to the nut storage page. I got the Next button working using: public ActionResult Edit(SquirrelViewModel squirrelViewModel) { _unitOfWork.SaveHeightWeight(squirrelViewModel); return RedirectToAction("Edit", "NutStorage", new { id = squirrelViewModel.Squirrel.Id }); } So the Next button saves the details and sends the user to the NutStorage page. The Previous button does the same as Next but I actually want it to send the user to the first step of the Wizard after saving. I'm not sure how to do this. Would I have another method to post to for Previous? I can't image how to implement this. Maybe I should be using ActionLinks instead of submit buttons but that would not post the details to be saved. Can anyone suggest how to get the previous button to save and send the user to the first page of the wizard while still having the Next functionality working?

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  • Check to see if CallResponder is processing

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4.6. As a simple example, say I have the following application: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:sdk="services.sdk.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { // ... } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <sdk:SDK id="sdk" fault="{Alert.show(event.fault.faultString +'\n\n'+ event.fault.faultDetail, 'SDK ERROR');}" showBusyCursor="false"/> <s:CallResponder id="getValueResult" result="getValueResultHandler()"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button id="btnGetValue" click="btnGetValue_clickHandler()" label="Get Value" /> </s:Application> So when you click on the button, it calls a PHP file and when it gets a result, it calls getValueResultHandler(). Easy enough. But what if the response from the PHP file takes a second or two and the user clicks the button rapidly? Then the result handler function may not get called every time, since the call responder gets a new token before it received the last response. Is there a standard way of resolving this issue? I came up with the following workaround, and it works fine, but it seems like this issue would be common enough to have a more built-in solution. My workaround is: var getValueResultProcessing:Boolean = false; private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { var interval:uint = setInterval(function():void { if (!getValueResultProcessing) { getValueResultProcessing = true; getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); clearInterval(interval); } }, 100); getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { getValueResultProcessing = false; // ... } Any better way of resolving this issue?

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  • Redirecting one file to another using dub2 and strtok

    - by Sergiy Zakharov
    OK, here goes. I have to write a program, in which I need to use strtok and dup2 to redirect one file to another, but I need to also have the user to actually put the command cat < file1 file2, but not from the shell, but instead by using my program. That's why I need strtok. And the reason my program doesn't work is probably because of that, because I don't really understand how strtok works. I found a similar program on the internet, but they just take the ls command and redirect it to the file. That's it. My program is much more complicated. I mean, it would've been easier just to say in shell cat < file1 file2, but for some reason they want us to do it this way. So, anyways, here is what I have so far (here I just combined what I have found on the internet with what I already had from before. We had to do something similar but then the user would just go ls or ls -l. Very simple stuff. This is much harder, for me, at least.) #include <fcntl.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/wait.h> #include <string.h> int main() { pid_t pid; char line[256]; char *args[129]; int i; int fd; int status; char *temp; while (1) { printf(">"); if (fgets(line, 256, stdin) == 0) { exit(0); } else { pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { i = 0; temp = strtok("<",line); while (temp != NULL) { args[i++] = temp; temp = strtok(">",line); args[i] = '\0'; } fd = open("hello", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd, STDIN_FILENO); fd = open("world", O_WRONLY|O_CREAT|O_TRUNC, S_IRWXU); dup2(fd, STDOUT_FILENO ); close(fd); execvp(args[0], args); } else { close(fd); wait(&status); } } } } Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • representing an XML config file with an IXmlSerializable class

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm writing in C# and trying to represent an XML config file through an IXmlSerializable class. I'm unsure how to represent the nested elements in my config file, though, such as logLevel: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> <credentials> <user>user123</user> <host>localhost</host> <password>pass123</password> </credentials> <credentials> <user>user456</user> <host>my.other.domain.com</host> <password>pass456</password> </credentials> </configuration> There is an enum called LogLevel that represents all the possible values for the logLevel tag. The tags within credentials should all come out as strings. In my class, called DLLConfigFile, I had the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; However, this isn't going to work because <logLevel> isn't within the root node of the XML file, it's one node deeper in <logging>. How do I go about doing this? As for the <credentials> nodes, my guess is I will need a second class, say CredentialsSection, and have a property such as the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="credentials", DataType="CredentialsSection")] public CredentialsSection[] AllCredentials; Edit: okay, I tried Robert Love's suggestion and created a LoggingSection class. However, my test fails: var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DLLConfigFile)); using (var stream = new FileStream(_configPath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read)) { using (var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream)) { XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(streamReader); var file = (DLLConfigFile)xs.Deserialize(reader); Assert.IsNotNull(file); LoggingSection logging = file.Logging; Assert.IsNotNull(logging); // fails here LogLevel logLevel = logging.LogLevel; Assert.IsNotNull(logLevel); Assert.AreEqual(EXPECTED_LOG_LEVEL, logLevel); } } The config file I'm testing with definitely has <logging>. Here's what the classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlRoot("logging")] public class LoggingSection : IXmlSerializable { public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { LogLevel = (LogLevel)Enum.Parse(typeof(LogLevel), reader.ReadString()); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { writer.WriteString(Enum.GetName(typeof(LogLevel), LogLevel)); } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("configuration")] public class DLLConfigFile : IXmlSerializable { [XmlElement(ElementName="logging", DataType="LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging; }

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  • Returning currently displayed index of an array Javascript...

