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• shinken/nagios discriminative between warning alert and critical alert

  - by SWdream

  i using shinken for my monitoring system. Now, i have a problem when i configure shinken notification. My purpose is to discriminative between notification for warning state and critical state of check service: with warning state: + time to send alert from 8h = 18 h everyday, via email and sms + notification_interval is 60 minutes (Re-notify about service problems every hour) with critical state: + time to send alert : all time (24 x 7), via email and sms + notification_interval is 30 minutes Please show me how to solve my problem! I have tried the following: i configured: + contact templates: define contact{ name warning-contact ; The name of this contact template register 0 ; DONT REGISTER THIS DEFINITION - ITS NOT A REAL CONTACT, JUST A TEMPLATE! host_notifications_enabled 1 define contact{ service_notifications_enabled 1 email shinken@localhost can_submit_commands 1 notificationways email_warning, sms_warning } define contact{ name critical-contact ; The name of this contact template register 0 ; DONT REGISTER THIS DEFINITION - ITS NOT A REAL CONTACT, JUST A TEMPLATE! host_notifications_enabled 1 service_notifications_enabled 1 email shinken@localhost can_submit_commands 1 notificationways email_critical, sms_critical } + time poriod templates: define timeperiod{ timeperiod_name warning alias Normal Work Hours monday 08:00-18:00 tuesday 08:00-18:00 wednesday 08:00-18:00 thursday 08:00-18:00 friday 08:00-18:00 saturday 08:00-18:00 sunday 08:00-18:00 #exclude 24x7 } define timeperiod{ timeperiod_name 24x7 alias 24_Hours_A_Day,_7_Days_A_Week sunday 00:00-24:00 monday 00:00-24:00 tuesday 00:00-24:00 wednesday 00:00-24:00 thursday 00:00-24:00 friday 00:00-24:00 saturday 00:00-24:00 #exclude workhours } + notification way templates: define notificationway{ notificationway_name email_warning service_notification_period warning host_notification_period warning service_notification_options w host_notification_options d,u,r,f,s notification_interval 60 ; Resend notifications every 30 minutes service_notification_commands notify-service-by-email ; send service notifications via email host_notification_commands notify-host-by-email ; send host notifications via email } define notificationway{ notificationway_name email_critical service_notification_period 24x7 host_notification_period 24x7 service_notification_options c,r host_notification_options d,u,r,f,s notification_interval 30 ; Resend notifications every 30 minutes service_notification_commands notify-service-by-email ; send service notifications via email host_notification_commands notify-host-by-email ; send host notifications via email } define notificationway{ notificationway_name sms_warning service_notification_period warning host_notification_period warning service_notification_options w host_notification_options d,u,r,f,s notification_interval 60 ; Resend notifications every 30 minutes service_notification_commands notify-service-by-sms ; send service notifications via sms host_notification_commands notify-host-by-sms ; send host notifications via sms } define notificationway{ notificationway_name sms_critical service_notification_period 24x7 host_notification_period 24x7 service_notification_options c,r host_notification_options d,u,r,f,s notification_interval 30 ; Resend notifications every 30 minutes service_notification_commands notify-service-by-sms ; send service notifications via sms host_notification_commands notify-host-by-sms ; send host notifications via sms } + my contacts define contact{ use warning-contact contact_name thanhwarn email xxxx pager xxxx ; contact phone number } define contact{ use critical-contact contact_name thanhcritical email xxxxx pager 01689xxxx ; contact phone number } + and define service: define service{ use generic-service service_description check_ram host_name graphite contacts thanhcritical, thanhwarn check_command check_nrpe!check_ram } but my shinken system don't send alert. i don't understand this. please show me where I went wrong! thanks all!

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• Recognizing Dell EquilLogic with Nagios

  - by user3677595

  EDIT: All firmware and models are compatible, that is why nothing is posted about it. Okay, so there will be a lot here, so please bare with me. I've been working on this now for a few hours (reading manuals and such) so I'm not just coming here right out of the blue. I am working on a PRE-EXISTING Nagios server where there are several other existing plugins and checks running and working. Now I want to add another server there to check so I made the following modifications: First and foremost, I added a file to /usr/local/nagios/libexec named: check_equallogic.sh. The permissions are 755, the same as all others. I have chowned to nagios:nagios and in the listing it shows the Owner as Nagios. I then added a command to the commands.cfg file in \usr\local\nagios\etc\objects that shows the following: # 'check_equallogic' command definition define command{ command_name check_equallogic command_line $USER1$/check_equallogic -H $HOSTADDRESS$ -C $ARG1$ -t $ARG2$ $ARG3$ } Following this, I created a file named equallogic.cfg in the objects directory and it contains (more or less): define host{ use linux-server ; Inherit default values from a template host_name 172.16.50.11 ; The name we're giving to this device alias EqualLogic ; A longer name associated with the device address 172.16.50.11 ; IP address of the device contact_groups admins } Check Equallogic Information define service{ use generic-service host_name 172.16.50.11 service_description General Information check_command check_equallogic!public!info } After ensuring that permissions are okay for all files, I restart the nagios service, no errors. When I go into the WebGUI, I get the following errors AFTER the check runs: (Return code of 127 is out of bounds - plugin may be missing) Extra, probably unrelated problem Furthermore, when I log into the EquilLogic server, under Audit logs I get the following error: Level: AUDIT Time: 26/05/2014 3:59:13 PM Member: ps4100-1 Subsystem: agent Event ID: 22.7.1 SNMP packet validation failed, request received from 172.16.10.11 An snmpwalk receives a timeout, whereas others succeed. I will work on importing the MIBs tomorrow. The reason why I am mentioning it is because I want to make sure that it is only a MIB issue for the SNMP. If it is, then ignore this area. I am entirely unsure of what to do here.

