Search Results

Search found 1530 results on 62 pages for 'marked'.

Page 9/62 | < Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >

  • Is there a theory for "transactional" sequences of failing and no-fail actions?

    - by Ross Bencina
    My question is about writing transaction-like functions that execute sequences of actions, some of which may fail. It is related to the general C++ principle "destructors can't throw," no-fail property, and maybe also with multi-phase transactions or exception safety. However, I'm thinking about it in language-neutral terms. My concern is with correctly designing error handling in C++ functions that must be reliable. I would like to know what the concepts below are called so that I can learn more about them. I'm sorry that I can't ask the question more directly. Since I don't know this area I have provided an example to explain my question. The question is at the end. Here goes: Consider a sequence of steps or actions executed sequentially, where actions belong to one of two classes: those that always succeed, and those that may fail. In the examples below: S stands for an action that always succeeds (called "no-fail" in some settings). F stands for an action that may fail (for example, it might fail to allocate memory or do I/O that could fail). Consider a sequences of actions (executed sequentially from left to right): S->S->S->S Since each action in the sequence above succeeds, the whole sequence succeeds. On the other hand, the following sequence may fail because the last action may fail: S->S->S->F So, claim: a sequence has the no-fail (S) property if and only if all of its actions are no-fail. Now, I'm interested in action sequences that form "atomic transactions", with "failure atomicity," i.e. where either the whole sequence completes successfully, or there is no effect. I.e. if some action fails, the earlier ones must be rolled back. This requires that any successfully executed actions prior to a failing action must always be able to be rolled back. Consider the sequence: S->S->S->F S<-S<-S In the example above, the first row is the forward path of the transaction, and the second row are inverse actions (executed from right to left) that can be used to roll back if the final top row actions fails. It seems to me that for a transaction to support failure atomicity, the following invariant must hold: Claim: To support failure atomicity (either completion or complete roll-back on failure) all actions preceding the latest failable (F) action on the forward path (marked * in the example below) must have no-fail (S) inverses. The following is an example of a sequence that supports failure atomicity: * S->F->F->F S<-S<-S Further, if we want the transaction to be able to attempt cancellation mid-way through, but still guarantee either full completion or full rollback then we need the following property: Claim: To support failure atomicity and cancellation mid-way through execution, in the face of errors in the inverse (cancellation) path, all actions following the earliest failable (F) inverse on the reverse path (marked *) must be no-fail (S). F->F->F->S->S S<-S<-F<-F * I believe that these two conditions guarantee that an abortable/cancelable transaction will never get "stuck". My questions are: What is the study and theory of these properties called? are my claims correct? and what else is there to know? UPDATE 1: Updated terminology: what I previously called "robustness" is called atomicity in the database literature. UPDATE 2: Added explicit reference to failure atomicity, which seems to be a thing.

    Read the article

  • jqGrid Export to CSV Missing Column Names

    - by user561557
    I have a jqGrid that works perfectly. It contains a pager button to export the grid to a csv file which works and exports the data. However, I also need to have the column names exported with the data and I can't seem to get that to work. My working code follows. jQuery("#detail").jqGrid('navGrid','#pager2', {height:520,width:500,savekey:[true,13],navkeys:[true,38,40],reloadAfterSubmit:false, jqModal:false, closeOnEscape:true, bottominfo:"Fields marked with () are required"}, // edit options {height:520, width:500,savekey:[true,13],reloadAfterSubmit:false,jqModal:false, closeOnEscape:true,bottominfo:"Fields marked with () are required", closeAfterAdd: true}, // add options {reloadAfterSubmit:false,jqModal:false, closeOnEscape:true}, // del options {closeOnEscape:true}, // search options {height:250,width:500,jqModal:false,closeOnEscape:true}, {view:true} // view options ); // add custom button to export the data to excel jQuery("#detail").jqGrid('navButtonAdd','#pager2',{ caption:"", title:"Export to CSV", onClickButton : function () { exportExcel(); }, position:"last" }); // add custom button to print grid jQuery("#detail").jqGrid('navButtonAdd','#pager2',{ caption:"", title:"Print", buttonicon:"ui-icon-print", onClickButton : function () { jQuery('#detail_table').jqprint({ operaSupport: true }); return false; } }); function exportExcel() { var mya=new Array(); mya=jQuery("#detail").getDataIDs(); // Get All IDs var data=jQuery("#detail").getRowData(mya[0]); // Get First row to get the labels var colNames=new Array(); var ii=0; for (var i in data){colNames[ii++]=i;} // capture col names var html=""; for(i=0;i } html=html+"\\n"; // end of line at the end document.forms[0].method='POST'; document.forms[0].action='ajax/csvExport.php'; // send it to server which will open this contents in excel file document.forms[0].target='_blank'; document.forms[0].csvBuffer.value=html; document.forms[0].submit(); }

