Search Results

Search found 21283 results on 852 pages for 'control flow'.

Page 755/852 | < Previous Page | 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762  | Next Page >

• "The data types text and nvarchar are incompatible in the equal to operator" in SQL Query

  - by kenom

  Why i get this error: The data types text and nvarchar are incompatible in the equal to operator. The field of "username" in database is text type... This is my soruce: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="my_answers.ascx.cs" Inherits="kontrole_login_my_answers" %> <div style=" margin-top:-1280px; float:left;"> <p></p> <div id="question"> Add question </div> </div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" > </asp:GridView> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:estudent_piooConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [question] WHERE ([username] = @fafa)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="fafa" QueryStringField="user" Type="String"/> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource>

  Read the article

• Flash Player scripting + IE8

  - by Joel Alejandro

  I've developed a small control bar for a Flash viewer generated by a third-party software. It has a First, Prev, Next & Last button, and a Zoom command. While Zoom works fine in all browsers, the navigation buttons seem to fail at Internet Explorer 8. I use at least two functions. This one locates the Flash object I want to manipulate: function getFlashMovieObject(movieName) { if (window.document[movieName]) { return window.document[movieName]; } if (navigator.appName.indexOf("Microsoft Internet")==-1) { if (document.embeds && document.embeds[movieName]) return document.embeds[movieName]; } else // if (navigator.appName.indexOf("Microsoft Internet")!=-1) { return document.getElementById(movieName); } } ...and any of these ones handles the frame navigation: var currentFrame = 0; function gotoFirst(id) { getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints").Rewind(); currentFrame = 0; $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoPrev(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); if (currentFrame 0) { currentFrame--; } movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoNext(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); if (currentFrame < movie.TotalFrames() - 1) { currentFrame++; } movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoLast(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); currentFrame = movie.TotalFrames() - 1; movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } Btw, that $ is MooTools, not jQuery. Anyway, IE dies on the movie.TotalFrames() call. What can I do to solve this? Keep in mind I need this to be done via JavaScript, as I cannot edit the SWF.

  Read the article

• Popup window size in android

  - by Bostjan

  I'm creating a popup window in a listactivity in the event onListItemClick. LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); View pop = inflater.inflate(R.layout.popupcontact, null, false); ImageView atnot = (ImageView)pop.findViewById(R.id.aNot); height = pop.getMeasuredHeight(); width = pop.getMeasuredWidth(); Log.e("pw","height: "+String.valueOf(height)+", width: "+String.valueOf(width)); atnot.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { pw.dismiss(); } }); pw = new PopupWindow(pop, width, height, true); // The code below assumes that the root container has an id called 'main' //pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.CENTER, 0, 0); pw.showAsDropDown(v, 10, 5); Now, the height and width variables were supposed to be height and width of the layout used for the popup window (popupcontact). But they return 0. I guess that is because the layout isn't rendered yet. Does anyone have a clue, how can I control the size of the popup window without needing to use absolute pixel numbers?

  Read the article

• What's the most efficient way to setup a multi-lingual website

  - by Jasper De Bruijn

  Hi, I'm developing a website that will be available in different languages. It is a LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP) setup, and it makes use of Smarty, mostly for the template engine. The way we currently translate is by a self-written smarty plugin, which will recognize certain tags in the HTML files, and will find the corresponding tag in an earlier defined language file. The HTML could look as follows: <p>Hi, welcome to $#gamedesc;!</p> And the language file could look like this: gamedesc:Poing 2009$; welcome:this is another tag$; Which would then output <p>Hi, welcome to Poing 2009!</p> This system is very basic, but it is pretty hard to control, if I f.e. would like to keep track of what has been translated so far, or give certain users the rights to translate only certain tags. I've been looking at some alternative ways to approach this, by either replacing the text-file with XML files which could store some extra meta-data, or by perhaps storing all the texts in the database, and retrieving it there. My question is, what would be the best way to make this system both maintainable and perform well with high user-traffic? Are there perhaps any (lightweight) plugins I could take a look at?