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• Tool or script to detect moved or renamed files on Linux prior to a backup

  - by Pharaun

  Basically I am searching to see if there exists a tool or script that can detect moved or renamed files so that I can get a list of renamed/moved files and apply the same operation on the other end of the network to conserve on bandwidth. Basically disk storage is cheap but bandwidth isn't, and the problem is that the files often will be reorganized or moved around into a better directory structure thus when you use rsync to do the backup, rsync won't notice that its a renamed or moved file and re-transmission it over the network all over again despite having the same file on the other end. So I am wondering if there exists a script or tool that can record where all the files are and their names, then just prior to a backup, it would rescan and detect moved or renamed files, then I can take that list and re-apply the move/rename operation on the other side. Here's a list of the "general" features of the files: Large unchanging files They can be renamed or moved around [Edit:] These all are good answers, and what I end up doing in the end was looking at all of the answers and will be writing some code to deal with this. Basically what I am thinking/working on now is: Using something like AIDE for the "initial" scan and enable me to keep checksums on the files because they are supposed to never change, so it would aid on detecting corruption. Creating an inotify daemon that would monitor these files/directory and recording any changes relating to renames & moving the files around to a log file. There are some edge cases where inotify might fail to record that something happened to the file system, thus there is a final step of using find to search the file system for files that has a change time latter than the last backup. This has several benefits: Checksums/etc from AIDE to be able to check/make sure that some media did not get corrupt Inotify keeps resource usage low and no need to re-scan the filesystem over and over No need to patch rsync; If I have to patch things I can, but I would prefer to avoid patching things to keep the burden lower, (IE don't need to re-patch everytime there is an update). I've used Unison before and its really nice, however I could've sworn that Unison does keep copies around on the filesystem and that its "archive" files can grow to be rather large?

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• Postfix issues sending mail to addresses under domain located on server

  - by iamthewit

  I recently installed virtualmin on my nice shiny new rackspace cloud. Everything went seemlessly but I've been having some issues getting emails to send properly. The problem seems to be that the server can not send mail to email addresses where the domain is owned by my server. For example, on my server I run multiple virtual domains, lets call this one test.com. When I run the mail command from shell (mail [email protected]) I get the following back from my maillog: Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/pickup[8737]: DC1131612CC: uid=0 from= Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/cleanup[8769]: DC1131612CC: [email protected] Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/qmgr[8738]: DC1131612CC: [email protected], size=353, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/error[8771]: DC1131612CC: [email protected], relay=none, delay=0, delays=0/0/0/0, dsn=5.0.0, status=bounced (User unknown in virtual alias table) Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/cleanup[8769]: DD07D1612D1: [email protected] Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/bounce[8772]: DC1131612CC: sender non-delivery notification: DD07D1612D1 Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/qmgr[8738]: DD07D1612D1: from=<, size=2268, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/qmgr[8738]: DC1131612CC: removed Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/local[8773]: DD07D1612D1: [email protected], relay=local, delay=0.03, delays=0/0/0/0.03, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (delivered to command: /usr/bin/procmail-wrapper -o -a $DOMAIN -d $LOGNAME) Oct 6 14:55:18 test postfix/qmgr[8738]: DD07D1612D1: removed when I run mail [email protected] the message is sent and received perfectly fine. I'm a bit of a noob when it comes to servers, but I pick things up fairly quickly, so please excuse any incorrect terminology and my general noobiness. Any help would be greatly appreciated, I've been googling for quite a while but I haven't found a solution yet, I'll add a copy of my main.cf file in a response below cheers guys here is the reformatted postconf, do you want the reformatted main.cf file too, or is this enough? alias_database = hash:/etc/postfix/aliases alias_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/aliases broken_sasl_auth_clients = yes command_directory = /usr/sbin config_directory = /etc/postfix daemon_directory = /usr/libexec/postfix debug_peer_level = 2 home_mailbox = Maildir/ html_directory = no mailbox_command = /usr/bin/procmail-wrapper -o -a $DOMAIN -d $LOGNAME mailq_path = /usr/bin/mailq.postfix manpage_directory = /usr/share/man myhostname = server.test.com newaliases_path = /usr/bin/newaliases.postfix readme_directory = /usr/share/doc/postfix-2.3.3/README_FILES sample_directory = /usr/share/doc/postfix-2.3.3/samples sender_bcc_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/bcc sendmail_path = /usr/sbin/sendmail.postfix setgid_group = postdrop smtpd_recipient_restrictions = permit_mynetworks permit_sasl_authenticated reject_unauth_destination smtpd_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtpd_sasl_security_options = noanonymous unknown_local_recipient_reject_code = 550 virtual_alias_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/virtual

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• Diff 2 files while ignoring parts of lines

  - by Millianz

  I would like to diff a file system. Currently my bash script prints out the file system recursively into a file (ls -l -R) and diffs it with an expected output. An example for a line in this file would be: drw---- 100000f3 00000400 0 ./foo/ My current diff command is diff "$TEMP_LOG" "$DIFF_FILE_OUT" --strip-trailing-cr --changed-group-format='%' --unchanged-group-format='' "$SubLog" As you can see I ignore additional lines in the current output file, I only care about lines that match with the master output. I now have the problem though that some files may differ in size, or a folder might even have a different name, but due to it's location I know what access rights it should have. For example: Output: ------- 00000000 00000000 528 ./foo/bar.txt Master: ------- 00000000 00000000 200 ./foo/bar.txt Only the size differs here, and it doesn't matter, I would like to just ignore certain parts of the diff, kind of like an ansi c comment. Master: ------- 00000000 00000000 /*200*/ ./foo/bar.txt -- OR -- Master: d------ 00000000 00000000 /*10*/ ./foo//*123123*///*76456546*//bar.txt Output: d------ 00000000 00000000 0 ./foo/asd/sdf/bar.txt And still have it diff correctly. Is this even possible with diff, or will I have to write a custom script for it? Since I'm fairly new to cygwin I might be using the completely wrong tool all together, I'm happy for any suggestions. Update: Taking a step back, here is the general task at hand that I want to achieve. I want to write a script that checks the file system to see if the read/write permissions are set up correctly. The structure of the file system is under my control, so I don't have to worry about it changing too much. Sometimes folders/files might not be present, but if they are their permissions must be checked. For Example assume that the following is a snapshot of the current file system structure drw ./foo drw ./foo/bar -rw ./foow/bar/bar.txt drw ./foo/baz -rw ./foo/baz/baz.txt And this is what the file system structure might dictate, i.e. if these folders / files are present, the permissions must match. drw ./foo drw ./foo/bar -rw ./foo/bar/bar.txt --- ./foo/bar/foobar.txt drw ./foo/baz -rw ./foo/baz/foobaz.txt In this case the file system checked out ok, since all files present match their expected values. The situation becomes more complicated as soon as certain folders might have any arbitrary name, only due to their location I know what their permissions should be. Assume that the directory ./foo/bar in the above example might be such a case, i.e. instead of bar the folder could have any name, but still match the -rw permissions. This seems like a very complicated situation, and I'm not even sure if I can solve it with bash scripting alone. I might have to write an actual application.

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• Can you set up a gaming LAN using OpenVPN installed in a VMware guest OS and be playing the game on the host OS?

