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  • WCF doesn't find client configuration

    - by ultraman69
    Hi ! I have a WCF service on server B. Then on the machine A is the client, which is a Windows service. In a separate dll stands all the business logic for this service. So my proxy for the WCF is on that side. I have 2 app.config (client side only) : 1 for the service and another one in the dll. So I tried (for test purpose) puting the servicemodel config section in both. Both still, it doesn't work, it says that it can't find the endpoint with that name and for that contract... What I'm trying to do here is modify the configuration programatically. Here' the code in the business layer dll : Dim ep As New EndpointAddress(New Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(nomServeurCible)), _ EndpointIdentity.CreateDnsIdentity(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("Identity_" & nomServeurCible))) serviceCible = New ServiceProxy.ExecOperClient("wsHttp", ep) And here is a sample of the config file : <add key="TEST1" value="http://TEST1:8000/MySpacePerso/ExecOperService"/> <add key="TEST1_CertificateSerialNumber" value="10 hj 6y 7b 00 01 32 12 01 21"/> <add key="Identity_TEST1" value="TEST1"/> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://SERV_NAME:8000/CSSTQDA/ExecOperService" binding="wsHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="myClientBehavior" bindingConfiguration="MybindingCon" contract="ExecOper.Service.IExecOper" name="wsHttp"> <identity> <dns value="SERV_CERT_NAME"/> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="MybindingCon"> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceTraitementBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="myClientBehavior"> <clientCredentials> <serviceCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="ChainTrust" revocationMode="NoCheck"/> </serviceCertificate> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors>

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  • Cannot complete a JSONP call from jQuery to WCF

    - by Dusda
    Okay, I am trying (poorly) to successfully make a JSONP call from jQuery on a test page to a WCF web service running locally, as a cross-domain call. I have, at one point or another, either gotten a 1012 URI denied error, gotten a response but in Xml, or just had no response at all. Currently, the way I have it configured it spits back a 1012. I did not write this web service, so it is entirely possible that I am just missing a configuration setting somewhere, but I've become so frustrated with it that I think just asking on here will be more productive. Thanks guys. Details below. I have a WCF web service with the following method: [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public decimal GetOrderStatusJson(int jobId) I am trying to call this method from a jQuery test page, via a cross-domain JSONP call. <script type="text/javascript"> getJsonAjaxObject( "http://localhost:3960/ProcessRequests.svc/json/GetOrderStatusJson", { "jobId": 232 }); function getJsonAjaxObject(webServiceUrl, jsonData) { var request = { type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: webServiceUrl, data: jsonData, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(msg) { //success! alert("blah"); }, error: function() { //oh nos alert("bad blah"); } }; $.ajax(request); } </script> Below are the chunks of the web.config I configure for this purpose: <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequestsBehavior" name="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequests"> <endpoint address="json" behaviorConfiguration="AspNetAjaxBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MWProcessRequestWCF.IProcessRequests" /> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MWProcessRequestWCF.IProcessRequests"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MWProcessRequestWCF.ProcessRequestsBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="AspNetAjaxBehavior"> <enableWebScript/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors>

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  • Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

    - by Casey Hope
    tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

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  • Reduce Multiple Errors logging in sysssislog

    - by Akshay
    Need help. I am trying to automate error notifications to be sent in mailers. For that I am querying the sysssislog table. I have pasted an "Execute SQl task" on the package event handler "On error". For testing purpose, I am deliberately trying to load duplicate keys in a table which consists of a Primary key column(so as to get an error). But instead of having just one error, "Violation of primary key constraint", SSIS records 3 in the table. PFA the screenshot as well. How can i restrict the tool to log only one error and not multiple ??? Package Structure. Package ("On error Event handler") - DFT - Oledb Source - Oledb Destination SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80004005. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "The statement has been terminated.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_SalesPerson_SalesPersonID'. Cannot insert duplicate key in object 'dbo.SalesPerson'.". SSIS Error Code DTS_E_INDUCEDTRANSFORMFAILUREONERROR. The "input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56)" failed because error code 0xC020907B occurred, and the error row disposition on "input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56)" specifies failure on error. An error occurred on the specified object of the specified component. There may be error messages posted before this with more information about the failure. SSIS Error Code DTS_E_PROCESSINPUTFAILED. The ProcessInput method on component "OLE DB Destination" (43) failed with error code 0xC0209029 while processing input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56). The identified component returned an error from the ProcessInput method. The error is specific to the component, but the error is fatal and will cause the Data Flow task to stop running. There may be error messages posted before this with more information about the failure. Please guide me. Your help is very much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Oracle Schema Design: Seperate Schema with I/O Overhead?