  Read the article

• Accepting more simultaneous keyboard inputs

  - by unknownthreat

  Sometimes, a normal computer keyboard will only accept user's inputs up to a certain key simultaneously. I got a logitech keyboard that can accept up to 3-4 key presses at the same time. The computer does not accept any more input if you press more than 4 keys for this keyboard. And it also depends on certain areas of your keyboard as well. Some locations allow more key to be pressed (like the arrow keys), while some locations permit you to press only 1-2 keys. This also differs from keyboard to keyboard as well. Some older keyboards only accept up 1-2 keys. This isn't problematic with usual office work, but when it comes to gaming. For instance, imagine a platform game, where you have to jump, attack, and control direction at the same time. This implies several key presses and some keyboards cannot accept such simultaneous input. However, I've tried this on several games and the amount of possible keyboard inputs seem to be also different. Therefore, we have two issues: Keyboards have different amount of simultaneous inputs. Some games can accept more keyboard inputs than other games. At first, I thought this is hardware only problem, but why do some programs behave differently? Why some programs can accept more keyboard inputs than other programs? So how can we write our programs to accept more keyboard inputs?

  Read the article

• Can Delphi dragging be "promoted" to docking?

  - by mghie

  I have a TPageControl whose pages are all various forms that are attached using ManualDock(). The user should be able to rearrange the tabs by dragging them, which works already. It should however also be possible to undock the docked forms. For now I have the following code: procedure TMainForm.PageControlMouseDown(Sender: TObject; Button: TMouseButton; Shift: TShiftState; X, Y: Integer); begin if (Button = mbLeft) and (Shift * [ssShift, ssCtrl] = []) and PageControl.DockSite then begin PageControl.BeginDrag(False, 32); end; end; If either the Shift or the Ctrl key are held down, then a docking operation will be started, otherwise the tabs can be rearranged by dragging them. Using the keys as modifiers is awkward though. Is there any way to cancel the active drag operation when the mouse cursor is outside of the tab area of the page control, and start docking the child form? This is with Delphi 2009.

  Read the article

• Is it important to dispose SolidBrush and Pen?

  - by Joe

  I recently came across this VerticalLabel control on CodeProject. I notice that the OnPaint method creates but doesn't dispose Pen and SolidBrush objects. Does this matter, and if so how can I demonstrate whatever problems it can cause? EDIT This isn't a question about the IDisposable pattern in general. I understand that callers should normally call Dispose on any class that implements IDisposable. What I want to know is what problems (if any) can be expected when GDI+ object are not disposed as in the above example. It's clear that, in the linked example, OnPaint may be called many times before the garbage collector kicks in, so there's the potential to run out of handles. However I suspect that GDI+ internally reuses handles in some circumstances (for example if you use a pen of a specific color from the Pens class, it is cached and reused). What I'm trying to understand is whether code like that in the linked example will be able to get away with neglecting to call Dispose. And if not, to see a sample that demonstrated what problems it can cause. I should add that I have very often (including the OnPaint documentation on MSDN) seen WinForms code samples that fail to dispose GDI+ objects.

  Read the article

• FFMEPG permission problem, is there any alternative solution instead of FFMPEG?

  - by caglaror

  We have some kind of permenant permission problem on FFMPEG.exe to write JPEG file on to HDD. We are using IIS and try all permission methods to ffmepg.exe, its including folder,folders, cmd.exe and any executable file, related folder, file. Also we tried many many command examples. But never went beyond the "permission denied" error messages. We give up. Do you know another alternative solution to pick images from flv, f4v movie files? Or %100 quaranteed method to achive this permission control on IIS? Thank you. ---last code we try variables etc. aren't shown here. jpegYapKomutu = videoEditorKlasoru &"\ffmpeg.exe -i " & videoEditorKlasoru & "\deneme.flv" &" -s 480×360 -ss 00:00:"&saniyesi&" -vframes 1 -f mjpeg "& "C:\Webhome\normworks\caglarorhan\deneme.jpg" WScript.Run "%COMSPEC% /C dir" & jpegYapKomutu

  Read the article

• How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

  - by MatthewMartin

  I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

  Read the article

• Winsock WSAAsyncSelect sending without an infinite buffer

  - by Xexr

  Hi, This is more of a design question than a specific code question, I'm sure I am missing the obvious, I just need another set of eyes. I am writing a multi-client server based on WSAAsyncSelect, each connection is made into an object of a connection class I have written which contains associated settings and buffers etc. My question concerns FD_WRITE, I understand how it operates: One FD_WRITE is sent immediately after a connection is established. Thereafter, you should send until WSAEWOULDBLOCK is received at which point you store what is left to send in a buffer, and wait to be told that it is ok to send again. This is where I have a problem, how large do I make this holding buffer within each connections object? The amount of time until a new FD_WRITE is received is unknown, I could be attempting to send a lot of stuff during this period, all the time adding to my outgoing buffer. If I make the buffer dynamic, memory usage could spiral out of control if for whatever reason, I am unable to send() and reduce the buffer. So my question is how do you generally handle this situation? Note I am not talking about the network buffer itself which winsock uses, but one of my own creation used to "queue" up sends. Hope I explained that well enough, thanks all!