  - by Coder

  I would like to setup a gaming VPN. Ie. I have some games that work over LAN and would like to play them with people that are not on my LAN. I know I can do this with OpenVPN. My ultimate goal would be to run OpenVPN portably on my host OS and not even need any virtualization. As such i don't want to install it on my host, but i'm fine with running it portably. I'm even fine with temporarily adding registry keys, and then running a .reg file to remove these entries once i'm done. To this effect i have installed OpenVPN on a virtual machine and diffed the registry. I then manually (using a .reg file) added all the keys that seem important on my host OS and copied the installation folder of OpenVPN onto my host machine. Then i try to run openVPN GUI 1.0.3 as a test and it says "Error opening registy for reading (HKLM\SOFTWARE\OpenVPN). OpenVPN is probably not installed". I verified that that key is indeed in the registry with all subkeys and it looks correct. I have tried running the GUI as an administrator and in compatibility mode with no success. I am running Windows 7. If this fails then i would be happy with installing OpenVPN on a virtual machine in VMWare but they key is that i will be running the game installed on my host machine. The first question for this option is if this is even possible. The second is, that I can't get the VM to have internet access if I use bridging but i can if i use NAT. Is it possible to do this game VPN setup with VMWare guest OS running using NAT? Summary of questions: -Is it possible to run openVPN portably and if so what did i miss above? -If it's not possible to run it portably, then can setup a gaming LAN by installing OpenVPN in a guest OS with NAT and how can i do this? -If the above is not possible then can i install OpenVPN in a guest using bridging and if so how can i set this up with a Windows 7 host and Windows XP guest as currently i can't get the guest to be able to access the internet in bridging mode, but it working in NAT mode. -In general is there any good documentation on setting up a gaming LAN with OpenVPN (i am using 2.1.4) as i have never set up a VPN of any sort before so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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• I am starting to think that Prevx.com isnt a legit site...but heres my long-winded question

  - by cop1152

  I apologize in advance for the long-winded post. I posted it all because I believe its informative and may be useful. Also, I posted my question at the end. Moments ago I was RDC to a file server in my home (from inside my home). I had opened Firefox and Googled for a manufacturers website. Immediately after clicking the link, Firefox abruptly closed. This seemed odd to me to so I checked the running processes and discovered d.exe, e.exe, and f.exe running. I Googled these processes on a different machine and found them belonging to a key-logger/screen-capturer/trojan called defender.exe, which according to the Prevx lives in c:\documents and settings\user\local settings\temp. (Prevx link http://www.prevx.com/filenames/147352809685142526-X1/DEFENDER32.EXE.html) Simultaneously, an obviously-spoofed Windows Firewall popup appeared on the server asking me to click ‘yes’ to update Windows Firewall. At this time I ended all rogue processes, emptied the temp folder, removed defender.exe from startup, and checked my registry and a few other locations. Before deleting Defender.exe I noted that it was created moments ago, just before Firefox crashed. I believe that I was ‘almost’ infected with this malware. I believe that it needed me to click the phony popup in order to complete infection because it wasn’t allowed to execute processes from the temp folder. After cleaning the machine, I restarted it and have been monitoring it for over an hour. I am debating on whether or not to restore the Windows partition (a separate physical drive from the data) or to just watch it for awhle. I should mention that, because of the specs on this machine, I do not run antivirus software, but I know it well and inspect it regularly. It is a very old Compaq with a 400mhz processer and 512mb of ram. I have a static IP and the server is in the DMZ running an FTP client and some HTTP server software. All files transferred to and stored on this machine are scanned for malware before transferring. Usually the machine only runs 19 processes and performs pretty well for its intended purpose. I posted the story so that you could be aware of a possible new piece of malware and how it acts, but I also have a question or two. First, over the last few months I have noticed that PREVX is listed at the top of most of my Google searches when researching malware, especially for new or obscure malware…and they always want you to purchase something. I don’t think they are one of the top AV companies, so it seems odd that they are always the top Google result. Does anyone have any experience with any of their products? Also, what sites do you rely on for malware researching? Recently, I have found it difficult to find good info because of HijackThis-logs and other deadend info cluttering up my searches. And lastly, besides antivirus, third-party firewall, etc, what settings would you use to lock down a machine to make it more secure in instances where a stubborn admin like myself refuses to run AV? Thanks.

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• Google analytics and multiple independent subdomains

  - by MTilsted

  I need some help trying to setup google analytics correct. Here is my setup: We host sites for multiple customers, and each customer have their own subdomain on our site. So we have customerA.oursite.com and customerB.oursite.com As we add more customers we get more subdomains. We do want to track all data for each customer independent, but I don't want to to create a new google tracking code for each new customer. So my plan is to track all visits with "oursite.com", and then I will create a filter in google Analytics to get data for each specific customer(All visits for a specific subdomain). Is this(One tracking code, and a subdomain filter) the right way to do it? To create a subdomain filter i add a new profile for each customer, and then add a custom filter saying include "Request URI" and fill in "CustomerDomain.oursite.com". Is this the correct way to do it? And a general question about filters: Is it really impossible to create a new filter by applying it to data in an existing profile? I would really like to just collect all the data in one "main" profile and then create subdomain filters as we need them. But it seems that google only apply filters to new incomming data, not existing data. Is this really true? The following is my tracking code. Is '_setDomainName','none' the right thing to do? <script type="text/javascript"> /* Tracking code for qrtown.com */ var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-11584298-10']); _gaq.push(['_setDomainName', 'none']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); </script>

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• Linux Best Practices

  - by Zac

  I'm a life-long Windows developer switching over to Linux for the first time, and I'm starting off with Ubuntu to ease the learning curve. My new laptop will primarily be a development machine: 6GB RAM, 320 GB HD. I'd like there to be 2 non-root users: (a) Development, which will always be me, and (b) Guest, for anyone else. I assume the root user is added by default, like System Administrator in Windows. (1) I'd like to mount /home to its own partition, but how does this work if I have two user accounts (Development and Guest)? Are there 2 separate /home directories, or do they get shared? Is it possible to allocate more space for Development and only a tiny bit of space for Guest in GRUB2? How?!?! (2) I'm assuming that its okay that all of my development tools (Eclipse & plugins, SVN, JUnit, ant, etc.) and Java will end up getting installed in non-/home directories such as /usr and /opt, but that my Eclipse/SVN workspace will live under my /home directory on a separate partition... any problems, issues, concerns with that? (3) As far as partitioning schemes, nothing too complicated, but not plain Jane either: Boot Partition, 512 MB, in case I want to install other OSes Ubuntu & non-/home file system, 187.5 GB Swap Partition, 12 GB = RAM x 2 /home Partition, 120 GB I don't have any bulky media data (I don't have music or video libraries, this is a lean and mean dev machine) so having 320 GB is like winning the lottery and not knowing what to do with all this space. I figured I'd give a little extra space to the OS/FS partition since I'll be running JEE containers locally and doing a lot of file IO, logging and other memory-instensive operations. Any issues, problems, concerns, suggestions? (4) I was thinking about using ext4; seems to have good filestamping without any space ceiling for me to hit. Any other suggestions for a dev machine? (5) I read somewhere that you need to be careful when you install software as the root user, but I can't remember why. What general caveats do I need to be aware of when doing things (installing packages, making system configurations, etc.) as root vs "Development" user? Thanks!