    - by Jeff Kindred
    I have a simple array with x number of items. I am displaying them individually via a link click... I want to update a number that say 1 of 10. when the next one is displayed i want it to display 2 of 10 etc... I have looked all around and my brain is fried right now... I know its simple I just cant get it out. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Page Title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="style.css" type="text/css" media="screen" charset="utf-8"/> <script type="text/javascript"> var quotations = new Array() quotations[0]= "1" quotations[1]= "2" quotations[2]= "3" quotations[3]= "4" quotations[4]= "5" quotations[5]= "6" quotations[6]= "7" numQuotes = quotations.length; curQuote = 1; function move( xflip ) { curQuote = curQuote + xflip; if (curQuote > numQuotes) { curQuote = 1 ; } if (curQuote == 0) { curQuote = numQuotes ; } document.getElementById('quotation').innerHTML=quotations[curQuote - 1]; } var curPage = //this is where the current index should go </script> </head> <body> <div id="quotation"> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(quotations[0]);</script> </div> <div> <p><a href="javascript();" onclick="move(-1)">GO back</a> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(curPage + " of " + numQuotes)</script> <a href="javascript();" onclick="move(1)">GO FORTH</a></p> </div> </body> </html>

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  • web design PSD to html -> more direct ways?

    - by Assembler
    At work I see one colleague designing a site in Photoshop/Fireworks, I see another taking this data, slicing it up and using Dreamweaver to rebuild the same from scratch. It seems like too much mucking around! I know that Photoshop can output a tables based HTML, and Fireworks will create divs with absolute positioning; neither appear to be very helpful. Admittedly, I haven't tried much of (DW/FW) (CS4/CS3) since becoming a programmer, so I don't know if new versions are addressing this work flow issue, but are we still double handling things? Can we attach some sort of layout metadata (this is a rollover button, this will be a SWF, this will be text, this logo will hide "xyz" <h1> text etc) to slices to aid in layout generation? are there some secret tools which assist in this conversion process? Or are we still restricted to doing things by hand? The frustration continues when said hand built page needs to be reworked again to fit Smarty Templates/Wordpress/generic CMS. I acknowledge that designers need to be free of systems to be able to do whatever, but most conventional sites have: a header with navigation a sidebar with more links the main content part maybe another sidebar a footer Given the similarity of a lot of components, shouldn't there be a more systematic approach to going from sliced designs to functional HTML? Or am I over-simplifying things? -edit- Mmmmm.... I suppose I will accept an answer, but they weren't really what I was looking for. It just seems like designing the DOM is a bit of holy grail ("It's only a model!"), and maybe with all the "groovy" things you can do with HTML and Javascript, it would be mighty hard work, but with a set of constraints (that 960 stuff looks interesting), some well designed reset style sheets and a bit of... fairy dust? we should be able to improve the work flow. Photoshop's tables by themselves are pretty much useless, I agree, but surely we can take this data, and then select a group of cells and say "right, this is a text div, overflow:auto" or "these cells are an image block, style it with the same height/width as the selected area". Admittedly here at work there are other elephants in the room that need to make their formal introductions to management, but some parts of the designpage workflow seem... uneducated at best.

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  • convert portion of code into a function php

    - by user765368
    This is probably very easy to do but for some reason I can't seem to figure this out. Let's say I have code like this: $elements = array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd'); $myValues = array( 'values' => array( 'a' => array( 'xx' => 3, 'yy' => '' ), 'b' => array( 'xx' => '', 'yy' => '' ), 'c' => array( 'xx' => 8.4, 'yy' => '' ), 'd' => array( 'xx' => 18.4, 'yy' => '' ) ) ); foreach($elements as $elem) { if($myValues['values'][$elem]['xx'] != '') { if($myValues['values'][$elem]['xx'] < 6) { $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy'] = 'less than 6'; } elseif($myValues['values'][$elem]['xx'] >= 6 && $myValues['values'][$elem]['xx'] < 15) { $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy'] = 'between 6 and 16'; } else { $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy'] = 'greater than 15'; } testFunc($myValues['values'][$elem]['xx']); // This is how I would call my function once I replace the code above } } As you can see here what I'm trying to do is to change the value of $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy'] based on some conditions. What I want to do is to replace the if elseif else section of codes by a function that performs the same action. I tried something like: function testFunc($xx) { if($xx < 6) { $yy = 'less than 6'; } elseif($xx >= 6 && $xx < 15) { $yy = 'between 6 and 16'; } else { $yy = 'greater than 15'; } return $yy; } But obviously this won't work because I'm not changing the value of $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy'] inside my function. NOTE I really want to pass ONLY the value of $myValues['values'][$elem]['xx'] inside my function and return the changed value of $myValues['values'][$elem]['yy']. Can anybody help me with this? Thanks in advance

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  • How to use input type="tel" in a contact form

