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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

    - by Eric R. Rath
    My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

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  • How to stream pdf document from servlet?

    - by Kumar
    Hi,I am creating pdf document using jasper report and i need to stream that pdf document from servlet.Can anyone help me where i did mistake.This is the code snippet which i am using in my application. ServletOutputStream servletOutputStream = response.getOutputStream(); String fileName="test.pdf"; response.setContentType("application/pdf"); response.setHeader("Content-Disposition","attachment; filename=\"" + fileName + "\""); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); try { Map parameters = new HashMap(); parameters.put("SUBREPORT_DIR", JasperReportFilepath); parameters.put("TestId", testID); JasperPrint jprint=JasperFillManager.fillReport(filePath, parameters, conn); byte[] output=JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(jprint); System.out.println("Size====>"+output.length); servletOutputStream.write(output); servletOutputStream.flush(); servletOutputStream.close(); System.out.println("===============>Streaming perfectly"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("===============>+JasperException"+e.getMessage()); } and i could not get any error message also.Everything is working fine but document is not streaming. Please help me to sort out the problem.

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • Linq to SQL code generator features

    - by Anders Abel
    I'm very fond of Linq to SQL and the programming model it encourages. I think that in many cases when you are in control of both the database schema and the code it is not worth the effort to have different relational and object models for the data. Working with Linq to SQL makes it simple to have type safe data access from .NET, using the partial extension methods to implement business rules. Unfortunately I do not like the dbml designer due to the lack of a schema refresh function. So far I have used SqlMetal, but that lacks the customization options of the dbml designer. Because of that I've started working on a tool which regenerates the whole code file like SqlMetal, but has the ability to do the customizations that are available in the dbml designer (and maybe more in the future). The customizations will be described in an xml file which only contains those parts that shouldn't have default values. This should keep the xml file size down as well as the maintenance burden of it. To help me focus on the right features, I would like to know: What would be your favourite feature in a linq to sql code generator?

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

    - by Sean
    I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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  • What is preferred strategies for cross browser and multiple styled table in CSS?

    - by jitendra
    What is preferred strategies for cross browser and multiple styled table in CSS? in default css what should i predefined for <table>, td, th , thead, tbody, tfoot I have to work in a project there are so many tables with different color schemes and different type of alignment like in some table , i will need to horizontally align data of cell to right, sometime left, sometime right. same thing for vertical alignment, top, bottom and middle. some table will have thin border on row , some will have thick (same with column border). Some time i want to give different background color to particular row or column or in multiple row or column. So my question is: What code should i keep in css default for all tables and how to handle table with different style using ID and classes in multiple pages. I want to do every presentational thing with css. How to make ID classes for everything using semantic naming ? Which tags related to table can be useful? How to control whole tables styling from one css class?

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  • Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

    - by suszterpatt
    I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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  • Python opening a file and putting list of names on separate lines

    - by Jeremy Borton
    I am trying to write a python program using Python 3 I have to open a text file and read a list of names, print the list, sort the list in alphabetical order and then finally re-print the list. There's a little more to it than that BUT the problem I am having is that I'm supposed to print the list of names with each name on a separate line Instead of printing each name on a separate line, it prints the list all on one line. How can I fix this? def main(): #create control loop keep_going = 'y' #Open name file name_file = open('names.txt', 'r') names = name_file.readlines() name_file.close() #Open outfile outfile = open('sorted_names.txt', 'w') index = 0 while index < len(names): names[index] = names[index].rstrip('\n') index += 1 #sort names print('original order:', names) names.sort() print('sorted order:', names) #write names to outfile for item in names: outfile.write(item + '\n') #close outfile outfile.close() #search names while keep_going == 'y' or keep_going == 'Y': search = input('Enter a name to search: ') if search in names: print(search, 'was found in the list.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') else: print(search, 'was not found.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') main()

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  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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  • How do I relate two models/tables in Django based on non primary non unique keys?

    - by wizard
    I've got two tables that I need to relate on a single field po_num. The data is imported from another source so while I have a little bit of control over what the tables look like but I can't change them too much. What I want to do is relate these two models so I can look up one from the other based on the po_num fields. What I really need to do is join the two tables so I can do a where on a count of the related table. I would like to do filter for all Order objects that have 0 related EDI856 objects. I tried adding a foreign key to the Order model and specified the db_column and to_fields as po_num but django didn't like that the fact that Edi856.po_num wasn't unique. Here are the important fields of my current models that let me display but not filter for the data that I want. class Edi856(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True ) class Order(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True) def in_edi(self): '''Has the edi been processed?''' return Edi856.objects.filter(po_num = self.po_num).count() Thanks for taking the time to read about my problem. I'm not sure what to do from here.