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• Managing hosts and iptables in scalable architecture

  - by hakunin

  Let's say I have a load balancer in front of 3 app servers. Let's say I also have these services available at certain IPs: Postgres server Redis server ElasticSearch server Memcached server 1 Memcached server 2 Memcached server 3 So that's 6 nodes at 6 different IP addresses. Naturally, every one of my 3 app servers needs to talk to these 6 servers above. Then, to make it a bit funkier, I also have 3 worker servers. And each worker also talks to the above 6 servers, but thankfully workers and apps never need to talk to each other. Now's the kicker. Everything is on Digital Ocean VPS. What that means is: you have no private network, no private IPs. You only have separate, random IP address on each machine. You can't mask them or anything. So in order to build a secure environment I would have to configure some iptables. For example: Open app servers be accessed by load balancer server Open redis, ES, PG, and each memcached servers to be accessed by each app's IP and each worker's IP This means that every time I add an app or worker I have to also reconfigure iptables in those above 6 servers to welcome the new app or worker. Is there a way to simplify this type of setup? I was thinking — what if there was a gateway machine between apps/workers and the above 6 machines. This way all the interaction would always happen via the gateway server, and when I add a new app or worker I wouldn't need to teach the 6 servers to let it in. If I went this route, then I'd hope a small 512mb server could handle that perhaps, and there wouldn't be almost any overhead. Or would there? Please help with best way to handle this situation. I would appreciate an answer as concrete as possible. I don't think this is too specific, because this general architecture is very common, and Digital Ocean is becoming increasingly popular. A concrete solution here would be much appreciated by many.

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• Why would a process monitoring script use exit 1; on finding no problems?

  - by user568458

  General question: On a Linux (Centos) server, if a process monitoring script run by cron is set to close with exit 1; rather than exit 0; on finding that everything is okay and that no action is needed, is that a mistake? Or are there legitimate reasons for calling exit 1; instead of exit 0; on the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition? exit 0; on finding no problems seems to me to be more appropriate. But maybe there's something I'm not aware of. For example, maybe there's something specific to Cron? Or maybe there's a convention in process monitoring scripts that 'failure' means 'this script failed to need to fix a problem' (rather than what I would expect which is that exit 1; would mean 'the process being monitored has failed'?) My specific case: I'm looking at a process monitoring script written by my web hosting company. By process monitoring script, I mean a script executed by Cron on a regular basis that checks if an important system process is running, and if it isn't running, takes actions such as mailing an administrator or restarting the process. Here's the (generalised) structure of their script, for a service running on port 8080 (in this case, Apache Tomcat): SERVICE=$(/usr/sbin/lsof -i tcp:8080 | wc -l); if [ $SERVICE != 0 ]; then exit 1; else #take action fi Seems simple enough even for someone with limited knowledge like me, except the exit 1; part seems odd. As I understand it, exit 0; closes a program and signifies to the parent that executed the program that everything is fine, exit n; where n0 and n<127 signifies that there has been some kind of error or problem. Here, their script seems to go against that rule - it calls exit 1; in the condition where everything is fine, and doesn't exit after taking remedial action in the problem condition. To me, this looks like a mistake - but my experience in this area is limited. Are there cases where calling exit 1; in the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition is more appropriate than calling exit 0;? Or is it a mistake? Wider context is pretty simple. It's a Centos VPS, running Plesk. The script is being called by Cron via Plesk's "Scheduled tasks" Cron manager. There's no custom layer between Cron and this script that would respond in an unusual way to the exit call. It's a fairly average, almost out-of-the box Plesk-managed Centos VPS (in so far as there is such a thing). The process being monitored by this script is Apache Tomcat.

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• How to install Delorme StreetAtlas (any version) + GPS inside VirtualBox VM?

  - by hotei

  When I try to run the install program I get a popup message that says the installer program is not a valid executable. Background: I want a GPS with maps on my laptop running Ubuntu 10.4LTS. Unfortunately I can't find a decent native Linux GPS solution with 50 state US street level coverage. I have VirtualBox VMs available for WinXP and Win7 (among others). The VMs work fine with MicroSoft Streets and Trips (2010) and MapNGo 5 (a very! old Delorme product), but while both these products support GPS, they don't support the Earthmate LT-40 USB GPS I already have. I've got pretty much every Delorme Street Atlas they've released in the last decade and none of them will install in a VM. Any help would be much appreciated. Clarification: I've installed the Delorme products from these CDs before and the disks are fine - as long as installation is done on a "physical" machine. Added: I've tried install from an iso as well as the real CD. No difference in result (setup.exe is not a valid executable) The WinXP is SP-2 (held back on purpose at this point - I'll snapshot and fork a later SP to test). The Win2K is SP-6a. Win7(32) VM is whatever updates came out last week. The USB setup is working at least to the point where the GPS device is active in the device list (has an x in the box). At this point its not relevant because the program that needs to read it can't even be installed. Added 9-19: Added wine as harrymc suggested. Initial result was no change. Here's wines error message. The file '/media/Disk1/setup.exe' is not marked as executable. If this was downloaded or copied form an untrusted source, it may be dangerous to run. For more details, read about the executable bit. At first I thought the execute bit was the problem, but looking at several other windows CDs I see that the execute bit is not set on their exe files (which install to VM without error). Still it was worth a shot so I copied the StreetAtlas 9 DVD to my hard disk, changed the on-disk exe files to have the execute bit set and tried to install again. This time the install via wine got me through the installation process. When I start the program it bombs immediately, so we haven't made much real progress so far. I very much prefer the VM solution to wine, so I'm going back to that for now. To recap the VM situation, using an updated XP with SP3 and all recommended hotfixes: StreetAtlas 2009 USA fails with "not marked as executable". StreetAtlas 2007 USA fails with "not marked as executable". StreetAtlas 9 (copyright 2001) fails with "not marked as executable". SteeetAtlas (copyright 1991) fails with "not marked as executable" Delorme Topo 4 (copyright 2002) fails with "not marked as executable". Just about ready to give up. So I switched from XP VM to Win7 VM and tried StreetAtlas 2009 again. This time it installs. Earthmate USB GPS works. WTH? I feel like the monkey who just wrote a line of Shakespear. I'm smiling because it worked, but I have no clue why. I'm awarding the bounty to harrymc because wine did give some useful insight into the problem and a +1 to goyiux as thanks for helping.

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• Cooling Server Rack with Water? Sensible? Reuse energy for small installation?

  - by TomTom

  First - this is not a shopping question, this is not so much about concrete prices but about general feasibility. Makes no sense to get looking fo ra manufacturer it the approach is bad. I am moving my company to new Offices in September, and among them we will expand and consolidate our number crunch cluster. It is so far in a data center. I have a nice room in the basement prepared now. I think about cooling. We will likely run up a power usage of around 10kw by end of the year. That is a LOT of stuff, and cooling will be expensive. I am located in south Poland, close to the German border. This is an area where water is available for relatively cheap price - "wasting water" is not a concern here. My situation is thus a lot different for example than in Spain ;) Physics tells me that to heat 1 liter of water by 1 degree I use 1 Calorie (1KCal), and a kwh power is (and we can assume 100% efficiency - water heaters are pretty efficient) 750 Calories. That means that 1 KWH is 750 liter by 1 degree. 10kw and a 20 degree heat would mean that per hour I need 375 liters. That is 6.25 liters per minute and not WHAT much ;) We talk 270 cubic meters here. Even in summer, the significant underground pipes really cool down the water a LOT more ;) Question: This such an approach feasible? Anyone done that? We talk of a 10kw installation for now. Is it feasible to reuse that heat? The alternative is a decent cooling system that WILL use around 2.5kwh for running. Dropping the water would basically (a) get me a quite cold input compared to the outside air even in summer (I.e. a lower temperature medium to drop the heat in) and (b) replace the need to actually have the outside cooling (which may b problematic - if the air is 22 degree, that is a LOT to fight off, but OTOH the water will be quite cold). I also would possibly save the investment for the outside part of the cooling circuit. Now, second question - is there a feasible way to heat a house with that? ;) After all, brutally speaking, it is a LOT of energy in that water ;) If it is a bad idea, I stop here - if it is not, I start looking for suppliers. Maybe my math is wrong?

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• How do I connect my Windows XP laptop to the internet?

  - by rubysiddhi

  Hello fellow super users, The Past I have a Acer Travelmate 2300 laptop running Windows XP. 6 months ago I moved into a new apartment and got a new internet connection set up. After getting an internet connection installed in my apartment I reinstalled Windows XP and at the same time wiped my drive clean losing all the original Acer software and drivers. Once XP was reinstalled I had to find all the drivers again to get the Travelmate laptop connected to the internet. So, using my Vista laptop which was connected fine, I went to the Acer Travelmate Series drivers download page to download the necessary drivers. I transferred them to my Acer XP machine and installed them the best I could (there were no easy instructions so I just had to find all the executables and run them). I eventually got connected to the internet but not exactly in the way I had hoped for. The Present To be connected to the internet I need to have an Ethernet cord connecting my computer (via the Ethernet port) to my router. This is a problem since it defeats the purpose of having a Wireless LAN card in my Acer laptop. One of the programs I downloaded from the Acer Travelmate Series page was the Acer Wireless LAN Configuration Utility. This program allows me to see the current network I am connected to and all the available networks I could potentially connect to. It reminds me of XP's Wireless Network Connection window/utility where you can see all available wireless networks, refresh the network list and connect to one of the networks. I should mention that my ISP set up a security enabled wireless network with WPA. This network requires a network key if you want to connect to it. I guess my Vista computer has the network key entered into it already. The problem is that I do not know what the network key is. Now obviously you would say just contact my ISP to get the key. And I will but there is just one extra weird issue. I am able to connect to another unsecured wireless network in the Wireless Network Connection window/utility. I can be on it as long as my Ethernet cable is plugged in. So this is not really wireless is it? And this indicates that even if I do get that network key password from my ISP, I will only solve one of the two problems I have. I will only solve being able to get online as long as I am connected to my router via the Ethernet cable. The Main Questions So how do I enable my acer IPN2220 Wireless LAN Card so that I can use my Acer laptop from anywhere with in my apartment? Or should I first get the network key from my ISP to access my security enabled wireless network? And then deal with getting the acer IPN2220 Wireless LAN Card working? Hard & Learned VS Easy & Stupid Of course contacting the ISP would be easier. Have em just come in here and do there thing. The problem with that is that they do not speak English (yeah, im in Poland) and it'd be a hell of a time trying to understand what they are doing (uncomfortable looking over their shoulder). Also, I want to learn how to do this task myself so that I can fix the problem if it ever happens again. You know, be more self sufficient. I look forward to helpful replies. Thanks, Xaviour

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• [CentOS 4.8] nslookup resolves domains to IPs, but I can't get a response to pings to external servers

  - by Beco

  I have a fresh install of CentOS 4.8 running on an internal development server. I haven't done anything to it besides setting up sudoers and SSH. I can SSH into the server and from there resolve domains to IPs and ping internal servers, but for some reason I don't get any response from pinging external servers. The software firewall is disabled, and the problem is present with both static and DHCP-assigned network configurations. The network domain controller is a Windows Server 2003 box. $ nslookup google.com Server: 10.254.2.5 Address: 10.254.2.5#53 Non-authoritative answer: Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.147 Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.99 <etc...> 10.254.2.5 is the Win2K3 server. $ ping google.com PING google.com (74.125.47.106) 56(84) bytes of data. It just hangs here indefinitely. $ cat /etc/resolv.conf ; generated by /sbin/dhclient-script search <...snip...>.local nameserver 10.254.2.5 nameserver 10.254.2.124 10.254.2.124 is the backup DC server, which is currently off and tombstoned by this point. The snipped section is our company name. # ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr <snip> inet addr:10.254.2.101 Bcast:10.254.2.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: <snip>/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:80066 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:4421 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:7810133 (7.4 MiB) TX bytes:590550 (576.7 KiB) Interrupt:225 Base address:0xc000 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) TX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) # route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.254.2.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 10.254.2.5 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 And, for good measure, a snapshot of the current ethernet config via the system-config-network GUI. Edit: I don't yet have enough rep to post images, so here's a link. Sorry! system-config-network snapshot I'm pretty green when it comes to setting up *nix dev servers and network configuration in general, so please let me know if I've left out critical information, or posted information I shouldn't have posted. Thanks!

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• reading the file name from user input in MIPS assembly

  - by Hassan Al-Jeshi

  I'm writing a MIPS assembly code that will ask the user for the file name and it will produce some statistics about the content of the file. However, when I hard code the file name into a variable from the beginning it works just fine, but when I ask the user to input the file name it does not work. after some debugging, I have discovered that the program adds 0x00 char and 0x0a char (check asciitable.com) at the end of user input in the memory and that's why it does not open the file based on the user input. anyone has any idea about how to get rid of those extra chars, or how to open the file after getting its name from the user?? here is my complete code (it is working fine except for the file name from user thing, and anybody is free to use it for any purpose he/she wants to): .data fin: .ascii "" # filename for input msg0: .asciiz "aaaa" msg1: .asciiz "Please enter the input file name:" msg2: .asciiz "Number of Uppercase Char: " msg3: .asciiz "Number of Lowercase Char: " msg4: .asciiz "Number of Decimal Char: " msg5: .asciiz "Number of Words: " nline: .asciiz "\n" buffer: .asciiz "" .text #----------------------- li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg1 syscall li $v0, 8 la $a0, fin li $a1, 21 syscall jal fileRead #read from file move $s1, $v0 #$t0 = total number of bytes li $t0, 0 # Loop counter li $t1, 0 # Uppercase counter li $t2, 0 # Lowercase counter li $t3, 0 # Decimal counter li $t4, 0 # Words counter loop: bge $t0, $s1, end #if end of file reached OR if there is an error in the file lb $t5, buffer($t0) #load next byte from file jal checkUpper #check for upper case jal checkLower #check for lower case jal checkDecimal #check for decimal jal checkWord #check for words addi $t0, $t0, 1 #increment loop counter j loop end: jal output jal fileClose li $v0, 10 syscall fileRead: # Open file for reading li $v0, 13 # system call for open file la $a0, fin # input file name li $a1, 0 # flag for reading li $a2, 0 # mode is ignored syscall # open a file move $s0, $v0 # save the file descriptor # reading from file just opened li $v0, 14 # system call for reading from file move $a0, $s0 # file descriptor la $a1, buffer # address of buffer from which to read li $a2, 100000 # hardcoded buffer length syscall # read from file jr $ra output: li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg2 syscall li $v0, 1 move $a0, $t1 syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, nline syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg3 syscall li $v0, 1 move $a0, $t2 syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, nline syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg4 syscall li $v0, 1 move $a0, $t3 syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, nline syscall li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg5 syscall addi $t4, $t4, 1 li $v0, 1 move $a0, $t4 syscall jr $ra checkUpper: blt $t5, 0x41, L1 #branch if less than 'A' bgt $t5, 0x5a, L1 #branch if greater than 'Z' addi $t1, $t1, 1 #increment Uppercase counter L1: jr $ra checkLower: blt $t5, 0x61, L2 #branch if less than 'a' bgt $t5, 0x7a, L2 #branch if greater than 'z' addi $t2, $t2, 1 #increment Lowercase counter L2: jr $ra checkDecimal: blt $t5, 0x30, L3 #branch if less than '0' bgt $t5, 0x39, L3 #branch if greater than '9' addi $t3, $t3, 1 #increment Decimal counter L3: jr $ra checkWord: bne $t5, 0x20, L4 #branch if 'space' addi $t4, $t4, 1 #increment words counter L4: jr $ra fileClose: # Close the file li $v0, 16 # system call for close file move $a0, $s0 # file descriptor to close syscall # close file jr $ra Note: I'm using MARS Simulator, if that makes any different

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• Dynamic DataGrid columns in WPF DataGrid based on the underlying set of data (and their type)

  - by StatsMan

  Hello everyone, I've got kind of a conceptual question. I am in the process of wrapping some statistics classes I wrote into WPF. For that I have two DataGrid(-Views, currently in WinForms). In one DataGrid each row represents a column in the other. There I can set-up different variables (as in mathematical/statistical variables) with fields like "Header", "DataType", "ValidationBehaviour", "DisplayType". There I can also set-up how it should be displayed. Some Columns can automatically be set to ComboBoxColumns, some TextBoxColumns, and so on and so forth. So, now once I've set-up these Columns I can go to the other grid and enter my data. I may, for instance, have generated (in grid 1) one Column called "Annual Gross Salary" with input of numerical values. Another Column called "Education" with "0=NoEducation", "1=College Level", "3=Universitary" etc. These labels are displayed as text in the combobox and my statistics engine behind then selects the respective value (0-3) for calculations (i.e. ordinal, nominal variables). Sooo. In WinForms I could basically generate all the columns by hand in code and then add my data in the respective cells/rows. Now in WPF I thought that must be easy to realise. However, yesterday I got started with ICustomPropertyDescriptor which (maybe I was too thick) didn't give me the results I was looking for. Basically, I just need to be able to dynamically generate columns (and rows) with different Layout, Controls (ComboBox, simple Input, DateTimes) based on the data that I have. But I don't really know how to go about it? So here in summary: DataGrid 1 Purpose is to display columns that have been specified in DataGrid 2 In rows, the user can add any kind of data in the rows below the columns that is allowed as to the columns specifications DataGrid 2 Each row in this grid represents a column in DataGrid 1 Contains fields like Name/Header, DataType, Validation Behaviour, Default Value, Data Formatting, etc. Also contains a function to be able to set-up how it should be displayed. The user can select from, for instance, ComboBoxColumn (and also add the available options), DateTime, normal TextBox, CheckBox etc. After finishing adding a row it will automatically appear as a new column in DataGrid 1 I'd appreciate any kind of pointer into the right direction. Thanks very, very much in advance! :)

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• Computer science undergraduate project ideas

