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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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  • to write log files in two different files

    - by Sun
    my application run on customized client framework,the client framework used log4net to log their own log files. we are(our application) has to use the same log4net to log our log files in our own path(say our customized path). currently the our log files are created but log are not writing in that file.it is writting in the client framework log file. searched lot of sites the link http://stackoverflow.com/questions/308436/log4net-programmatcially-specify-multiple-loggers-with-multiple-file-appenders helped me to configure the log4net config programatically, still im log statemets are not written in my log file.the code used as below public class TraceLog { private string message = string.Empty; private static ILog ILogger = null; private static TraceLog instance = new TraceLog(); private TraceLog() { SetLevel("Log4net.MainForm", "ALL"); AddAppender("Log4net.MainForm", CreateFileAppender("FileAppender", "C:\\mylog.log")); } public static TraceLog Instance { get { return instance; } } public void Debug(string logMessage) { message = PrepareLog(logMessage); ILogger.Debug(message); } protected string PrepareLog(string logMessage) { string message = GetFileMethodLineNumberInfo(); message += logMessage; return message; } protected string GetFileMethodLineNumberInfo() { StackTrace stackTrace = new StackTrace(true); // The position 3 is relative to the index of the specified method StackFrame stackFrame = stackTrace.GetFrame(3); return (stackFrame.GetMethod().DeclaringType.Name + "/" + stackFrame.GetMethod().Name + "/" + stackFrame.GetFileLineNumber() + ":"); } private static void SetLevel(string loggerName, string levelName) { ILogger = LogManager.GetLogger(loggerName); log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger l = (log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger)ILogger.Logger; l.Level = l.Hierarchy.LevelMap[levelName]; } private static void AddAppender(string loggerName, IAppender appender) { ILogger = LogManager.GetLogger(loggerName); log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger l = (log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger)ILogger.Logger; l.AddAppender(appender); } private static IAppender CreateFileAppender(string name, string fileName) { FileAppender appender = new FileAppender(); appender.Name = name; appender.File = fileName; appender.AppendToFile = true; //PatternLayout layout = new PatternLayout(); //layout.ConversionPattern = "%d [%t] %-5p %c [%x] - %m%n"; //layout.ActivateOptions(); //appender.Layout = layout; appender.ActivateOptions(); return appender; } } } anyone pls help how to solve this

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  • C++ class member functions instantiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched Stack Overflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state information was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (VC++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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  • Send multidimensional array to php with jQuery

    - by robertdd
    hy, i have a little, big problem here :) after i upload some images i get a list with all the images. I have some jQuery function for rotate, duplicate, delete, shuffle images! when i select a image and hit delete i send a post to php with the alt="" value of the image,i identify the picture and edit. I want to make a save button, Instead of sending a post every time i rotate a image, better send a post after editing the list of images with an array that contains all data? my php array after upload looks like this: [files] => Array ( [lcxkijgr] => lcxkijgr.jpg [xcewxpfv] => xcewxpfv.jpg [rtiurwxf] => rtiurwxf.jpg [gsbxdsdc] => gsbxdsdc.jpg ) say that I uploaded 4 pictures, firs picture i rotate 90 degrees second i want to duplicate third i rotate 270 degrees and the fourth image i delete i can do all this only with jQuery, but on the server the images are the same, after a refresh the images are the same this is the list with the images: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue"> <li id="upimagesHPVEJM"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesHPVEJM').showlargeimage('HPVEJM')"> <img alt="lcxkijgr" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/lcxkijgr.jpg?1272087830477" id="HPVEJM" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesSTCSAV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesSTCSAV').showlargeimage('STCSAV')"> <img alt="xcewxpfv" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/xcewxpfv.jpg?1272087831360" id="STCSAV" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesBFPUEQ"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesBFPUEQ').showlargeimage('BFPUEQ')"> <img alt="rtiurwxf" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/rtiurwxf.jpg?1272087832162" id="BFPUEQ" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesRKXNSV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesRKXNSV').showlargeimage('RKXNSV')"> <img alt="gsbxdsdc" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/gsbxdsdc.jpg?1272087832957" id="RKXNSV" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> <ul> </div> is ok if i make one array like this: array{ imgFromLi = array(img1,img2,img3,img4,img5,img6) rotate = array{img1=90, img2=270, img3=90} delete = array{img4,img5,img6} duplicate = array{img2, img3} } how i can make/send/cache this array?? sorry for my very bad english