    Read the article

  • Multilingual spellcheck on WPF richtextbox

    - by sub-jp
    I need to turn spellcheck on for a richtextbox, and set the language to one the user has picked from a drop down. For now, I'm just testing it by building the richtextbox in xaml and providing a language to the xaml language attribute. I've read two different resources and one says I need to set the language attribute, and the other says I need to set the xml:lang attribute. Neither seems to work. I've tried setting either one to "es" for Spanish, and I've also tried setting both to "es". I've also tried french by setting them to "fr-FR", without success. The only thing that happens is that english words aren't marked, but the other language words are marked as misspelled. I also read that I need to change the keyboard language. This would be a problem for my application as the language within the application needs to be switched on the fly, so having the end user go to their keyboard settings just so spellcheck will work is a problem. However, I've changed my keyboard settings, and spell check still does not work properly. This time it doesn't mark anything as misspelled, even misspelled english words. What am I missing? Edit: some links to my references above http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.controls.spellcheck(v=VS.100).aspx http://www.dev102.com/2008/03/25/customize-spellcheck-on-wpf-text-controls/ http://books.google.com/books?id=clLc5BBHqRMC&pg=PA121&lpg=PA121&dq=C%23+wpf+enable+spellcheck&source=bl&ots=_r59pZRDjP&sig=yHMBc39EHKK5gaRMzxlBaEsY890&hl=en&ei=oXnIS8zWH4G88gaq48yGBw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6&ved=0CBMQ6AEwBQ#v=onepage&q&f=false

    Read the article

  • C# and F# lambda expressions code generation

    - by ControlFlow
    Let's look at the code, generated by F# for simple function: let map_add valueToAdd xs = xs |> Seq.map (fun x -> x + valueToAdd) The generated code for lambda expression (instance of F# functional value) will looks like this: [Serializable] internal class map_add@3 : FSharpFunc<int, int> { public int valueToAdd; internal map_add@3(int valueToAdd) { this.valueToAdd = valueToAdd; } public override int Invoke(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } And look at nearly the same C# code: using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; static class Program { static IEnumerable<int> SelectAdd(IEnumerable<int> source, int valueToAdd) { return source.Select(x => x + valueToAdd); } } And the generated code for the C# lambda expression: [CompilerGenerated] private sealed class <>c__DisplayClass1 { public int valueToAdd; public int <SelectAdd>b__0(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } So I have some questions: Why does F#-generated class is not marked as sealed? Why does F#-generated class contains public fields since F# doesn't allows mutable closures? Why does F# generated class has the constructor? It may be perfectly initialized with the public fields... Why does C#-generated class is not marked as [Serializable]? Also classes generated for F# sequence expressions are also became [Serializable] and classes for C# iterators are not.

    Read the article

  • Dealing with SerializationExceptions in C#

    - by Tony
    I get a SerializationException: (...) is not marked as serializable. error in the following code: [Serializable] public class Wind { public MyText text; public Size MSize; public Point MLocation; public int MNumber; /.../ } [Serializable] public class MyText { public string MString; public Font MFont; public StringFormat StrFormat; public float MySize; public Color FColor, SColor, TColor; public bool IsRequest; public decimal MWide; /.../ } and the List to be serialized: List<Wind> MyList = new List<Wind>(); Code Snippet: FileStream FS = new FileStream(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "Sticks.dat", FileMode.Create); BinaryFormatter BF = new BinaryFormatter(); BF.Serialize(FS, MyList); FS.Close(); throws an Exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message="Type 'System.Drawing.StringFormat' in Assembly 'System.Drawing, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' is not marked as serializable." How do I solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Reconnect to GPRS from J2ME