  Read the article

• Get a selected radio button value after POST to set other fields enabled/disabled

  - by Redeemed1

  I have an MVC application with a simple control to all selection of All Dates or selecting a Date Range. The radio buttons have an onclick handler to enable/disable the dat pickers. All work well so far. When I try to set the correct context state for the datepickers after doing a POST I cannot get the jQuery selector to return the radio buttons checked value. The code is as follows: <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "AllDates", Model.AllDates == "AllDates", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>ALL Dates&nbsp; <%= Html.RadioButton("DateSelection.AllDates", "Selection", Model.AllDates == "Selection", new { onclick = "setReadOnly(this);" })%>Selection <%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.startdate", Model.StartDate, "", "") %> &nbsp;To&nbsp;<%= Html.DatePicker("DateSelection.enddate", Model.EndDate, "", "") %><br /> The javascript is as follows: <script type="text/jscript" > function setReadOnly(obj) { if (obj.value == "Selection") { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#ffffff') .removeAttr('readonly') .datepicker('enable'); } else { $('#DateSelection_startdate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); $('#DateSelection_enddate').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val('') .datepicker('disable'); } } <script type="text/jscript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#DateSelection_startdate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); $('#DateSelection_enddate').datepicker('disable').css('backgroundColor', '#eeeeee') .attr('readonly', 'readonly') .val(''); var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); setReadOnly(selected); }); The javascript line that is causing the problem is var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates:checked'); which will NOT return the checked radio button. Using var selected = $('#DateSelection_AllDates'); will return the first radio button value as expected i.e. applying the ':checked' filter ALWAYS returns undefined. Can anyone see anything wrong here?

  Read the article

• Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

  - by Laurence

  (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

  Read the article

• Custom Detail in Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail DataGridViews

  - by Andres

  Hi, looking for a way to create Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail WinForms DataGridViews where the Detail part of the Linq query is a custom one. Can do fine this: DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(".\\SQLExpress"); var myQuery = from o in db.Orders select o; dataGridView1.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = myQuery }; dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "OrderDetails" }; but I'd like to have the Detail part under my precise control, like var myQuery = from o in db.Orders join od in db.OrderDetails on o.ID equals od.OrderID into MyOwnSubQuery select o; and use it for the second grid: dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "MyOwnSubQuery" // not working... }; the real reason I want it is a bit more complex (I'd like to have the Detail part to be some not-pre-defined join actually), but I'm hoping the above conveyed the idea. Can I only have the Detail part as a plain sub-table coming out of the pre-defined relation or can I do more complex stuff with the Detail part? Does anyone else feel this is kind of limited (if the first example is the best we can do)? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

  - by rockdale

  I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

  Read the article

• Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

  - by Alexey Ogarkov

  Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

  Read the article

• HTML file: add annotations through IHTMLDocument

  - by peterchen

  I need to add "annotations" to existing HTML documents - best in the form of string property values I can read & write by name. Apparently (to me), meta elements in the header seem to be the common way - i.e. adding/modifying elements like <head> <meta name="unique-id_property-name" content="property-value"/> ... </head> Question 1: Ist that "acceptable" / ok, or is there a better way to add meta data? I have a little previous experience with getting/mut(il)ating HTML contents through the document in an web browser control. For this task, I've already loaded the HTML document into a HTMLDocument object, but I'm not sure how to go on: // what I have IHTMLDocument2Ptr doc; doc.CreateInstance(__uuidof(HTMLDocument)); IPersistFile pf = doc; pf->Load(fileName, STGM_READ); // everything ok until here Questions 2: Should I be using anything else than HTMLDocument? Questions 3..N: How do I get the head element? How do I get the value of a meta element with a given name? How do I set the value of a meta element (adding the item if and only if it doesn't exist yet)? doc->all returns a collection of all tags, which I can enumerate even though count returns 0. I could scan that for head, then scan that for all meta where the name starts with a certain string, etc. - but this feels very clumsy.

  Read the article

• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

  Read the article

• AJAX PopupControl Extender with Bing Maps

  - by Morano88

  Hey! I want to use AJAX PopupControl Extender with a text box so when a user clicks on the text box a popup that contains the Bing Map appears. I'm using the following code but I don't know why it is not working ? <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Font-Bold="true" Font-Size="14px" Text="Click inside the textbox to open AJAX Popup Control:"></asp:Label> <div class="clear"><br /></div> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" CssClass="textbox" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <html> <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ecn.dev.virtualearth.net/mapcontrol/mapcontrol.ashx?v=6.2"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map = null; function GetMap() { map = new VEMap('myMap'); map.LoadMap(new VELatLong(47.6, -122.33), 10 ,'h' ,false); } </script> </head> <body onload="GetMap();"> <div id='myMap' style="position:relative; width:400px; height:400px;"></div> </body> </html> <ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender ID="PopupControlExtender1" runat="server" CommitProperty="foreColor" Position="Right" TargetControlID="TextBox1" PopupControlID="myMap" OffsetX="2" OffsetY="2"> </ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender> what's wrong ?

  Read the article

• Why MSMQ won't send a space character?

  - by cyclotis04

  I'm exploring MSMQ services, and I wrote a simple console client-server application that sends each of the client's keystrokes to the server. Whenever hit a control character (DEL, ESC, INS, etc) the server understandably throws an error. However, whenever I type a space character, the server receives the packet but doesn't throw an error and doesn't display the space. Server: namespace QIM { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static readonly object _mqLock = new object(); static XmlSerializer xs; static void Main(string[] args) { lock (_mqLock) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); } xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(string)); _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); while (Console.ReadKey().Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { } } static void OnReceive(IAsyncResult result) { Message msg; lock (_mqLock) { try { msg = _mq.EndReceive(result); Console.Write("."); Console.Write(xs.Deserialize(msg.BodyStream)); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex); } } _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); } } } Client: namespace QIM_Client { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static void Main(string[] args) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); ConsoleKeyInfo key = new ConsoleKeyInfo(); while (key.Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { key = Console.ReadKey(); _mq.Send(key.KeyChar.ToString()); } } } } Client Input: Testing, Testing... Server Output: .T.e.s.t.i.n.g.,..T.e.s.t.i.n.g...... You'll notice that the space character sends a message, but the character isn't displayed.

  Read the article

• Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

  - by Ryan

  Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

  Read the article

• what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

  - by Michael Mao

  This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

  Read the article

• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

  Read the article

• Should client-server code be written in one "project" or two?

  - by Ricket

  I've been beginning a client-server application. At first I naturally created two projects in Eclipse, two source control repositories, etc. But I'm quickly seeing that there is a bit of shared code between the two that would probably benefit to sharing instead of copying. In addition, I've been learning and trying test-driven development, and it seems to me that it would be easier to test based on real client components rather than having to set up a huge amount of code just to mock something, when the code is probably mostly in the client. My biggest concern in merging the client and server is of security; how do I ensure that the server pieces of the code do not reach an user's computer? So especially if you are writing client-server applications yourself (and especially in Java, though this can turn into a language-agnostic question if you'd like to share your experience with this in other languages), what sort of separation do you keep between your client and server code? Are they just in different packages/namespaces or completely different binaries using shared libraries, or something else entirely? How do you test the code together and yet ship separately?

  Read the article

• Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Robert Harvey

  I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

  Read the article

• Apache + Passenger not passing on custom status codes

  - by harm

  I'm currently building an API. This API communicates with the client via status codes. I created several custom status codes (as per http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec6.html#sec6) in order to inform the client on certain things. For example I introduced the 481 status code to signify a specific client error. The Rails app I wrote works like a charm. But when Apache and Passenger are serving it things run aground. When I provoke a 481 error the response header looks like this: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 06:37:05 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.9 (Debian) Phusion_Passenger/2.2.5 mod_ssl/2.2.9 OpenSSL/0.9.8g X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.5 Cache-Control: no-cache X-Runtime: 1938 Set-Cookie: _session_id=32bc259dc763193ad57ae7dc19d5f57e; path=/; HttpOnly Content-Length: 62 Status: 481 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 As you can see the original Status header is still there almost a the end. But the 'true' status header (the very first line) is quiet different. It seems that Apache doesn't like Status headers it has no knowledge of and thus assumes an error. Is there anyway to fix this? Maybe via the mod_headers ( http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html) module? I don't know enough of Apache to figure this out on my own. Thanks,

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762  | Next Page >