    - by Guru
    We are designing database schema for a new system based on Oracle 11gR1. We have identified a main schema which would have close to 100 tables, these will be accessed from the front end Java application. We have a requirement to audit the values which got changed in close to 50 tables, this has to be done every row. Which means, it is possible that, for a single row in MYSYS.T1 there might be 50 (or more) rows in MYSYS_AUDIT.T1_AUD table. We might be having old values of every column entry and new values available from T1. DBA gave an observation, advising against this method, because he said, separate schema meant an extra I/O for every operation. Basically AUDIT schema would be used only to do some analyse and enter values (thus SELECT and INSERT). Is it true that, "a separate schema means an extra I/O" ? I could not find justification. It appears logical to me, as the AUDIT data should not be tampered with, so a separate schema. Also, we designed a separate schema for archiving some tables from MYSYS. From MYSYS_ARC the table might be backed up into tapes or deleted after sufficient time. Few stats: Few tables (close to 20, 30) in MYSYS schema could grow to around 50M rows. We have asked for a total disk space of 4 TB. MYSYS_AUDIT schema might be having 10 times that of MYSYS but we wont keep them more than 3 months. Questions Given all these, can you suggest me any improvements? Separate schema affects disc I/O? (one extra I/O for every schema ?) Any general suggestions? Figure: +-------------------+ +-------------------+ | MYSYS | | MYSYS_AUDIT | | | | | | 1. T1 | | 1. T1_AUD | | 2. T2 | | 2. T2_AUD | | 3. T3 |--------->| 3. T3_AUD | | 4. T4 |(SELECT, | 4. T4_AUD | | . | INSERT) | . | | . | | . | | . | | . | | 100. T100 | | 50. T50_AUD | +-------------------+ +-------------------+ | | | | |(INSERT) | | | * +-------------------+ | MYSYS_ARC | | | | 1. T1_ARC | | 2. T2_ARC | | 3. T3_ARC | | 4. T4_ARC | | . | | . | | . | | 100. T100_ARC | +-------------------+ Apart from this, we have two more schemas with only read only rights, but mainly they are for adhoc purpose and we dont mind the performance on them.

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  • M-V-VM, isn't the Model leaking into the View?

    - by BFree
    The point of M-V-VM as we all know is about speraration of concerns. In patterns like MVVM, MVC or MVP, the main purpose is to decouple the View from the Data thereby building more flexible components. I'll demonstrate first a very common scenario found in many WPF apps, and then I'll make my point: Say we have some StockQuote application that streams a bunch of quotes and displays them on screen. Typically, you'd have this: StockQuote.cs : (Model) public class StockQuote { public string Symbol { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } } StockQuoteViewModel.cs : (ViewModel) public class StockQuoteViewModel { private ObservableCollection<StockQuote> _quotes = new ObservableCollection<StockQuote>(); public ObservableCollection<StockQuote> Quotes { get { return _quotes; } } } StockQuoteView.xaml (View) <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.DataContext> <local:StockQuoteViewModel/> </Window.DataContext> <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="listBoxDateTemplate"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Symbol}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Price}"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemTemplate="{StaticResource listBoxDateTemplate}" ItemsSource="{Binding Quotes}"/> </Grid> </Window> And then you'd have some kind of service that would feed the ObservableCollection with new StockQuotes. My question is this: In this type of scenario, the StockQuote is considered the Model, and we're exposing that to the View through the ViewModel's ObservableCollection. Which basically means, our View has knowledge of the Model. Doesn't that violate the whole paradigm of M-V-VM? Or am I missing something here....?