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  • KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

    - by Darksbane
    I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

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  • Stretching DIV to 100% height and width of window but not less than 800x600px

    - by El Eme
    I have a page that needs to stretch and resize with with window and I've managed to do that but I need that the "inner div" (#pgContent) stretch if the window is resized to higher dimensions but that it doesn't shrink more than, let's say for example 800 x 600 px. As I have it now it stretches well but it also shrinks more than I want! It's working as I want in width but not in height!? Here's a visual example: My CSS: * { margin: 0; padding: 0; outline: 0; } /*| PAGE LAYOUT |*/ html, body { height: 100%; width: 100%; /*text-align: center;*/ /*IE doesn't ~like this*/ cursor: default; } #pgWrapper { z-index: 1; min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; /*min-height: 600px;*/ /* THIS SHOULD WORK BUT IT DOESN'T */ height: 100%; min-width: 1000px; width: 100%; position: absolute; overflow: hidden; text-align: center; background: #000; } #pgContent { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 30px; right: 30px; bottom: 50px; overflow: hidden; background: #CCC; } #footWrapper { z-index: 2; height: 50px; min-width: 940px; position: absolute; left: 30px; right: 30px; bottom: 0px; background: #C00; } /*| END PAGE LAYOUT |*/ And the HTML: <body> <div id="pgWrapper"> <div id="pgContent"> This DIV should stretch with window but never lower than for example 800px x 600px!<br /> If window size is lower then scrollbars should appear. </div> </div> <div id="footWrapper"> <div id="footLft"></div> <div id="footRgt"></div> </div> </body> If someone could give me a help on this I would appreciate. Thanks in advance.

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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  • Is valgrind crazy or is this is a genuine std map iterator memory leak?

    - by Alberto Toglia
    Well, I'm very new to Valgrind and memory leak profilers in general. And I must say it is a bit scary when you start using them cause you can't stop wondering how many leaks you might have left unsolved before! To the point, as I'm not an experienced in c++ programmer, I would like to check if this is certainly a memory leak or is it that Valgrind is doing a false positive? typedef std::vector<int> Vector; typedef std::vector<Vector> VectorVector; typedef std::map<std::string, Vector*> MapVector; typedef std::pair<std::string, Vector*> PairVector; typedef std::map<std::string, Vector*>::iterator IteratorVector; VectorVector vv; MapVector m1; MapVector m2; vv.push_back(Vector()); m1.insert(PairVector("one", &vv.back())); vv.push_back(Vector()); m2.insert(PairVector("two", &vv.back())); IteratorVector i = m1.find("one"); i->second->push_back(10); m2.insert(PairVector("one", i->second)); m2.clear(); m1.clear(); vv.clear(); Why is that? Shouldn't the clear command call the destructor of every object and every vector? Now after doing some tests I found different solutions to the leak: 1) Deleting the line i-second-push_back(10); 2) adding a delete i-second; after it's been used. 3) Deleting the second vv.push_back(Vector()); and m2.insert(PairVector("two", &vv.back())); statements. Using solution 2) makes Valgring print: 10 allocs, 11 frees Is that OK? As I'm not using new why should I delete? Thanks, for any help!

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  • REST and links: middle ground?

    - by pbean
    I've been wondering about how far to go with links in REST. Consider books which have authors, but there is obviously a many-to-many relationship between books an authors (a book can be written by multiple authors, and authors can write multiple books). So let's say we have a rest call http://server/book/21, which will return a book XML, containing information about an author. Now since the book is a resource, and the author is a resource, the XML should not straight up include all the author information. It should contain a link to the author information. But which of the below two examples is more widely accepted? (Excuse my crappy formatted XML, I am not that experienced with hand writing XML) <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> </book> Then, an author link would return more information: <author> <name>Some Guy</name> <dateOfBirth>some time</dateOfBirth> </author> Or: <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors>http://server/book/21/authors</authors> </book> Where http://server/book/21/authors returns: <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> And then each of those returns the former <author> example again. The reason I'm asking is basically because at my job they went with the second approach, and it seems to me that clients have to take many more steps to reach where they want to go. Also, for basic information which "you're always going to need" (author's name), you do have to take one additional step. On the other hand, that way the book resource only returns information about the book (nothing else), and to get anything else, you have to access other resources.