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  • problem in showing and hiding dialog boxes in MFC

    - by Rakesh
    Hello all, I am trying to create a wizard like structure using dialog boxes...So I replaced the code in CDialog1App as below CDialog1Dlg* dlg = new CDialog1Dlg; m_pMainWnd = dlg; dlg->Create(IDD_DIALOG1); dlg->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); the above worked fine...its displying the dialog box.but I have added another dialog box... So in the first dialog box if the user clicks Next it has to hide the first dialog box and display the second dialog.. //CDialog1 class void CDialog1Dlg::OnBnClickedNext() { // TODO: Add your control notification handler code here CDialog2* dialog2 = new CDialog2(); dialog2->Create(IDD_DIALOG2); dialog2->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); this->ShowWindow(SW_HIDE); } in the above code am creating an object for the Dialog2 class and trying to show that.... Now the problem is,when I click next its hiding both the windows..What can I do..I tried several types but its still its not workin..Please dont suggest me to do with PropertySheet..It will work with that, i know ...but I want this using Dialog Box for some reason

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • How to set margin for inner controls of WrapPanel

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi Guys! I'm new in WPF and have a question. Here is an example that I'm using: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <Button Content="test1" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test2" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test3" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test4" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test5" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> As you can see, my wrap panel has several buttons. Each button has the same margin and padding. The question is, is there a way of setting margin and padding for wrap panel, so each element inside the wrap panel may use it values? This make the code shorter and let me specify Margin and Padding only one time instead of setting it for each control in the panel. Thank you!

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  • Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

    - by ProfK
    I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

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  • SharePoint: Filtering a List that has Folders

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a SharePoint document library that has a folder structure used for organizing the documents (but also for controlling access, via permissions on the folders). The documents in the library are updated every month, and we store every month's version of the document in the same folder; there's a "month" column used for filtering that will contain values like Jan 09, Feb 09, etc. It looks like this: Title Month ----- ----- SubFolder 1 SubFolder 2 [] Interesting Facts Jan 09 [] Interesting Facts Feb 09 [] Interesting Facts Mar 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Jan 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Feb 09 ... Now, because users will generally be most interested in the 'current' month, I'd like them to be able to apply a filter, and select (say) Mar 09. However, if they do this using the built-in filtering, it also filters out the folders, and they can no longer navigate the folder hierarchy. This is no good - I want them to be able to move between folders with the filter intact, so that they don't need to keep switching it off and on again. I figured I might be able to use a custom view (selecting where type=folder or month=[month]), and to an extent that does work. However, I can only get it to work for a fixed month, whereas I need the user to be able to select the month - perhaps via a drop-down control on the page (and I don't want to create 60 views for 5 years' worth of months, nor do I want to have to create a new view every month). I thought it might be possible to create a view in code (rather than via the UI), but I've not been able to figure out how to get a dynamic value (a user-specific setting) into the CAML query. Any pointers gratefully appreciated! And by the way, I am aware of the dogma that folders are bad, and that everything should just be a list. However, having considered the alternatives, I still favour using folders - if I can solve this problem. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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  • Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

    - by seth
    I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

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  • What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

    - by Savanni D'Gerinel
    In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

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  • Why is my Repeater null in code behind?

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    I'm just starting a new project and I am getting some really weird stuff happening. ASP.NET 3.5, VS2008. I've tried rebuild, close VS, delete everything and get from svn again but I cannot understand why the repeater in the following is null on page_load. I know this is going to be a headslapping moment. Help me out? Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GalleryControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="Site.UserControls.GalleryControl" %> <asp:Repeater ID="rptGalleries" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate><ul></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>wqe</li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Code behind public partial class GalleryControl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rptGalleries.DataSource = new[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; rptGalleries.DataBind(); } } Why is my repeater null? What the F is going on?

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  • I would like to interactively detect when an ActiveX component has been installed, and asynchronousl

    - by Brian Stinar
    Hello, I am working on a website, and I would like to refresh a portion of the page after an ActiveX component has been installed. I have a general idea of how to do this with polling, which I am working on getting going : function detectComponentThenSleep(){ try{ // Call what I want ActiveX for, if the method is available, or // ActiveXComponent.object == null --- test for existance document.getElementById("ActiveXComponent").someMethod(); } catch{ // Try again, if the method is not available setTimeout(detectComponentThenSleep, 100); } } However, what I would REALLY like to do is something like this: ActiveXObject.addListener("onInstall", myfunction); I don't actually have the source for the ActiveX component, but I have complete control of the page I am hosting it on. I would like to use JavaScript, if possible, to accomplish this. So, my question is 1.) will this actually work with the polling method? and 2.) Is there an interrupt/listener like way of doing this? I am sure I am missing something with connecting the dots here, I can already detect if the component is present, but I am having trouble doing this asynchronously. Thank you very much for your time and help, -Brian J. Stinar-

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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