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  • architecture python question

    - by tom smith
    hi. creating a distributed crawling python app. it consists of a master server, and associated client apps that will run on client servers. the purpose of the client app is to run across a targeted site, to extract specific data. the clients need to go "deep" within the site, behind multiple levels of forms, so each client is specifically geared towards a given site. each client app looks something like main: parse initial url call function level1 (data1) function level1 (data) parse the url, for data1 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level2 (data) function level2 (data2) parse the url, for data2 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level3 function level3 (dat3) parse the url, for data3 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level4 function level4 (data) parse the url, for data4 use the required xpath to get the dom elements at the final function.. --all the data output, and eventually returned to the server --at this point the data has elements from each function... my question: given that the number of calls that is made to the child function by the current function varies, i'm trying to figure out the best approach. each function essentialy fetches a page of content, and then parses the page using a number of different XPath expressions, combined with different regex expressions depending on the site/page. if i run a client on a single box, as a sequential process, it'll take awhile, but the load on the box is rather small. i've thought of attempting to implement the child functions as threads from the current function, but that could be a nightmare, as well as quickly bring the "box" to its knees! i've thought of breaking the app up in a manner that would allow the master to essentially pass packets to the client boxes, in a way to allow each client/function to be run directly from the master. this process requires a bit of rewrite, but it has a number of advantages. a bunch of redundancy, and speed. it would detect if a section of the process was crashing and restart from that point. but not sure if it would be any faster... i'm writing the parsing scripts in python.. so... any thoughts/comments would be appreciated... i can get into a great deal more detail, but didn't want to bore anyone!! thanks! tom

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  • Phantomjs creating black output from SVG using page.render

    - by Neil Young
    I have been running PhantomJS 1.9.6 happily on a turnkey Linux server for about 4 months now. Its purpose is to take an SVG file and create different sizes using the page.render function. This has been doing this but since a few days ago has started to generate a black mono output. Please see below: The code: var page = require('webpage').create(), system = require('system'), address, output, ext, width, height; if ( system.args.length !== 4 ) { console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error need address, output, extension arguments\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error need address, output, extension arguments'); phantom.exit(1); } else if( system.args[3] !== "jpg" && system.args[3] !== "png"){ console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error \"jpg\" or \"png\" only please\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error "jpg" or "png" only please'); phantom.exit(1); } else { address = system.args[1]; output = system.args[2]; ext = system.args[3]; width = 1044; height = 738; page.viewportSize = { width: width, height: height }; //postcard size page.open(address, function (status) { if (status !== 'success') { console.log("{ \"result\": false, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: error loading address ["+address+"]\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: error loading address ['+address+'] '); phantom.exit(); } else { window.setTimeout(function () { //--> redner full size postcard page.render( output + "." + ext ); //--> redner smaller postcard page.zoomFactor = 0.5; page.clipRect = {top:0, left:0, width:width*0.5, height:height*0.5}; page.render( output + ".50." + ext); //--> redner postcard thumb page.zoomFactor = 0.25; page.clipRect = {top:0, left:0, width:width*0.25, height:height*0.25}; page.render( output + ".25." + ext); //--> exit console.log("{ \"result\": true, \"message\": \"phantomjs.rasterize: success ["+address+"]>>["+output+"."+ext+"]\" }"); //console.log('phantomjs.rasterize: success ['+address+']>>['+output+'.'+ext+']'); phantom.exit(); }, 100); } }); } Does anyone know what can be causing this? There have been no server configuration changes that I know of. Many thanks for your help.

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  • Best Practice: Legitimate Cross-Site Scripting

