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Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

- by user127954

Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

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ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

- by LoveMeSomeCode

Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

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JS/CSS include section replacement, Debug vs Release

- by Bayard Randel

I'd be interested to hear how people handle conditional markup, specifically in their masterpages between release and debug builds. The particular scenario this is applicable to is handling concatenated js and css files. I'm currently using the .Net port of YUI compress to produce a single site.css and site.js from a large collection of separate files. One thought that occurred to me was to place the js and css include section in a user control or collection of panels and conditionally display the <link> and <script> markup based on the Debug or Release state of the assembly. Something along the lines of: #if DEBUG pnlDebugIncludes.visible = true #else pnlReleaseIncludes.visible = true #endif The panel is really not very nice semantically - wrapping <script> tags in a <div> is a bit gross; there must be a better approach. I would also think that a block level element like a <div> within <head> would be invalid html. Another idea was this could possibly be handled using web.config section replacements, but I'm not sure how I would go about doing that.

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jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

- by Sergey Grashchenko

I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

- by Craig Walker

I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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Most efficient method of detecting/monitoring DOM changes?

- by Graza

I need an efficient mechanism for detecting changes to the DOM. Preferably cross-browser, but if there's any efficient means which are not cross browser, I can implement these with a fail-safe cross browser method. In particular, I need to detect changes that would affect the text on a page, so any new, removed or modified elements, or changes to inner text (innerHTML) would be required. I don't have control over the changes being made (they could be due to 3rd party javascript includes, etc), so it can't be approached from this angle - I need to "monitor" for changes somehow. Currently I've implemented a "quick'n'dirty" method which checks body.innerHTML.length at intervals. This won't of course detect changes which result in the same length being returned, but in this case is "good enough" - the chances of this happening are extremely slim, and in this project, failing to detect a change won't result in lost data. The problem with body.innerHTML.length is that it's expensive. It can take between 1 and 5 milliseconds on a fast browser, and this can bog things down a lot - I'm also dealing with a large-ish number of iframes and it all adds up. I'm pretty sure the expensiveness of doing this is because the innerHTML text is not stored statically by browsers, and needs to be calculated from the DOM every time it is read. The types of answers I am looking for are anything from the "precise" (for example event) to the "good enough" - perhaps something as "quick'n'dirty" as the innerHTML.length method, but that executes faster.

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Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

- by Laurence

(Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

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Set focus to a button in a new TabItem

- by Jan

I use a TabControl to display a list of items. The ItemView is a separate control I wrote. <TabControl SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentItem}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding ItemList}"> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ctrls:ItemView/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortItemDescription}"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> </TabControl> If the user presses a Button a new ViewModel is added to the list of ViewModels and the TabControl displays it as a new tab. After adding the new tab is selected. <Button Command="{Binding AddItemCommand}" Content="Add item"/> Inside of the new ViewModel is a button that needs to be focused each time a new tab is added. I have tried to use the FocusManager and the Initialized event in the ItemView but these are only called for the first time I add a new tab. <UserControl x:Class="ItemView" ... Initialized="ViewInitialized"> <Grid> ...  <Button Content="Search" Command="{Binding SearchCommand}" Name="SearchButton" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0"/> </Grid> </UserControl> Any ideas?

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Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

- by Derick

Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

- by Sarah Weinberger

How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

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WCF cross-domain policy security error

- by George2

Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

- by Kannabiran

I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

- by Arj

Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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Why is my Repeater null in code behind?

- by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

I'm just starting a new project and I am getting some really weird stuff happening. ASP.NET 3.5, VS2008. I've tried rebuild, close VS, delete everything and get from svn again but I cannot understand why the repeater in the following is null on page_load. I know this is going to be a headslapping moment. Help me out? Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GalleryControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="Site.UserControls.GalleryControl" %> <asp:Repeater ID="rptGalleries" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate><ul></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>wqe</li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Code behind public partial class GalleryControl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rptGalleries.DataSource = new[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; rptGalleries.DataBind(); } } Why is my repeater null? What the F is going on?

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How spoof referrer using curl

- by golu molu

I am using curl code below to spoof referrer , it works fine but there is error on every page - Curl error: $url = somesite.com function doMagic($url) { $curl = curl_init(); $header[0] = "Accept: text/xml,application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,"; $header[0] .= "text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Cache-Control: max-age=0"; $header[] = "Connection: keep-alive"; $header[] = "Keep-Alive: 300"; $header[] = "Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7"; $header[] = "Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5"; $header[] = "Pragma: "; curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:7.0.1) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/7.0.12011-10-16 20:23:00"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://www.facebook.com"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_ENCODING, "gzip,deflate"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_AUTOREFERER, true); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,true); $html = curl_exec($curl); echo 'Curl error: '. curl_error($curl); curl_close($curl); return $html; } $text = doMagic($url); print("$text"); what i'm doing wrong?

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Can't set Visible attribute in ASP.NET Panels

- by RichW

I am having trouble with visible attribute of an ASP.NET Panel control. I have a page that calls a database table and returns the results in a datagrid. Requirements If some of the returned values are null I need to hide the image that's next to it. I am using a Panel to determine whether to hide or show the image but am having trouble with the statement: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' I have tried these as well: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' Code is below: <asp:TemplateField > <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("Name")%> <p> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="Panel1" visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>'> <asp:Image Id="imgHouse" runat="server" AlternateText="Address" SkinId="imgHouse"/> </asp:Panel> <%# Eval("addr1") %><p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> What am I doing wrong? Edit If I use visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' I get the following error: Compiler Error Message: CS1026: ) expected

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Global hotkey capture in VB.net

- by ggonsalv

I want to have my app which is minimized to capture data selected in another app's window when the hot key is pressed. My app definitely doesn't have the focus. Additionally when the hot key is pressed I want to present a fading popup (Outlook style) so my app never gets focus. At a minimum I want to capture the Window name, Process ID and the selected data. The app which has focus is not my application? I know one option is to sniff the Clipboard, but are there any other solutions. This is to audit the rate of data-entry in to another system of which I have no control. It is a mainframe emulation client program(attachmate). The plan is complete data entry in Application X. Select a certain section of the screen in App X which is proof of data entry (transaction ID). Press the Magic Hotkey, which then 'sends' the selection to my App. From System.environment or system.Threading I can find the Windows logon. Similiarly I can also capture the time. All the data will be logged to SQL. Once Complete show Outlook style pop up saying the data entry has been logged. Any thoughts.

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URL protocol handler shell execute problem

- by Chuck

Hi, I'm working on a small hobby web site where I'm able to launch a local app with certain arguments based on links. Setting up a protocol wasn't difficult, as described in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa767914(VS.85).aspx, but I have one dilemma: Let's say the protocol is: foo:127.0.0.1:1111, so a link like href="foo:127.0.0.1:1111" would launch an app like: bar.exe "%1". Since I don't have any control over bar.exe (if I had, then it would be no problem to just parse it, obviously), I need some help parsing %1. bar.exe will launch correctly if it's run as bar.exe 127.0.0.1:1111, but not if it's run as bar.exe foo:127.0.0.1:1111. So I guess my question is... is there ANY way to tell the registry to pass on not %1, but a trimmed %1? (Thinking in terms of regexp where you have match[0] = all of the matched, match[1] = first capture in the matched text). I can solve it by having a .bat instead of .exe, but as I would like to make it as easy as possible for the user to use, I would LOVE it if I could handle it all stricly in registry. Any help is greatly appreciated! Chuck

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Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

- by weevie

...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

- by Rebol Tutorial

Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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Apache + Passenger not passing on custom status codes

- by harm

I'm currently building an API. This API communicates with the client via status codes. I created several custom status codes (as per http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec6.html#sec6) in order to inform the client on certain things. For example I introduced the 481 status code to signify a specific client error. The Rails app I wrote works like a charm. But when Apache and Passenger are serving it things run aground. When I provoke a 481 error the response header looks like this: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 06:37:05 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.9 (Debian) Phusion_Passenger/2.2.5 mod_ssl/2.2.9 OpenSSL/0.9.8g X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.5 Cache-Control: no-cache X-Runtime: 1938 Set-Cookie: _session_id=32bc259dc763193ad57ae7dc19d5f57e; path=/; HttpOnly Content-Length: 62 Status: 481 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 As you can see the original Status header is still there almost a the end. But the 'true' status header (the very first line) is quiet different. It seems that Apache doesn't like Status headers it has no knowledge of and thus assumes an error. Is there anyway to fix this? Maybe via the mod_headers ( http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html) module? I don't know enough of Apache to figure this out on my own. Thanks,

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Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

- by Mas

Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

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asp.net ajax collapsible panel in ie8 problem

- by stuart

Anyone try this simple bit of code in an ie8 browswer and try refreshing the page, in ie8 you will get an error around getelementbyid on refresh. When i run it it complains of not being able to find control with id of 'ctl00_main_dd' <cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender ID="CollapsiblePanelExtender2" runat="server" ImageControlID="Image2" CollapsedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/uparrow.png" ExpandedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/downarrow.png" CollapseControlID="dd" ExpandControlID="dd" TargetControlID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" SuppressPostBack="true"> </cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender> <asp:Panel ID="dd" runat="server"> <h3 class="loginHeader"> <asp:Image ID="Image2" runat="server" />   Quick Keyword search <asp:Image ID="HelpIconImage" runat="server" Width="16px" Height="16px" ImageUrl="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/help.png" /></h3> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel ID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" Style="float: left; border: double 3px #C9DF86;" runat="server" > <div style="clear: both; padding: 5px;"> </div></asp:Panel> Anybody know why this is happening? is it a bug in ie8 or am i missing something? By the way, i am using masterpages, but i dont think that has anything to do with it. Thanks

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Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

- by Peterim

While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

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How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

- by AngryHacker

I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

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