Search Results

Search found 21283 results on 852 pages for 'control flow'.

Page 757/852 | < Previous Page | 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764  | Next Page >

  • Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

    - by el griz
    I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

    Read the article

  • NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

    - by Sean
    I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

    Read the article

  • Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

    - by ProfK
    I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to stream pdf document from servlet?

    - by Kumar
    Hi,I am creating pdf document using jasper report and i need to stream that pdf document from servlet.Can anyone help me where i did mistake.This is the code snippet which i am using in my application. ServletOutputStream servletOutputStream = response.getOutputStream(); String fileName="test.pdf"; response.setContentType("application/pdf"); response.setHeader("Content-Disposition","attachment; filename=\"" + fileName + "\""); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); try { Map parameters = new HashMap(); parameters.put("SUBREPORT_DIR", JasperReportFilepath); parameters.put("TestId", testID); JasperPrint jprint=JasperFillManager.fillReport(filePath, parameters, conn); byte[] output=JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(jprint); System.out.println("Size====>"+output.length); servletOutputStream.write(output); servletOutputStream.flush(); servletOutputStream.close(); System.out.println("===============>Streaming perfectly"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("===============>+JasperException"+e.getMessage()); } and i could not get any error message also.Everything is working fine but document is not streaming. Please help me to sort out the problem.

    Read the article

  • What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

    - by Savanni D'Gerinel
    In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

    Read the article

  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

    Read the article

  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

    Read the article

  • Python opening a file and putting list of names on separate lines

    - by Jeremy Borton
    I am trying to write a python program using Python 3 I have to open a text file and read a list of names, print the list, sort the list in alphabetical order and then finally re-print the list. There's a little more to it than that BUT the problem I am having is that I'm supposed to print the list of names with each name on a separate line Instead of printing each name on a separate line, it prints the list all on one line. How can I fix this? def main(): #create control loop keep_going = 'y' #Open name file name_file = open('names.txt', 'r') names = name_file.readlines() name_file.close() #Open outfile outfile = open('sorted_names.txt', 'w') index = 0 while index < len(names): names[index] = names[index].rstrip('\n') index += 1 #sort names print('original order:', names) names.sort() print('sorted order:', names) #write names to outfile for item in names: outfile.write(item + '\n') #close outfile outfile.close() #search names while keep_going == 'y' or keep_going == 'Y': search = input('Enter a name to search: ') if search in names: print(search, 'was found in the list.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') else: print(search, 'was not found.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') main()

    Read the article

  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

    Read the article

  • How do I relate two models/tables in Django based on non primary non unique keys?

    - by wizard
    I've got two tables that I need to relate on a single field po_num. The data is imported from another source so while I have a little bit of control over what the tables look like but I can't change them too much. What I want to do is relate these two models so I can look up one from the other based on the po_num fields. What I really need to do is join the two tables so I can do a where on a count of the related table. I would like to do filter for all Order objects that have 0 related EDI856 objects. I tried adding a foreign key to the Order model and specified the db_column and to_fields as po_num but django didn't like that the fact that Edi856.po_num wasn't unique. Here are the important fields of my current models that let me display but not filter for the data that I want. class Edi856(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True ) class Order(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True) def in_edi(self): '''Has the edi been processed?''' return Edi856.objects.filter(po_num = self.po_num).count() Thanks for taking the time to read about my problem. I'm not sure what to do from here.

    Read the article

  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

    Read the article

  • How to detect changing directory size in Perl

    - by materiamage
    Hello, I am trying to find a way of monitoring directories in Perl, in particular the size of a directory, and upon detecting a change in directory size, perform a particular action. The issue I have is with large files that require a noticeable amount of time to copy into this directory, i.e. 100MB. What happens (in Windows, not Unix) is the system reserves enough disk space for the entire file, even though the file is still copying in progress. This causes problems for me, because my script will try to perform an action on this file that has not finished copying over. I can easily detect directory size changes in Unix via 'du', but 'du' in Windows does not behave the same way. Are there any accurate methods of detecting directory size changes in Perl? Edit: Some points to clarify: - My Perl script is only monitoring a particular directory, and upon detecting a new file or a new directory, perform an action on this new file or directory. It is not copying any files; users on the network will be copying files into the directory I am monitoring. - The problem occurs when a new file or directory appears (copied, not moved) that is significantly large ( 100MB, but usually a couple GB) and my program fires before this copy completes - In Unix I can easily 'du' to see that the file/directory in question is growing in size, and take the appropriate action - In Windows the size is static, so I cannot detect this change - opendir/readdir/closedir is not feasible, as some of the directories that appear may contain thousands of files, and I want to avoid the overhead of Ideally I would like my program to be triggered on change, but I am not sure how to do this. As of right now it busy waits until it detects a change. The change in file/directory size is not in my control.

    Read the article

  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

    Read the article

  • problem in showing and hiding dialog boxes in MFC

    - by Rakesh
    Hello all, I am trying to create a wizard like structure using dialog boxes...So I replaced the code in CDialog1App as below CDialog1Dlg* dlg = new CDialog1Dlg; m_pMainWnd = dlg; dlg->Create(IDD_DIALOG1); dlg->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); the above worked fine...its displying the dialog box.but I have added another dialog box... So in the first dialog box if the user clicks Next it has to hide the first dialog box and display the second dialog.. //CDialog1 class void CDialog1Dlg::OnBnClickedNext() { // TODO: Add your control notification handler code here CDialog2* dialog2 = new CDialog2(); dialog2->Create(IDD_DIALOG2); dialog2->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); this->ShowWindow(SW_HIDE); } in the above code am creating an object for the Dialog2 class and trying to show that.... Now the problem is,when I click next its hiding both the windows..What can I do..I tried several types but its still its not workin..Please dont suggest me to do with PropertySheet..It will work with that, i know ...but I want this using Dialog Box for some reason

    Read the article

  • How to handle not-enough-isolatedstorage issue deep in data loader?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which loads data from many external data sources into IsolatedStorage, and while loading any of these sources if it does not have enough IsolatedStorage, it ends up in a catch statement. At that point in that catch statement I would like to ask the user to click a button to approve silverlight to increase the IsolatedStorage capacity. The problem is, although I have a "SwitchPage()" method with which I display a page, if I access it at this point it is too deep in the loading process and the application always goes into an endless loop, hangs and crashes. I need a way to branch out of the application completely somehow to an independent UserControl which has a button and code behind which does the increase logic. What is a solution for an application to be able to branch out of a loading process catch statement like this, display a user control which has a button to ask the user to increase the IsolatedStorage? public static void SaveBitmapImageToIsolatedStorageFile(OpenReadCompletedEventArgs e, string fileName) { try { using (IsolatedStorageFile isf = IsolatedStorageFile.GetUserStoreForApplication()) { using (IsolatedStorageFileStream isfs = new IsolatedStorageFileStream(fileName, FileMode.Create, isf)) { Int64 imgLen = (Int64)e.Result.Length; byte[] b = new byte[imgLen]; e.Result.Read(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Write(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Flush(); isfs.Close(); isf.Dispose(); } } } catch (IsolatedStorageException) { //handle: present user with button to increase isolated storage } catch (TargetInvocationException) { //handle: not saved } }

    Read the article

  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

    Read the article

  • How to set margin for inner controls of WrapPanel

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi Guys! I'm new in WPF and have a question. Here is an example that I'm using: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <Button Content="test1" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test2" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test3" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test4" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test5" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> As you can see, my wrap panel has several buttons. Each button has the same margin and padding. The question is, is there a way of setting margin and padding for wrap panel, so each element inside the wrap panel may use it values? This make the code shorter and let me specify Margin and Padding only one time instead of setting it for each control in the panel. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Intermittent bug - IE6 showing file as text in browser, rather than as file download

    - by Richard Ev
    In an ASP.NET WebForms 2.0 site we are encountering an intermittent bug in IE6 whereby a file download attempt results in the contents of the being shown directly in the browser as text, rather than the file save dialog being displayed. Our application allows the user to download both PDF and CSV files. The code we're using is: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.End(); This is called from the code-behind click event handler of a button server control. Where are we going wrong with this approach? Edit Following James' answer to this posting, the code I'm using now looks like this: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.ClearHeaders(); // Setting cache to NoCache was recommended, but doing so results in a security // warning in IE6 //response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.Flush(); response.End(); However, I don't believe that any of the changes made will fix the issue.

    Read the article

  • PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

    Read the article

  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

    Read the article

  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

    Read the article

  • App hosting Report Viewer crashes on exit after export

    - by Paul Sasik
    We have a .NET Winforms application that hosts the Crystal Reports Viewer control (Version XI). It works well for the most part but when an export of data from the viewer is performed the application will crash on exit and in unmanaged code. The error message is not very useful and just says that an incorrect memory location was accessed. No other info such a specific DLL etc. is provided. This only happens after the viewer is used to export a report to CSV, XML etc. My guess is that at some point in the export process Crystal creates a resource that attempts an action on shut down to a parent window (perhaps) that no longer exists. I've seen a number of memory leak and shut down issues with Crystal but this one's new. Has anyone seen it and come up with a workaround or has ideas for workarounds? So far we've tried explicitly disposing of all crystal-related objects, setting to null and even setting a Thread.Sleep cycle on shut down to "give Crystal time to clean up." Update: The crash happens only on shut down (so not immediate) All export formats work All export files are created properly CR is installed on the same machine as the hosting .NET app not sure about exporting from the IDE... is that even possible?

    Read the article

  • I would like to interactively detect when an ActiveX component has been installed, and asynchronousl

    - by Brian Stinar
    Hello, I am working on a website, and I would like to refresh a portion of the page after an ActiveX component has been installed. I have a general idea of how to do this with polling, which I am working on getting going : function detectComponentThenSleep(){ try{ // Call what I want ActiveX for, if the method is available, or // ActiveXComponent.object == null --- test for existance document.getElementById("ActiveXComponent").someMethod(); } catch{ // Try again, if the method is not available setTimeout(detectComponentThenSleep, 100); } } However, what I would REALLY like to do is something like this: ActiveXObject.addListener("onInstall", myfunction); I don't actually have the source for the ActiveX component, but I have complete control of the page I am hosting it on. I would like to use JavaScript, if possible, to accomplish this. So, my question is 1.) will this actually work with the polling method? and 2.) Is there an interrupt/listener like way of doing this? I am sure I am missing something with connecting the dots here, I can already detect if the component is present, but I am having trouble doing this asynchronously. Thank you very much for your time and help, -Brian J. Stinar-

    Read the article

  • Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

    - by Eric R. Rath
    My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764  | Next Page >