Search Results

Search found 21283 results on 852 pages for 'control flow'.

Page 759/852 | < Previous Page | 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766  | Next Page >

  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

    Read the article

  • How do I fully reload my Sencha Touch App when tapping 'refresh'?

    - by torr
    My list view layout is similar to Pinterest, with absolutely positioned blocks. Unfortunately, this seems to require a full re-initialization at refresh. If reload only the store (as below) the new blocks are incorrectly positioned. How do I reload the app when the user clicks on refresh? This is my View: Ext.require(['Ext.data.Store', 'MyApp.model.StreamModel'], function() { Ext.define('MyApp.view.HomeView', { extend: 'Ext.navigation.View', xtype: 'homepanel', requires: [ 'Ext.dataview.List', ], config: { title: 'Home', iconCls: 'home', styleHtmlContent: true, navigationBar: { items: [ { xtype: 'button', iconMask: true, iconCls: 'refresh', align: 'left', action: 'refreshButton' } ] }, items: { title: 'My', xtype: 'list', itemTpl: [ '<div class="post">', ... '</div>' ].join(''), store: new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'MyApp.model.StreamModel', autoLoad: true, storeId: 'stream' }), } } }); }); Model: Ext.define('MyApp.model.StreamModel', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', config: { fields: [ 'post_id', 'comments' ], proxy: { type: 'jsonp', url: 'http://My.com/app', reader: { type: 'json', } } } }); and my Controller: Ext.define('MyApp.controller.RefreshController', { extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', requires: [ 'Ext.navigation.View' ], config: { control: { 'button[action=refreshButton]': { tap: 'refresh' } } }, refresh: function() { // Ext.StoreMgr.get('stream').load(); // here I'd like to reload the app instead // not just the store } });

    Read the article

  • MVC JsonResult not working with chrome?

    - by Karsten Detmold
    i want jquery to take a JsonResult from my MVC controller but it does'nt receive any data! If I put the output into a textfile and enter its link its working so I think my jQuery is fine. Then I was testing with other browsers like chrome and I saw NOTHING. The requested page was just emtpy.. no errors. Also IE seems to have problems receiving my string.. only firefox displays the string but why? public JsonResult jsonLastRequests() { List<Request> requests = new List<Request>(); while (r.Read()) { requests.Add(new Models.Request() { ID = (int)r[0], SiteID = r[1].ToString(), Lat = r[2].ToString(), City = r[4].ToString(), CreationTime = (DateTime)r[5] }); } r.Close(); return Json(requests); } I found out that also if I want to return the JSON as string its not working! Its working with a string in all browsers now.. but jQuery is still not loading anything var url = "http://../jsonLastRequests"; var source = { datatype: "json", datafields: [ { name: 'ID' }, { name: 'SiteID' }, { name: 'Lat' }, { name: 'CreationTime' }, { name: 'City' }, ], id: 'id', url: url }; var dataAdapter = new $.jqx.dataAdapter(source, { downloadComplete: function (data, status, xhr) { }, loadComplete: function (data) { }, loadError: function (xhr, status, error) { } }); I fixed my problem by adding: access-control-allow-origin:*

    Read the article

  • Best practice to create WPF wrapper application displaying screens on demand.

    - by Robbie
    Context: I'm developing a WPF application which will contain a lot of different "screens". Each screen contains a which on its turn contains all the visual elements. Some elements trigger events (e.g., checkboxes), a screen has individual resources, etc. The main application is "wrapper" around these screens: it contains a menubar, toolbar, statusbar and alike (in a DockPanel) and space to display one screen. Through the menubar, the user can choose which screen he wants to display. Goal: I want to dynamically load & display & (event)handle one screen in the space in the main application. I don't want to copy & paste all the "wrapper" stuff in all the different screens. And As I have many complex screens (around 300 - luckily auto-generated), I don't want to load all of them at the start of the application, but only upon request. Question: What do you recommend as the best way to realize this? What kind of things should I use and investigate: Pages or windows or User Control for the screens? Does this affect the event handling?

    Read the article

  • Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

    - by HacksawOnRye
    Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

    Read the article

  • Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

    - by Mas
    Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

    - by Peterim
    While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Loading specific icon size into TIcon from stream (Delphi XE)

    - by moodforaday
    My application downloads and displays favicons for specific websites. I followed Bing's solution for detecting image format from stream, but have hit another snag. Assuming an actual icon image, the code goes like this: var icon : TIcon; begin icon := TIcon.Create; try icon.LoadFromStream( faviconStream ); spFavicon.Glyph.Assign( icon ); finally icon.Free; end; end; (spFavicon is TRzGlyphStatus from Raize Components. Its Glyph property is a TBitmap) Now, this works, but sometimes the downloaded icon contains multiple images in different sizes, e.g. 32x32 in addition to the expected 16x16. For some reason the control's Glyph property picks the larger size. How can I load only the 16x16 size into TIcon, or from TIcon into TBitmap? Test favicon: http://www.kpfa.org/favicon.ico On edit: If at all possible, I'd rather avoid saving the icon to a file first.

    Read the article

  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

    Read the article

  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Capistrano + Git + DreamHost

    - by Michael Sync
    Hello, I'm trying to deploy my rails application by using Passenger and Capistrano on Dreamhost. I'm using Git as a version control and we bought an account from GitHub. I have installed all required gems, Passenger and Capistrano in my local machine and I have cloned the repository of my project from GitHub in my local machine as wel. According to Dreamhost support, they have Passenger, Ruby, Rails and etc on their server as well. I'm currently following this article http://github.com/guides/deploying-with-capistrano for my deployment. The following is my deploy.rb. default_run_options[:pty] = true ssh_options[:forward_agent] = true # be sure to change these set :user, 'gituser' set :domain, 'github.com' set :application, 'MyProjectOnGit' #[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git # the rest should be good set :repository, "[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git" set :deploy_to, "/ruby.michaelsync.net/" set :deploy_via, :remote_cache set :scm, 'git' set :branch, 'master' set :git_shallow_clone, 1 set :scm_verbose, true set :use_sudo, false set :git_enable_submodules, 1 server domain, :app, :web role :db, domain, :primary => true set :ssh_options, { :forward_agent => true } namespace :deploy do task :restart do run "touch #{current_path}/tmp/restart.txt" end end When I run "cap deploy", I'm getting the error below. [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) Thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

    Read the article

  • How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

    Read the article

  • Python on Mac: Fink? MacPorts? Builtin? Homebrew? Binary installer?

    - by BastiBechtold
    For the last few days, I have been trying to use Python for some audio development. The thing is, Mac OSX does not handle uninstalling stuff well. Actually, there is no way to uninstall anything. Once it is on your system, you better pray that it didn't do any funny stuff. Hence, I don't really want to rely on installer packages for Python. So I turn to Homebrew and install Python using Homebrew. Works fabulously. Using pip, Numpy, SciPy, Matplotlib were no (big) problem, either. Now I want to play audio. There is a host of different packages out there, but pip does not seem willing to install any. But, there is a binary distribution for PyGame, which I guess should work with the built-in Python. Hence my question: What would you do? Would you just install the binary distributions and hope that they interoperate well and never need uninstalling? Would you hack your way through whichever package control management system you prefer and deal with its problems? Something else?

    Read the article

  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

    Read the article

  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

    Read the article

  • Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

    - by Jeff Sargent
    In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

    Read the article

  • lightweight/portable VCS for server-hopping DBA?

    - by Aaron
    I'm looking for a VCS that'll help me keep all of my work scripts in-sync. Requirements: Portable (as in flash drive, not code-level) Run on Windows XP and Server 2003+ No installation dependencies (Cygwin, perl, Python) I use Mercurial on my work machine for version control of the various T-SQL, ksh, perl, and CMD/BAT scripts that I maintain as a MS SQL Server DBA and Unix sysadmin. So far, hg has worked for my AIX boxes- I mount my home directory as I login, and deal with the repo as if it were local. I haven't been able to find a similar solution for the Windows machines I use. Most of them I do not have Local Admin rights; even if I did, I'd rather not install (and maintain) Python + Mercurial on all of them. I can't get to my home directory on them remotely, which leaves a client running on each machine as the only option. Bonus points for an answer that would let me use a single repo for both the Windows and Unix machines. :) I'm running WinXP, with heavy use of Cygwin and a CrunchBang VM.

    Read the article

  • Custom Silverlight Splash Screen causes White Screen of Death

    - by wickster05
    I'm developing a Silverlight 4 application and I've created a custom splash screen. At first glance, the custom splash screen worked well - really well. After a few days I started noticing that the splash screen would no longer show and the screen would remain blank. This seems to only occur when I open multiple IE tabs/windows all pointing to this same application. The first few will load fine, while the following tabs/windows will remain "white" - as if nothing has/is loaded. This doesn't appear to be an issue with other browsers that I've tested with (i.e., Firefox and Chrome). Unfortunately, this product requires multiple screens to be open (and I'm not going to require our users to use a non-Microsoft internet browser). Furthermore, we have another product that hosts this Silverlight application inside a WPF WebBrowser control (which is similar to IE - and experiences the same issues as delineated above). Does anyone have any ideas on how to get around this? This is becoming increasingly frustrating. I should also point out, that the default splash screen seems to avoid these issues. When I remove the custom splash screen, we no longer see these problems. ANY help would be appreciated greatly! -Tom

    Read the article

  • What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

    - by Savanni D'Gerinel
    In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

    Read the article

  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

    Read the article

  • How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

    - by Sarah Weinberger
    How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

    Read the article

  • Set focus to a button in a new TabItem

    - by Jan
    I use a TabControl to display a list of items. The ItemView is a separate control I wrote. <TabControl SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentItem}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding ItemList}"> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ctrls:ItemView/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortItemDescription}"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> </TabControl> If the user presses a Button a new ViewModel is added to the list of ViewModels and the TabControl displays it as a new tab. After adding the new tab is selected. <Button Command="{Binding AddItemCommand}" Content="Add item"/> Inside of the new ViewModel is a button that needs to be focused each time a new tab is added. I have tried to use the FocusManager and the Initialized event in the ItemView but these are only called for the first time I add a new tab. <UserControl x:Class="ItemView" ... Initialized="ViewInitialized"> <Grid> ... <!-- Set focus to this button --> <Button Content="Search" Command="{Binding SearchCommand}" Name="SearchButton" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0"/> </Grid> </UserControl> Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What about race condition in multithreaded reading?

    - by themoob
    Hi, According to an article on IBM.com, "a race condition is a situation in which two or more threads or processes are reading or writing some shared data, and the final result depends on the timing of how the threads are scheduled. Race conditions can lead to unpredictable results and subtle program bugs." . Although the article concerns Java, I have in general been taught the same definition. As far as I know, simple operation of reading from RAM is composed of setting the states of specific input lines (address, read etc.) and reading the states of output lines. This is an operation that obviously cannot be executed simultaneously by two devices and has to be serialized. Now let's suppose we have a situation when a couple of threads access an object in memory. In theory, this access should be serialized in order to prevent race conditions. But e.g. the readers/writers algorithm assumes that an arbitrary number of readers can use the shared memory at the same time. So, the question is: does one have to implement an exclusive lock for read when using multithreading (in WinAPI e.g.)? If not, why? Where is this control implemented - OS, hardware? Best regards, Kuba

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766  | Next Page >