    - by ouzz
    Dear All, I have a little problem. I have developed a midlet application that call some webservices through internet. I'm using cell phones with GPRS connection. For some time it runs as I wanted, run the apps, call the webservices through the GPRS, it returns the result, call the webservices again, and so on. But say, I call the webservices and after the apps return the result I needed, I left it for a while. The next time I continue to access the webservices, the apps takes a while to connect through the GPRS. In nokia, it is marked with a G in a box. In SE it is marked with a glowing globe. This 'G' in the box or the glowing globe will appear after a while or won't appear at all, but the apps is still trying to connect to the internet. Does it come from my apps or it come from the cell phone? And could I know [or the apps knows] that at the moment the apps tries to connect the GPRS is ready? Thanks a lot for your responses...

    Read the article

  • Android ScrollView jumps around when resized

    - by Mike
    I have a ScrollView that contains an number of other views (TextViews, ImageViews, etc.). The ScrollView is taller than the screen. I have an AsyncTask that updates the children of the ScrollView based on an http response. I've discovered an interesting behavior that I can't figure out how to work around. If I set any of the children's visibilities to View.INVISIBLE as part of the AsyncTask.onPostExecute(), everything works fine. However, if I set any of the children's visibilities to View.GONE, the ScrollView jumps down from the top when onPostExecute() is called. Exactly how far seems to vary. I'm guessing that re-laying out the ScrollView is causing it to scroll away from the top for some reason. So the question is: is there a way to either prevent or work around this behavior? PS. Using ScrollView.jump(FOCUS_UP) as a workaround isn't ideal since that'll force the user to the top even if they had intended to scroll down. EDIT: Actually, I was wrong. The problem wasn't with a child view being marked gone, the problem was with a sibling view being marked gone and the ScrollView getting resized. My ScrollView is inside a LinearLayout that also contains a Button. When the button is set to GONE, the ScrollView gets resized to take up the available space, causing it to scroll away from the top. Different cause, still looking for a workaround though if possible.

    Read the article

  • Can I serialize an object if I didn't write the class used to instantiate that object?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a simple class [Serializable] public class MyClass { public String FirstName { get; set: } public String LastName { get; set: } //Bellow is what I would like to do //But, it's not working //I get an exception ContactDataContext db = new ContactDataContext(); public void Save() { Contact contact = new Contact(); contact.FirstName = FirstName; contact.LastName = LastName; db.Contacts.InsertOnSubmit(contact); db.SubmitChanges(); } } I wanted to attach a Save method to the class so that I could call it on each object. When I introduced the above statement which contains ContactDataContext, I got the following error "In assembly ... PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable" It's clear that the DataContext class is generated by the framework (). I checked and did not see where that class was marked serialize. What can I do to overcome that? What's the rule when I'm not the author of a class? Just go ahead and mark the DataContext class as serializable, and pretend that everything will work? Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

    Read the article

  • Git merge 2 new file with removed content and added content

    - by Loïc Faure-Lacroix
    So we are working in with 2 different repositories and both designers modified the same file. the problem is quite simple but I have no ideas how to solve it yet. Both files are marked as new since they have almost nothing in common except that file. When I try to merge from branch A to B it mark the parts added in A deleted in B and on the other side, what was added in B appears deleted in A. git seems to try to outsmart me when I know that I need almost every changes and nothing should be mark as deletion. I have 2 other branch that should merge without problem after these 2 branch. I can't merge them yet since there are some recent changes that may not merge really well too. I have to merge A and B = E then C and D = F and then hopefully E and F So the big question here is how can I do a completely manual merge that will mark every changes as conflict anything deleted anything added should be marked as conflict that I can solve by myself using an editor. Git is trying to outsmart me and fail terribly at it.