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  • Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

    - by Jazimov
    I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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  • C# AES returns wrong Test Vectors

    - by ralu
    I need to implement some crypto protocol on C# and want to say that this is my first project in C#. After spending some time to get used on C# I found out that I am unable to get compliant AES vectors. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static void Main() { try { //test vectors from "ecb_vk.txt" byte[] key = { 0x80, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] data = { 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] encTest = { 0x0e, 0xdd, 0x33, 0xd3, 0xc6, 0x21, 0xe5, 0x46, 0x45, 0x5b, 0xd8, 0xba, 0x14, 0x18, 0xbe, 0xc8 }; AesManaged aesAlg = new AesManaged(); aesAlg.BlockSize = 128; aesAlg.Key = key; aesAlg.Mode = CipherMode.ECB; ICryptoTransform encryptor = aesAlg.CreateEncryptor(); MemoryStream msEncrypt = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream csEncrypt = new CryptoStream(msEncrypt, encryptor, CryptoStreamMode.Write); StreamWriter swEncrypt = new StreamWriter(csEncrypt); swEncrypt.Write(data); swEncrypt.Close(); csEncrypt.Close(); msEncrypt.Close(); aesAlg.Clear(); byte[] encr; encr = msEncrypt.ToArray(); string datastr = BitConverter.ToString(data); string encrstr = BitConverter.ToString(encr); string encTestStr = BitConverter.ToString(encTest); Console.WriteLine("data: {0}", datastr); Console.WriteLine("encr: {0}", encrstr); Console.WriteLine("should: {0}", encTestStr); Console.ReadKey(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } } } } Output is wrong: data: 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 encr: A0-3C-C2-22-A4-32-F7-C9-BA-36-AE-73-66-BD-BB-A3 should: 0E-DD-33-D3-C6-21-E5-46-45-5B-D8-BA-14-18-BE-C8 I am sure that there is correct AES implementation in C#, so I need some advice from C# wizard to help whit this. Thanks

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • AngularJS recursive directive with a dynamic HTML template (bounty)

    - by Nazar Sobchuk
    I have a realy hard task here. I am working on an AngularJS web app, which is capable of sending different HTTP methods to our project's Restful Web Service and receiving responses in JSON. Basicaly it looks like this: You can create some REST resource from this application. Let's say an exam. To create an exam - you pick a resource from a list of available resources. This triggers a function, that sends a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/resorceName and gets a description for this resource. Description looks like this: http://jsonblob.com/534fc022e4b0bb44248d6460 After receiving a response - I start building input fields like follows (allFields - array of field objects for this resource, enumValues - enum values for resource's field if it's property isEnum = true): <div ng-repeat="field in allFields"> <div ng-show={{!field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <input type="text" ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control" placeholder="{{parseClassName(field.type)}}"> </div> <div ng-show={{field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <select ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control"> <option></option> <option ng-repeat="enumValue in field.enumValues" label={{enumValue.name}}>{{enumValue.ordinal}}</option> </select> </div> </div> Now, the problem. I need to create a recursive directive, which would be capable of generating fields in such maner as described above for every resource's field that has "restResourceName" not null. To get all it's fields you just send a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/restResourceName and get similar JSON response as shown above, which is then used to build HTML elements for inputing values into model. Does anyone know how this can be achieved using angular recursive directive? Every useful answer is highly appreciated and evaluated. The correct answer will get +50 or I will start a bounty, because I'm realy stuck with this for 2 days. If you need any additional info - let me know. Thank you.

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  • Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

    - by whaka
    One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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  • What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

    - by DVK
    I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

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  • How to populate the span tags between specific tags.

    - by Rachel
    I want to populate span tags for all text nodes between the self closing tags s1 and s2 having the same id.If the transformation of the input to the output form requires the list of ids of the s1 , s2 tag pairs say 1, 2 etc i can assume that it is in place in any form if required.The input can have any structure and not exactly the same as seen in the sample input. It can have any number of s1, s2 tag pairs but each pair will have a unique id. Hope i am clear. How can this be achieved using XSL? Input: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <s1 id="1" />is my <s2 id="1" />heading</h1> <p> Sample content <s1 id="2" />Some text here. Some content here. </p> <p> Here you <s2 id="2" />go. </p> </body> </html> Desired output: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <span id="1">is my </span>heading</h1> <p> Sample content <span id="2">Some text here. Some content here.</span> </p> <p> <span id="2">Here you </span>go. </p> </body> </html>

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  • Messing with the stack in assembly and c++