    - by user1678664
    PHP newbie here trying to use a simple contact form. The fields I have are: "Name", "Email", "Phone", and "Message". I am trying to figure out what to do with the "Phone" field – I want it to output to the same place that "Message" does, so that when the email is received it will output both the message and the phone number to the body of the email. How do I do this? if( isset( $_POST['submit'] ) ) : wp_mail( get_option( 'admin_email' ), 'Website Contact Form', ( isset($_POST['message'] ) ? $_POST['message'] : '(blank)' ), 'From: ' . ( isset( $_POST['from_name'] ) ? $_POST['from_name'] : 'Website Contact Form' ) . ' <' . ( isset( $_POST['from_email'] ) ? $_POST['from_email'] : get_option( 'admin_email' ) ). '>' . "\r\n" ); $output = '<p>Thank you! Your message has been sent.</p>'; else : $output = ' <form action="" method="post"><ul> <li> <label for="from_name">Name</label> <input type="text" name="from_name" id="from_name" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_email">Email</label> <input type="email" name="from_email" id="from_email" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_tel">Phone</label> <input type="tel" name="from_tel" id="from_tel" /> </li> <li> <textarea name="message" id="message"></textarea> </li> <li class="submit"> <input name="submit" type="submit" value="Say Hello!" /> </li> </ul></form>'; endif; return $output;

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  • Race condition for thread startup

    - by Ozzah
    A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

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  • Output something other than True or False

    - by David
    Newb to JS. Trying to determain how to to output something other than Question 1 is True and False. If I understand this correctly, the output is the expression of the flag True or False. Trying to change to say Correct and Incorrect. Also trying to express a percentage of correct instead of the for example: Your total score is 10/100 $(function(){ var jQuiz = { answers: { q1: 'd', q2: 'd', }, questionLenght: 2, checkAnswers: function() { var arr = this.answers; var ans = this.userAnswers; var resultArr = [] for (var p in ans) { var x = parseInt(p) + 1; var key = 'q' + x; var flag = false; if (ans[p] == 'q' + x + '-' + arr[key]) { flag = true; g } else { flag = false; } resultArr.push(flag); } return resultArr; }, init: function(){ $("[class=btnNext]").click(function(){ if ($('input[type=radio]:checked:visible').length == 0) { return incorrect ; } $(this).parents('.questionContainer').fadeOut(500, function(){ $(this).next().fadeIn(500); }); var el = $('#progress'); el.width(el.width() + 11 + 'px'); }); $('.btnPrev').click(function(){ $(this).parents('.questionContainer').fadeOut(500, function(){ $(this).prev().fadeIn(500) }); var el = $('#progress'); el.width(el.width() - 11 + 'px'); }) $("[class=btnShowResult]").click(function(){ var arr = $('input[type=radio]:checked'); var ans = jQuiz.userAnswers = []; for (var i = 0, ii = arr.length; i < ii; i++) { ans.push(arr[i].getAttribute('id')) } }) $('.btnShowResult').click(function(){ $('#progress').width(260); $('#progressKeeper').hide(); var results = jQuiz.checkAnswers(); var resultSet = ''; var trueCount = 0; for (var i = 0, ii = results.length; i < ii; i++){ if (results[i] == true) trueCount++; resultSet += '<div> Question ' + (i + 1) + ' is ' + results[i] + '</div>' } resultSet += '<div class="totalScore">Your total score is ' + trueCount * 4 + ' / 100</div>' $('#resultKeeper').html(resultSet).show(); }) } }; jQuiz.init(); })

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  • ServeletException, Property <variable name> not found

    - by k9yosh
    What i'm trying to do is add a new variable to this previously created Managed Bean Hello.java and use it in my xhtml file binding to a text field. But it seems that it is not being found when i run it on the server. So it throws a "ServeletException" and says that the "property 'lname'(my variable) is not found". How do i solve this and why is this happening? This is my managed bean, package stack.tute.malinda.model; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.RequestScoped; @ManagedBean @RequestScoped public class Hello { private String fname; private String message; private String lname; //trying to add this new variable and use it in my xhtml file in a text field. public String getLname() { return lname; } public void setLname(String lname) { this.lname = lname; } public String getName() { return fname; } public String createMessage() { message="Hello " + fname + ""+ lname +"!"; return null; } public void setName(String fname) { this.fname=fname; } public String getMessage() { return message; } } This is my xhtml code, <h:body> <fieldset style="padding: 1em; float:left; margin-right:0.5em; padding-top:0.2em; text-align:left; border:1px solid green; font-weight:bold;"> <legend>Personal Details</legend> <h:form> <h:outputLabel for="name" value="First Name :" required="true"/> <h:inputText id="name" value="#{hello.name}"/> <br/> //Trying to access that variable here. <h:outputLabel for="name1" value="Last Name :" required="true"/> <h:inputText id="name1" value="#{hello.lname}"/> <h:message for="name"/> <br/> <h:commandButton value="Say hello" action="#{hello.createMessage}"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> <br/> <h:outputText value="#{hello.message}"/> </h:form> </fieldset>

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  • jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

    - by AnGafraidh
    I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

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