    Read the article

  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

    Read the article

  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

    Read the article

  • JQuery SelectList Option Changed doesn't refresh

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi. I have this select list: <select url="/Admin/SubCategories" name="TopParentId" id="ParentList"> <option value="">Please select a parent category</option> <option value="1" selected="selected">New Store</option> <option value="2">Extensions</option> <option value="3">Remodel</option> <option value="4">Bespoke Signage</option> <option value="5">Tactical Signage</option> <option value="6">Size Chart</option> <option value="7">Contact Info</option> </select> As you can see the option 1 is marked as selected. When I change the selection, I use this code to do an ajax call to get some values to populate a new select list: $("#ParentList").unbind("change"); $("#ParentList").change(function() { var itemId = $(this).val(); var url = $(this).attr("url"); var options; $.getJSON(url, itemId, function(data) { var defaultoption = '<option value="0">Please select a sub-category</option>'; options += defaultoption; $.each(data, function(index, optionData) { var option = '<option value="' + optionData.valueOf + '">' + optionData.Text + '</option>'; options += option; }); $("#SubParentList").html(options); }); }); My problem is that whenever I change the selection, the itemId is always the id of option 1, because it is marked as selected. It doesn't pick up the value of the option it is being changed too. Can someone please enlighten me of their knowledge. Regards, Jean-Philippe

    Read the article

  • Only want "Required field" error to appear ONCE in ASP.NET Validation Summary

    - by PapillonUK
    I have a form with several fields with a RequiredFieldValidator on them. If any of these fields are not filled in I only want the message "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" to appear once in the ValidationSummary control and an asterisk to appear next to each field. I have done this using the method here. i.e. by setting Text to "*" and ValidationSummary.HeaderText to my message. Great, but no cigar as I also have other fields with other validators e.g. a RegEx for an Email field. This means that if all the required fields are entered but the email is incorrect, the ValidationSummary with "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" will appear along with the message for the invalid email. Crap! I then tried using a ValidationGroup called "ReqField" and have a one ValidationSummary for this group (with my HeaderText) and another for the other validators, but alas, my Submit button only allows one ValidationGroup to be triggered upon the click event. Does anyone have any ideas as to how I can get this to work? Thanks in adavnce.

    Read the article

  • Serialization for memcached

    - by Ram
    I have this huge domain object(say parent) which contains other domain objects. It takes a lot of time to "create" this parent object by querying a DB (OK we are optimizing the DB). So we decided to cache it using memcached (with northscale to be specific) So I have gone through my code and marked all the classes (I think) as [Serializable], but when I add it to the cache, I see a Serialization Exception getting thrown in my VS.net output window. var cache = new NorthScaleClient("MyBucket"); cache.Store(StoreMode.Set, key, value); This is the exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll SO my guess is, I have not marked all classes as [Serializable]. I am not using any third party libraries and can mark any class as [Serializable], but how do I find out which class is failing when the cache is trying to serialize the object ? Edit1: casperOne comments make me think. I was able to cache these domain object with Microsoft Cache Application Block without marking them [Serializable], but not with NorthScale memcached. It makes me think that there might be something to do with their implementation, but just out of curiosity, am still interested in finding where it fails when trying to add the object to memcached