    - by user246100
    I want to do the following: I have a function that is not mine (it really doesn't matter here but just to say that I don't have control over it) and that I want to patch so that it calls a function of mine, preserving the arguments list (jumping is not an option). What I'm trying to do is, to put the stack pointer as it was before that function is called and then call mine (like going back and do again the same thing but with a different function). This doesn't work straight because the stack becomes messed up. I believe that when I do the call it replaces the return address. So, I did a step to preserve the return address saving it in a globally variable and it works but this is not ok because I want it to resist to recursitivy and you know what I mean. Anyway, i'm a newbie in assembly so that's why I'm here. Please, don't tell me about already made software to do this because I want to make things my way. Of course, this code has to be compiler and optimization independent. My code (If it is bigger than what is acceptable please tell me how to post it): // A function that is not mine but to which I have access and want to patch so that it calls a function of mine with its original arguments void real(int a,int b,int c,int d) { } // A function that I want to be called, receiving the original arguments void receiver(int a,int b,int c,int d) { printf("Arguments %d %d %d %d\n",a,b,c,d); } long helper; // A patch to apply in the "real" function and on which I will call "receiver" with the same arguments that "real" received. __declspec( naked ) void patch() { _asm { // This first two instructions save the return address in a global variable // If I don't save and restore, the program won't work correctly. // I want to do this without having to use a global variable mov eax, [ebp+4] mov helper,eax push ebp mov ebp, esp // Make that the stack becomes as it were before the real function was called add esp, 8 // Calls our receiver call receiver mov esp, ebp pop ebp // Restores the return address previously saved mov eax, helper mov [ebp+4],eax ret } } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { FlushInstructionCache(GetCurrentProcess(),&real,5); DWORD oldProtection; VirtualProtect(&real,5,PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE,&oldProtection); // Patching the real function to go to my patch ((unsigned char*)real)[0] = 0xE9; *((long*)((long)(real) + sizeof(unsigned char))) = (char*)patch - (char*)real - 5; // calling real function (I'm just calling it with inline assembly because otherwise it seems to works as if it were un patched // that is strange but irrelevant for this _asm { push 666 push 1337 push 69 push 100 call real add esp, 16 } return 0; }

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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • Is there any memory leak in the normal routine of sqlite3_*()?

    - by reer
    A normal routine of sqlite3_prepare_v2() + sqlite3_step() + sqlite3_finalize() could contain leak. It sound ridiculous. But the test code seems to say it. Or I used the sqlite3_*() wrongly. Appreciate for any reply. __code________________________ include include // for usleep() include int multi_write (int j); sqlite3 *db = NULL; int main (void) { int ret = -1; ret = sqlite3_open("test.db", &db); ret = sqlite3_exec(db,"CREATE TABLE data_his (id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, d1 CHAR(16))", NULL,NULL,NULL); usleep (100000); int j=0; while (1) { multi_write (j++); usleep (2000000); printf (" ----------- %d\n", j); } ret = sqlite3_close (db); return 0; } int multi_write (int j) { int ret = -1; char *sql_f = "INSERT OR REPLACE INTO data_his VALUES (%d, %Q)"; char *sql = NULL; sqlite3_stmt *p_stmt = NULL; ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, "BEGIN TRANSACTION", -1, &p_stmt, NULL); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); int i=0; for (i=0; i<100; i++) { sql = sqlite3_mprintf ( sql_f, j*100000 + i, "00000000000068FD"); ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, sql, -1, &p_stmt, NULL ); sqlite3_free ( sql ); //printf ("sqlite3_prepare_v2(): %d, %s\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); //printf ("sqlite3_step(): %d, %s\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); //printf ("sqlite3_finalize(): %d, %s\n\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); } ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, "COMMIT TRANSACTION", -1, &p_stmt, NULL ); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); return 0; } __result________________________ And I watch the the process's run by top. At first, the memory statistics is: PID PPID USER STAT VSZ %MEM %CPU COMMAND 17731 15488 root S 1104 5% 7% ./sqlite3multiwrite When the printf() in while(1){} of main() prints the 150, the memory statistics is: PID PPID USER STAT VSZ %MEM %CPU COMMAND 17731 15488 root S 1552 5% 7% ./sqlite3multiwrite It sounds that after 150 for-cycles, the memory used by sqlite3multiwrite increase from 1104KB to 1552KB. What does it mean? memory leak or other thing?

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  • Is this a problem typically solved with IOC?

    - by Dirk
    My current application allows users to define custom web forms through a set of admin screens. it's essentially an EAV type application. As such, I can't hard code HTML or ASP.NET markup to render a given page. Instead, the UI requests an instance of a Form object from the service layer, which in turn constructs one using a several RDMBS tables. Form contains the kind of classes you would expect to see in such a context: Form= IEnumerable<FormSections>=IEnumerable<FormFields> Here's what the service layer looks like: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenForm(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } } Everything works splendidly (for a while). The UI is none the wiser about what sections/fields exist in a given form: It happily renders the Form object it receives into a functional ASP.NET page. A few weeks later, I get a new requirement from the business: When viewing a non-editable (i.e. read-only) versions of a form, certain field values should be merged together and other contrived/calculated fields should are added. No problem I say. Simply amend my service class so that its methods are more explicit: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId){ //construct and a concrete implementation of Form //apply additional transformations to the form } } Again everything works great and balance has been restored to the force. The UI continues to be agnostic as to what is in the Form, and our separation of concerns is achieved. Only a few short weeks later, however, the business puts out a new requirement: in certain scenarios, we should apply only some of the form transformations I referenced above. At this point, it feels like the "explicit method" approach has reached a dead end, unless I want to end up with an explosion of methods (OpenFormViewingScenario1, OpenFormViewingScenario2, etc). Instead, I introduce another level of indirection: public interface IFormViewCreator{ void CreateView(Form form); } public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId, IFormViewCreator formViewCreator){ //construct a concrete implementation of Form //apply transformations to the dynamic field list return formViewCreator.CreateView(form); } } On the surface, this seems like acceptable approach and yet there is a certain smell. Namely, the UI, which had been living in ignorant bliss about the implementation details of OpenFormForViewing, must possess knowledge of and create an instance of IFormViewCreator. My questions are twofold: Is there a better way to achieve the composability I'm after? (perhaps by using an IoC container or a home rolled factory to create the concrete IFormViewCreator)? Did I fundamentally screw up the abstraction here?

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Memory Management iOS dev app doesn't work after a few detail items

    - by user1434846
    I am working on a project with a tableView controller and the detail views contains CMMotionManager.When i open 5 or 6 detailViews all goes well,but after a while the app goes slow and finally crashes.On instruments the only leak is on main.m , also i must say that I'm using ARC and i can't dealloc or realese the instances. Here is the code: First the table view: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. self.title = @"Movement";//Master View Controller title bar UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"jg_navibar.png"]; [self.navigationController.navigationBar setBackgroundImage:image forBarMetrics:UIBarMetricsDefault]; //Init the array with data bodypartsMutableArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:26]; BodypartData *part1 = [[BodypartData alloc] init]; part1.bodypartname = @"Shoulder"; part1.movementname = @"Flexion"; part1.fullimageStartingPosition=[UIImage imageNamed:@"2_shoulder_flexion_end_position.jpg"]; part1.fullimageEndedPosition=[UIImage imageNamed:@"2_shoulder_flexion_end_position.jpg"]; part1.thumbimage=[UIImage imageNamed:@"1_shoulder_flexion_landmarks_thumb.jpg"]; [bodypartsMutableArray addObject:part1]; ......... } then the cell: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"MyBasicCell"]; BodypartData *part = [self.bodypartsMutableArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text =[NSString stringWithFormat:part.movementname]; cell.detailTextLabel.text =[NSString stringWithFormat:part.bodypartname]; cell.imageView.image =part.thumbimage; return cell; } and the the detailViewdid load: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. // Init motionManager object and set the Update Interval _motionManager = [[CMMotionManager alloc]init]; _motionManager.deviceMotionUpdateInterval=1/60; //60 Hz [_motionManager startGyroUpdates]; if (_motionManager.gyroAvailable) { _motionManager.gyroUpdateInterval = 1.0/60.0; [_motionManager startDeviceMotionUpdatesToQueue:[NSOperationQueue currentQueue] withHandler: ^(CMDeviceMotion *motion, NSError *error) { CMAttitude *attitude = motion.attitude; //Calculation with rotationMatrix m11 = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%.02f", attitude.rotationMatrix.m11]; m12 = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%.02f", attitude.rotationMatrix.m12]; m13 = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%.02f", attitude.rotationMatrix.m13]; ......... }

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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

    - by GameDev123
    I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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