  - by Mehrdad Afshari

  Hopefully, I'm going to finish my undergraduate studies next semester and I'm thinking about the topic of my final project. And yes, I've read the questions with duplicate title. I'm asking this from a bit different viewpoint, so it's not an exact dupe. I've spent at least half of my life coding stuff in different languages and frameworks so I'm not looking at this project as a way to learn much about coding and preparing for real world apps or such. I've done lots of those already. But since I have to do it to complete my degree, I felt I should spend my time doing something useful instead of throwing the whole thing out. I'm planning to make it an open source project or a hosted Web app (depending on the type) if I can make a high quality thing out of it, so I decided to ask StackOverflow what could make a useful project. Situation I've plenty of freedom about the topic. They also require 30-40 pages of text describing the project. I have the following points in mind (the more satisfied, the better): Something useful for software development Something that benefits the community Having academic value is great Shouldn't take more than a month of development (I know I'm lazy). Shouldn't be related to advanced theoretical stuff (soft computing, fuzzy logic, neural networks, ...). I've been a business-oriented software developer. It should be software oriented. While I love hacking microcontrollers and other fun embedded electronic things, I'm not really good at soldering and things like that. I'm leaning toward a Web application (think StackOverflow, PasteBin, NerdDinner, things like those). Technology It's probably going to be done in .NET (C#, F#) and Windows platform. If I really like the project (cool low level hacking), I might actually slip to C/C++. But really, C# is what I'm efficient at. Ideas Programming language, parsing and compiler related stuff: Designing a domain specific programming language and compiler Templating language compiled to C# or IL Database tools and related code generation stuff Web related technologies: ASP.NET MVC View engine doing something cool (don't know what exactly...) Specific-purpose, small, fast ASP.NET-based Web framework Applications: Visual Studio plugin to integrate with Bazaar (it's too much work, I think). ASP.NET based, jQuery-powered issue tracker (and possibly, project lifecycle management as a whole - poor man's TFS) Others: Something related to GPGPU Looking forward for great ideas! Unfortunately, I can't help on a currently existing project. I need to start my own to prevent further problems (as it's an undergrad project, nevertheless).

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• FILESTREAM/FILETABLE Clarifications for Implementation

  - by user1209734

  Recently our team was looking at FILESTREAM to expand the capabilities of our proprietary application. The main purpose of this app is managing the various PDFS, Images and documents to all of the parts we manufacture. Our ASP application uses a few third party tools to allow viewing of these files. We currently have 980GB of data on the Fileserver. We have around 200GB of Binary data in SQL Server that we would like to extract since it is not performing well hence FILESTREAM seems to be a good compromise to the two major data storage/access issues. A few things are not exactly clear to us: FILESTREAM Can or Cannot store its data on a drive that is not locally attached. We already have a File Server with a RAID 10 (1.5TB drives). This server stores all of the documents right now, would we have to move these drives to the SQL Server for FILESTREAM? That would be a tough bullet to bite since the server also is doubling as the Application Server (Two VMs on one physical server). FILETABLE stores the common metadata about the files but where is the Full Text part of it stored to allow searching of files like doc/docx? Is this separate? Are you able to freely add criteria to this to search by? If so any links to clarify would be appreciated. Can FILETABLE be referenced in another table with a foreign key? Thank you in advance EDIT: For those having these questions this web video covered everything and more in terms of explaining filestream from 2008 to 2012 and the cavets to consider (I would seriously rep him if I could): http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechDays/Techdays-2012-the-Netherlands/2270 In conclusion we will not be using FILESTREAM as it would be way to huge of an upsurge to accommodate for investment. EDIT 2: Update to #1 - After carefully assessing FileTable in addition to FILESTREAM we got a winning combination. We did have to move the files over to the new server (wasn't to painful since they were on the same VM).It honestly took more time to write an extraction tool to dump the binary data within SQL to the File System. Update to #2 - This was seperate but again Bob had an excellent webinar explaining this: http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechEd/Europe/2012/DBI411 Update to #3 - Using TFT inheritance we recycled the Docs table we had (minus the huge binary blobs) which required very little changes in our legacy apps. This was a huge upshot for the developer team.

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• Landscape orientation for UITabBarController?

  - by gingersnap

  The UITabBarController does not allow landscape orientation. So I used a subclass of UITabBarContoller (called RotatingTabBarController). Its sole purpose it to allow rotation by returning YES to shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation call. The problem is that when you rotate the iPhone in simulator it gives the following malloc error. malloc: *** error for object 0x3888000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I am using 3.0 SDK with Xcode 3.2 on Snow Leopard. I set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break but I can not trace it back to my code. Is there something I can do to make this error go away? Here is the RotatingTabBarController class: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface RotatingTabBarController : UITabBarController { } @end @implementation RotatingTabBarController -(BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } @end Update: I tried the same with a category. But it gives the same malloc error. // UITabBarController+Rotation.h @interface UITabBarController (rotation) - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation; @end // UITabBarController+Rotation.m #import "UITabBarController+Rotation.h" @implementation UITabBarController (rotation) - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } @end Backtrace [Session started at 2009-09-05 12:13:19 -0400.] Untitled(992,0xa06d9500) malloc: *** error for object 0x2024000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Untitled(992,0xa06d9500) malloc: *** error for object 0x2014000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug [Session started at 2009-09-05 12:13:27 -0400.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1344) (Fri Jul 3 01:19:56 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".Attaching to process 992. sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all (gdb) bt #0 0x951908fa in mach_msg_trap () #1 0x95191067 in mach_msg () #2 0x30244d62 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific () #3 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode () #4 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal () #5 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun () #6 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain () #7 0x00002608 in main (argc=1, argv=0xbfffef94) at /Users/vishwas/Desktop/Untitled/main.m:13 (gdb)

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• How to setup named instances using StructureMap profiles?

  - by khaledh

  I've done quite a bit of googling and searching here on SO, but couldn't find a similar question or answer. In typical SM configuration you can add multiple named instances for a single PluginType: ForRequestedType<IFoo>() .AddInstances( x => { x.OfConcreteType<FooA>().WithName( "FooA" ); x.OfConcreteType<FooB>().WithName( "FooB" ); } ); No problem there. The problem is that I can't do the same when creating a profile. Most examples explaining how to use profiles use the For<>() method of the passed ProfileExpression: CreateProfile( "Default", p => { p.For<IFoo>().UseConcreteType<FooC>(); } ); I can't seem to find a way to add multiple named instances for the same PluginType as you can do above with regular configuration. The only other method available through ProfileExpression is Type<>(), but I'm not sure if it can be used for this purpose. Edit: I tried to use Type<>() instead of For<>() and it seems to be taking me in the right direction, but I bumped into another problem. To better explain it here's a better example of what I'm trying to do (this is what I posted to the structuremap-users group, no answer yet): ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.CreateProfile( "Nissan", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewNissanCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldNissanCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); x.CreateProfile( "Honda", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewHondaCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldHondaCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); } ); ObjectFactory.Profile = "Nissan"; ICar newCar = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ICar>( "New" ); // -> returns NewHondaCar ICar car = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ICar>(); // -> returns OldNissanCar So even though I set the profile to "Nissan", GetNamedInstance<>("New") returned an instance from the incorrect profile - it should've returned NewNissanCar instead of NewHondaCar. Interestingly, GetInstance<>() uses the correct profile, but because I can't pass an instance name, it returns an arbitrary concrete type from that profile that implements ICar (I guess it just returns the last concrete type added for that interface).

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• How do HttpOnly cookies work with AJAX requests?

  - by Shawn Simon

  JavaScript needs access to cookies if AJAX is used on a site with access restrictions based on cookies. Will HttpOnly cookies work on an AJAX site? Edit: Microsoft created a way to prevent XSS attacks by disallowing JavaScript access to cookies if HttpOnly is specified. FireFox later adopted this. So my question is: If you are using AJAX on a site, like StackOverflow, are Http-Only cookies an option? Edit 2: Question 2. If the purpose of HttpOnly is to prevent JavaScript access to cookies, and you can still retrieve the cookies via JavaScript through the XmlHttpRequest Object, what is the point of HttpOnly? Edit 3: Here is a quote from Wikipedia: When the browser receives such a cookie, it is supposed to use it as usual in the following HTTP exchanges, but not to make it visible to client-side scripts.[32] The HttpOnly flag is not part of any standard, and is not implemented in all browsers. Note that there is currently no prevention of reading or writing the session cookie via a XMLHTTPRequest. [33]. I understand that document.cookie is blocked when you use HttpOnly. But it seems that you can still read cookie values in the XMLHttpRequest object, allowing for XSS. How does HttpOnly make you any safer than? By making cookies essentially read only? In your example, I cannot write to your document.cookie, but I can still steal your cookie and post it to my domain using the XMLHttpRequest object. <script type="text/javascript"> var req = null; try { req = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) {} if (!req) try { req = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) {} if (!req) try { req = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) {} req.open('GET', 'http://beta.stackoverflow.com/', false); req.send(null); alert(req.getAllResponseHeaders()); </script> Edit 4: Sorry, I meant that you could send the XMLHttpRequest to the StackOverflow domain, and then save the result of getAllResponseHeaders() to a string, regex out the cookie, and then post that to an external domain. It appears that Wikipedia and ha.ckers concur with me on this one, but I would love be re-educated... Final Edit: Ahh, apparently both sites are wrong, this is actually a bug in FireFox. IE6 & 7 are actually the only browsers that currently fully support HttpOnly. To reiterate everything I've learned: HttpOnly restricts all access to document.cookie in IE7 & and FireFox (not sure about other browsers) HttpOnly removes cookie information from the response headers in XMLHttpObject.getAllResponseHeaders() in IE7. XMLHttpObjects may only be submitted to the domain they originated from, so there is no cross-domain posting of the cookies. edit: This information is likely no longer up to date.

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• Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

  - by Ashish Gupta

  I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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• Which functions in the C standard library commonly encourage bad practice?

  - by Ninefingers

  Hello all, This is inspired by this question and the comments on one particular answer in that I learnt that strncpy is not a very safe string handling function in C and that it pads zeros, until it reaches n, something I was unaware of. Specifically, to quote R.. strncpy does not null-terminate, and does null-pad the whole remainder of the destination buffer, which is a huge waste of time. You can work around the former by adding your own null padding, but not the latter. It was never intended for use as a "safe string handling" function, but for working with fixed-size fields in Unix directory tables and database files. snprintf(dest, n, "%s", src) is the only correct "safe strcpy" in standard C, but it's likely to be a lot slower. By the way, truncation in itself can be a major bug and in some cases might lead to privilege elevation or DoS, so throwing "safe" string functions that truncate their output at a problem is not a way to make it "safe" or "secure". Instead, you should ensure that the destination buffer is the right size and simply use strcpy (or better yet, memcpy if you already know the source string length). And from Jonathan Leffler Note that strncat() is even more confusing in its interface than strncpy() - what exactly is that length argument, again? It isn't what you'd expect based on what you supply strncpy() etc - so it is more error prone even than strncpy(). For copying strings around, I'm increasingly of the opinion that there is a strong argument that you only need memmove() because you always know all the sizes ahead of time and make sure there's enough space ahead of time. Use memmove() in preference to any of strcpy(), strcat(), strncpy(), strncat(), memcpy(). So, I'm clearly a little rusty on the C standard library. Therefore, I'd like to pose the question: What C standard library functions are used inappropriately/in ways that may cause/lead to security problems/code defects/inefficiencies? In the interests of objectivity, I have a number of criteria for an answer: Please, if you can, cite design reasons behind the function in question i.e. its intended purpose. Please highlight the misuse to which the code is currently put. Please state why that misuse may lead towards a problem. I know that should be obvious but it prevents soft answers. Please avoid: Debates over naming conventions of functions (except where this unequivocably causes confusion). "I prefer x over y" - preference is ok, we all have them but I'm interested in actual unexpected side effects and how to guard against them. As this is likely to be considered subjective and has no definite answer I'm flagging for community wiki straight away. I am also working as per C99.

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• How does this ajax call persist DOM changes in the browser cache?

  - by Greg

  For the purpose of the question I need to create a simple fictitious scenario. I have the following trivial page with one link, call it page A: <a class="red-anchor" onclick="change_color(event);" href="http://mysite.com/b/">B</a> With the associated Javascript function: function change_color(e) { var event = e || window.event; var link = event.target; link.className = "green-anchor"; } And I have the appropriate CSS to make the anchor red or green based on the classname. This is working. That is, when I click the anchor it changes color from red to green, which is briefly visible before the browser loads page B. But if I then use the BACK button to return to page A I get different behavior in different browsers. In Safari, the anchor is still green (desired behavior) In Firefox it reverts to red I imagine that Safari is somehow updating its cached version of the page, whereas Firefox isn't. So my first question is: is there any way to get FF to update the cached page, or is something else happening here? Secondly: I have a different implementation where I use an ajax call. In this I set the class of the anchor using a session variable, something like... <a class="<?php echo $_SESSION["color"]; ?>" ...[snip]... >B</a> And the javascript function makes an additional ajax call that changes the "color" session variable. In this case both Safari and Firefox work as expected. When going back from B to A the color is still green. But I can't for the life of me figure out why it should be different to the non-ajax case. I have tried many different permutations and for it to work on FF the "color" session variable MUST change (i.e. the ajax call itself is not somehow reloading the cache). But on coming BACK, the page is being reloaded from the cache (verified in Firebug), so how is the page even accessing this session variable if it isn't reprocessing the page and running that fragment of php in the anchor? I figure there must be something fundamental here that I am not understanding. Any insight would be much appreciated.

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