    Read the article

  • 3Ware 9650SE RAID-6, two degraded drives, one ECC, rebuild stuck

    - by cswingle
    This morning I came in the office to discover that two of the drives on a RAID-6, 3ware 9650SE controller were marked as degraded and it was rebuilding the array. After getting to about 4%, it got ECC errors on a third drive (this may have happened when I attempted to access the filesystem on this RAID and got I/O errors from the controller). Now I'm in this state: > /c2/u1 show Unit UnitType Status %RCmpl %V/I/M Port Stripe Size(GB) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ u1 RAID-6 REBUILDING 4%(A) - - 64K 7450.5 u1-0 DISK OK - - p5 - 931.312 u1-1 DISK OK - - p2 - 931.312 u1-2 DISK OK - - p1 - 931.312 u1-3 DISK OK - - p4 - 931.312 u1-4 DISK OK - - p11 - 931.312 u1-5 DISK DEGRADED - - p6 - 931.312 u1-6 DISK OK - - p7 - 931.312 u1-7 DISK DEGRADED - - p3 - 931.312 u1-8 DISK WARNING - - p9 - 931.312 u1-9 DISK OK - - p10 - 931.312 u1/v0 Volume - - - - - 7450.5 Examining the SMART data on the three drives in question, the two that are DEGRADED are in good shape (PASSED without any Current_Pending_Sector or Offline_Uncorrectable errors), but the drive listed as WARNING has 24 uncorrectable sectors. And, the "rebuild" has been stuck at 4% for ten hours now. So: How do I get it to start actually rebuilding? This particular controller doesn't appear to support /c2/u1 resume rebuild, and the only rebuild command that appears to be an option is one that wants to know what disk to add (/c2/u1 start rebuild disk=<p:-p...> [ignoreECC] according to the help). I have two hot spares in the server, and I'm happy to engage them, but I don't understand what it would do with that information in the current state it's in. Can I pull out the drive that is demonstrably failing (the WARNING drive), when I have two DEGRADED drives in a RAID-6? It seems to me that the best scenario would be for me to pull the WARNING drive and tell it to use one of my hot spares in the rebuild. But won't I kill the thing by pulling a "good" drive in a RAID-6 with two DEGRADED drives? Finally, I've seen reference in other posts to a bad bug in this controller that causes good drives to be marked as bad and that upgrading the firmware may help. Is flashing the firmware a risky operation given the situation? Is it likely to help or hurt wrt the rebuilding-but-stuck-at-4% RAID? Am I experiencing this bug in action? Advice outside the spiritual would be much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Shortcut to offline folder

    - by Diego
    Is there a way to create a shortcut to a folder or file marked as "Always available offline" so it can be open directly when offline? A simple shortcut doesn't seem to work; I have to go through Manage Offline Files → View your offline files → Mapped Network Drives → etc

    Read the article

  • New install indicator while install updating on Ubuntu

    - by Phuong Nguyen
    In the update manager of ubuntu I see several libraries marked with New Install. I don't know what is the benefit I can get from that New Install? What if I just want a normal upgrade, not a New Install? (I have 3 Linux Kernel versions right now (that I can see and select from Grub menu), and I think I don't need all of them since I always use the latest Kernel).

    Read the article

  • How do I check a reverse PTR record?

    - by Daisetsu
    I need to check a reverse PTR record to make sure that a script I have is sending emails which will actually received by my users and not incorrectly marked as spam. I understand that the ISP which owns the IP range has to set up the PTR record, but how do I check if it is already set up?

    Read the article

  • Is there a program that gives the result of a chemical reaction?

    - by Semyon Perepelitsa
    Is there a program where I can type one, two or more components of chemical reaction and find out the result of it? For example, I enter "N2 + H2" and it gives me "N2 + H2 ? NH3". Or "C10H8 + O2" and it shows "C10H8 + O2 ? CO2 + H2O". I don't need coefficient calculator, where I type full reaction and it calculates coefficients (marked bold in next example): C10H8 + 12 O2 = 10 CO2 + 4 H2O.

    Read the article

  • Alternative to K9 spam handler?

    - by overtherainbow
    I've been using the free K9 spam handler for a couple of years now, but it hasn't been updated since 2004 and has a couple of bugs that bother me: The Find feature stops at the first e-mail found, and doesn't go further I'd like to copy the list of e-mails marked as either real or SPAM, but K9 only copies the first item in the clipboard For those of you who have researched desktop anti-SPAM handlers under Windows, what do you suggest as an alternative, either free or moderately priced?

    Read the article

  • Web server hits from Akamai IP addresses

    - by Joel
    I am getting a lot of hits to my web server from from multiple IP addresses that are owned by Akamai. This stood out to me as the requests are for resources that are no longer available. These resources should not be being requested - that pages that refer to them are marked as being non-cachable. Any clues?

    Read the article

  • virtual directories in iis7.0 got deleted in windows 2008

    - by subash
    hi , After installing iis6.0 metabase compatibility and iis6.0 console in the iis7.0 ,i am not able to create new virtual directory in Default website( which is marked with a small red mark). when i right click on" Default website",it generates following message box "there was an error while performing this operation...the application '/' does not exist." and i am working in the windows 2008 environment .can any one help me in getting back my old virtual directories in default website?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >