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  • Is it just me? I find LINQ to XML to be sort of cumbersome, compared to XPath.

    - by Cheeso
    I am a C# programmer, so I don't get to take advantage of the cool XML syntax in VB. Dim itemList1 = From item In rss.<rss>.<channel>.<item> _ Where item.<description>.Value.Contains("LINQ") Or _ item.<title>.Value.Contains("LINQ") Using C#, I find XPath to be easier to think about, easier to code, easier to understand, than performing a multi-nested select using LINQ to XML. Look at this syntax, it looks like Greek swearing: var waypoints = from waypoint in gpxDoc.Descendants(gpx + "wpt") select new { Latitude = waypoint.Attribute("lat").Value, Longitude = waypoint.Attribute("lon").Value, Elevation = waypoint.Element(gpx + "ele") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "ele").Value : null, Name = waypoint.Element(gpx + "name") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "name").Value : null, Dt = waypoint.Element(gpx + "cmt") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "cmt").Value : null }; All the casting, the heavy syntax, the possibility for NullPointerExceptions. None of this happens with XPath. I like LINQ in general, and I use it on object collections and databases, but my first go-round with querying XML led me right back to XPath. Is it just me? Am I missing something? EDIT: someone voted to close this as "not a real question". But it is a real question, stated clearly. The question is: Am I misunderstanding something with LINQ to XML?

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  • HTTPSConnection module missing in Python 2.6 on CentOS 5.2

    - by d2kagw
    Hi guys, I'm playing around with a Python application on CentOS 5.2. It uses the Boto module to communicate with Amazon Web Services, which requires communication through a HTTPS connection. When I try running my application I get an error regarding HTTPSConnection being missing: "AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSConnection'" Google doesn't really return anything relevant, I've tried most of the solutions but none of them solve the problem. Has anyone come across anything like it? Here's the traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./chatter.py", line 114, in <module> sys.exit(main()) File "./chatter.py", line 92, in main chatter.status( ) File "/mnt/application/chatter/__init__.py", line 161, in status cQueue.connect() File "/mnt/application/chatter/tools.py", line 42, in connect self.connection = SQSConnection(cConfig.get("AWS", "KeyId"), cConfig.get("AWS", "AccessKey")); File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/sqs/connection.py", line 54, in __init__ self.region.endpoint, debug, https_connection_factory) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 418, in __init__ debug, https_connection_factory) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 189, in __init__ self.refresh_http_connection(self.server, self.is_secure) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 247, in refresh_http_connection connection = httplib.HTTPSConnection(host) AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSConnection'

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  • Goolge App Engine authorization with Google Apps Domain

    - by Ron
    I have successfully followed the examples to gain an AuthSub token to authorize my application to have access to the user's Google Calendar. I have added the domain parameter to the method gdata.auth.generate_auth_sub_url so that the application is authenticated against a Google Apps Domain user. The app is then installed in one of our test domains. This is working fine, however, each user in the domain has to go through the authorization process. In other Marketplace Apps that I have tried, this authorization is done once for the whole domain when the app is installed. How is this achieved?

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  • I am using relational division with EAV, but I need to find results in EAV that have some of the cat

    - by NewToDB
    I have two tables: CREATE TABLE EAV ( subscriber_id INT(1) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', attribute_id CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', attribute_value CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', PRIMARY KEY (subscriber_id,attribute_id) ) INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'color','red') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'size','xl') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'garment','shirt') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'color','red') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'size','xl') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'garment','pants') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (3,'garment','pants') CREATE TABLE CRITERIA ( attribute_id CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', attribute_value CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '' ) INSERT INTO CRITERIA (attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES ('color', 'red') INSERT INTO CRITERIA (attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES ('size', 'xl') To find all subscribers in the EAV that match my criteria, I use relational division: SELECT DISTINCT(subscriber_id) FROM EAV WHERE subscriber_id IN (SELECT E.subscriber_id FROM EAV AS E JOIN CRITERIA AS CR ON E.attribute_id = CR.attribute_id AND E.attribute_value = CR.attribute_value GROUP BY E.subscriber_id HAVING COUNT() = (SELECT COUNT() FROM CRITERIA)) This gives me an unique list of subscribers who have all the criteria. So that means I get back subscriber 1 and 2 since they are looking for the color red and size xl, and that's exactly my criteria. But what if I want to extend this so that I also get subscriber 3 since this subscriber didn't specifically say what color or size they want (ie. there is no entry for attribute 'color' or 'size' in the EAV table for subscriber 3). Given my current design, is there a way I can extend my query to include subscribers that have zero or more of the attributes defined, and if they do have the attribute defined, then it must match the criteria? Or is there a better way to design the table to aid in querying?

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  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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  • Using the ASP.NET membership provider database with your own database?

    - by Shaharyar
    Hello everybody, We are developing an ASP.NET MVC Application that currently uses it's own databse ApplicationData for the domain models and another one Membership for the user management / membership provider. We do access restrictions using data-annotations in our controllers. [Authorize(Roles = "administrators, managers")] This worked great for simple use cases. As we are scaling our application our customer wants to restrict specific users to access specific areas of our ApplicationData database. Each of our products contains a foreign key referring to the region the product was assembled in. A user story would be: Users in the role NewYorkManagers should only be able to edit / see products that are assembled in New York. We created a placeholder table UserRightsRegions that contains the UserId and the RegionId. How can I link both the ApplicationData and the Membership databases in order to work properly / having cross-database-key-references? (Is something like this even possible?) All help is more than appreciated!

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  • conditional update records mysql query

    - by Shakti Singh
    Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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  • pagination in jsf

    - by gurupriyan.e
    I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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  • Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

    - by dmckee
    I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

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  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

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  • Facebook connect integration (registration & login)

    - by nikospkrk
    Hi, I'm really struggling to make facebook connection working for my system. What I want to do : When the user is not yet registered on facebook : Fetch some user profile fields into my database (ideqally via my registration page already working for non facebook users) Log the user into my website Redirect the user into my homepage What I've done so far : Set up the application in FB Add the Facebook class from the github website and integrate some code to make it working Add additionnal paremeters to login/register facebook link. I'm struggling to redirect the user after authorizing, to my register page (register/?facebook). The "Post-Authorize Redirect URL" field doesn't seem to work properly, I maybe do not fill the right field? My other question is, if my registration page uses a redirection show (index.php redirect to register.php), do the information given by facebook through the $_POST method would be available in the register.php page ? I don't think so, do you ? Regards, Nicolas.

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  • How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

    - by mg
    Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

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  • T4MVC calling controller methods multiple times?

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method, not the generated code in T4MVC. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version. Is this a fluke or is it actually calling into the real methods and running my database calling code just to generate the views?

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  • How can I get bitfields to arrange my bits in the right order?

    - by Jim Hunziker
    To begin with, the application in question is always going to be on the same processor, and the compiler is always gcc, so I'm not concerned about bitfields not being portable. gcc lays out bitfields such that the first listed field corresponds to least significant bit of a byte. So the following structure, with a=0, b=1, c=1, d=1, you get a byte of value e0. struct Bits { unsigned int a:5; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); (Actually, this is C++, so I'm talking about g++.) Now let's say I'd like a to be a six bit integer. Now, I can see why this won't work, but I coded the following structure: struct Bits2 { unsigned int a:6; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); Setting b, c, and d to 1, and a to 0 results in the following two bytes: c0 01 This isn't what I wanted. I was hoping to see this: e0 00 Is there any way to specify a structure that has three bits in the most significant bits of the first byte and six bits spanning the five least significant bits of the first byte and the most significant bit of the second? Please be aware that I have no control over where these bits are supposed to be laid out: it's a layout of bits that are defined by someone else's interface.

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  • Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

    - by Giffyguy
    I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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  • Core Data Inferred Migration – Automatic "lightweight" vs Manual

    - by ohhorob
    I've updated the model of an existing iPhone app in some simple ways (remove attribute, add attribute, remove index), and can use automatic lightweight migration to migrate the persistent store. Due to the typical size of the data set, the processing time is not insignificant, and warrants feedback for the user. NSMigrationManager provides a simple but useful migrationProgress value that sends KVO notifications as the migration is performed. That forms the basis of providing feedback, however attempting to use an inferred model ([NSMappingModel inferredMappingModelForSourceModel:destinationModel:error:]) results in drastically different timing for the exact same dataset. Profile results on and original iPhone (2G) Automatic inferred lightweight migration PROFILE: CacheManager -migrateStore PROFILE: 0.6130 (+0.6130) models loaded PROFILE: 1.1759 (+0.5629) delegate -CacheManagerWillMigrate: PROFILE: 1.2516 (+0.0757) persistent store coordinator loaded PROFILE: 5.1436 (+3.8920) automatic lightweight migration completed PROFILE: 5.5435 (+0.3999) delegate -CacheManagerDidFinishMigration:withError: Manual inferred migration PROFILE: CacheManager -migrateStore PROFILE: 0.6660 (+0.6660) models loaded PROFILE: 1.1471 (+0.4811) inferred mapping model generated PROFILE: 1.4046 (+0.2574) delegate -CacheManagerWillMigrate: PROFILE: 1.5058 (+0.1013) persistent store coordinator loaded PROFILE: 22.6952 (+21.1894) manual migration completed PROFILE: 23.1478 (+0.4525) delegate -CacheManagerDidFinishMigration:withError: So, with an inferred model, the manual migration takes over 5 times longer than automatic! It's a big inconsistency, and the lightweight option that NSPersistentStoreCoordinator -addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:URL:options:error: provides absolutely no indication of progress while processing. Can anybody provide a supported way to get the migrationProgress values during automatic migration, OR a way to configure an inferred mapping model to be as fast during manual processing as automatic?

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 Forms Authentication cookieless = "UseUri" while submit authorization fails

    - by rintoantony
    hi, I just started working with ASP.Net MVC 2. I created a new ASP.Net MVC application and created one vehicle controler with a database table connected with LINQ. Then created forms authentication mechanism for the application and tried to use the uri instead of cookies it was working smoothly but when i submit the form by creating a "Create" view from the controler using the utility it just dont work. The autherization got failed and asking to enter the user name and password again.I had created the authorization mechanism by adding Authorise attribute to the Controller so as to get authorized for all the actions. namespace MVCNEW.Controllers { [Authorize] public class VehicleController : Controller { But if i use the cookies instead of uri it works fine. Thanks in advance...

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  • How to not specify ruleset name when reading from config file?

    - by user102533
    When I read rules from a configuration file, I do something like this: IConfigurationSource configurationSource = new FileConfigurationSource("myvalidation.config"); var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator<Salary>(configurationSource); The config file looks like this: <ruleset name="Default"> <properties> <property name="Address"> <validator lowerBound="10" lowerBoundType="Inclusive" upperBound="15" upperBoundType="Inclusive" negated="false" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.StringLengthValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="String Length Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> My question is - is there a way to not specify the ruleset name? It's not required for me to specify a ruleset name if I am using the attribute approach and I can validate using: ValidationResults results = Validation.Validate(salary); Now when reading from config files, I have to specify the ruleset name. There is no overload of the CreateValidator method that accepts the configuration source without specifying the ruleset name. Also, the xml in the config file requires a name attribute for ruleset

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  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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  • ReturnUrl = Default.aspx for MVC?

    - by Cynthia
    I'm trying to secure my entire MVC site, so before the Home controller, I added an [Authorize] attribute. Now if you run it from Visual Studio or navigate using the root URL (e.g. http://localhost:2897) it does redirect to the login page, as expected. However the URL in the address bar after redirection looks like this: http://localhost:2897/Account/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fdefault.aspx%3f I haven't tested this out, seeing as I have not implemented my authentication code. However, this looks like a big problem to me, since I do not have a default.aspx in my project! My authentication tag in the web.config looks like this: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" defaultUrl="~/Home/Index" timeout="2880"/> </authentication> Why doesn't it pick up this route as the default ReturnUrl instead of default.aspx?

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  • Explicit localization problem

    - by X-Dev
    when trying to translate the confirmation message to Norwegian i get the following error: Cannot have more than one binding on property 'OnClientClick' on 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton'. Ensure that this property is not bound through an implicit expression, for example, using meta:resourcekey. i use Explicit localization in the following manner: <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkMarkInvoiced" runat="server" OnClick="lnkMarkInvoiced_OnClick" OnClientClick="<%# Resources: lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick%>" Visible="False" CssClass="stdtext" meta:resourcekey="lnkMarkInvoicedResource" ></asp:LinkButton> here's the local resource file entry: <data name="lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick" xml:space="preserve"> <value>return confirm('Er du sikker?');</value> if i remove the meta attribute i get the English text(default). how do i get the Norwegian text appearing without resorting to using the code behind? Update: removing the meta attribute prevents the exception from occurring but the original problem still exists. I can't get the Norwegian text to show. only the default English text shows. Another Update: I know this question is getting old but i still can't get the Norwegian text to display. If anyone has some tips please post a response.

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  • Recursive list of lists in XSL

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I have a recursive nodes that I'm trying to set up for jquery-checktree. The nodes look like foo/bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED /bar/ID /NAME /bar/ID /NAME /bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED /bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED Where any bar may or may not have one or more bar nodes below it, but any bar will have ID and NAME and might have a CHECKED. and I want to turn that into <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="..." value="..." checked="checked"></input> <label for="...">...</label> <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="..." value="..." checked="checked"></input> <label for="...">...</label> </li> </ul> <li>....</li> </ul> I can get the first level by doing: <ul class="tree"> <xsl:for-each select="/foo/bar/"> <li><input type="checkbox" name="{ID}" value="{ID}"> <xsl:if test="CHECKED = 'Y'"><xsl:attribute name="checked">checked</xsl:attribute></xsl:if> </input><label for="{ID}"><xsl:value-of select="NAME"/></label> </li> </xsl:for-each> </ul> But I don't know how to recurse down to the embedded "bar" within the "bar", down to however many levels there might be.

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  • How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

    - by Brecht Machiels
    Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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