    - by Ryan
    While cross-site scripting is generally regarded as negative, I've run into several situations where it's necessary. I was recently working within the confines of a very limiting content management system. I needed to include database code within the page, but the hosting server didn't have anything usable available. I set up a couple barebones scripts on my own server, originally thinking that I could use AJAX to import the contents of my scripts directly into the template of the CMS (thus retaining dynamic images, menu items, CSS, etc.). I was wrong. Due to the limitations of XMLHttpRequest objects, it's not possible to grab content from a different domain. So I thought "iFrame" - even though I'm not a fan of frames, I thought that I could create a frame that matched the width and height of the content, so that it would appear native. Again, I was blocked by cross-site scripting "protections." While I could indeed load a remote file into the iFrame, I couldn't execute JavaScript to modify its size on either the host page or inside the loaded page. In this particular scenario, I wasn't able to point a subdomain to my server. I also couldn't create a script on the CMS server that could proxy content from my server, so my last thought was to use a remote JavaScript. A remote JavaScript works. It breaks when the user has JavaScript disabled, which is a downside; but it works. The "problem" I was having with using a remote JavaScript was that I had to use the JS function document.write() to output any content. Any output that isn't JS causes script errors. In addition to using document.write() for every line, you also have to ensure that the content is escaped - or else you end up with more script errors. My solution was as follows: My script received a GET parameter ("page") and then looked for the file ({$page}.php), and read the contents into a variable. However, I had to use awkward buffering techniques in order to actually execute the included scripts (for things like database interaction) then strip the final content of all line break characters ("\n") followed by escaping all required characters. The end result is that my original script (which outputs JavaScript) accesses seemingly "standard" scripts on my server and converts their standard output to JavaScript for displaying within the CMS template. While this solution works, it seems like there may be a better way to accomplish the same thing. What is the best way to make cross-site scripting work specifically for the purpose of including content from a completely different domain?

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  • compiler warning at C++ template base class

    - by eike
    I get a compiler warning, that I don't understand in that context, when I compile the "Child.cpp" from the following code. (Don't wonder: I stripped off my class declarations to the bare minuum, so the content will not make much sense, but you will see the problem quicker). I get the warning with VS2003 and VS2008 on the highest warning level. The code AbstractClass.h : #include <iostream> template<typename T> class AbstractClass { public: virtual void Cancel(); // { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; }; virtual void Process() = 0; }; //outside definition. if I comment out this and take the inline //definition like above (currently commented out), I don't get //a compiler warning template<typename T> void AbstractClass<T>::Cancel() { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; } Child.h : #include "AbstractClass.h" class Child : public AbstractClass<int> { public: virtual void Process(); }; Child.cpp : #include "Child.h" #include <iostream> void Child::Process() { std::cout << "Process" << std::endl; } The warning The class "Child" is derived from "AbstractClass". In "AbstractClass" there's the public method "AbstractClass::Cancel()". If I define the method outside of the class body (like in the code you see), I get the compiler warning... AbstractClass.h(7) : warning C4505: 'AbstractClass::Cancel' : unreferenced local function has been removed with [T=int] ...when I compile "Child.cpp". I do not understand this, because this is a public function and the compiler can't know if I later reference this method or not. And, in the end, I reference this method, because I call it in main.cpp and despite this compiler warning, this method works if I compile and link all files and execute the program: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Child.h" int main() { Child child; child.Cancel(); //works, despite the warning } If I do define the Cancel() function as inline (you see it as out commented code in AbstractClass.h), then I don't get the compiler warning. Of course my program works, but I want to understand this warning or is this just a compiler mistake? Furthermore, if do not implement AbsctractClass as a template class (just for a test purpose in this case) I also don't get the compiler warning...?

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  • How to designing a generic databse whos layout may change over time?

    - by mawg
    Here's a tricky one - how do I programatically create and interrogate a database who's contents I can't really foresee? I am implementing a generic input form system. The user can create PHP forms with a WYSIWYG layout and use them for any purpose he wishes. He can also query the input. So, we have three stages: a form is designed and generated. This is a one-off procedure, although the form can be edited later. This designs the database. someone or several people make use of the form - say for daily sales reports, stock keeping, payroll, etc. Their input to the forms is written to the database. others, maybe management, can query the database and generate reports. Since these forms are generic, I can't predict the database structure - other than to say that it will reflect HTML form fields and consist of a the data input from collection of edit boxes, memos, radio buttons and the like. Questions and remarks: A) how can I best structure the database, in terms of tables and columns? What about primary keys? My first thought was to use the control name to identify each column, then I realized that the user can edit the form and rename, so that maybe "name" becomes "employee" or "wages" becomes ":salary". I am leaning towards a unique number for each. B) how best to key the rows? I was thinking of a timestamp to allow me to query and a column for the row Id from A) C) I have to handle column rename/insert/delete. Foe deletion, I am unsure whether to delete the data from the database. Even if the user is not inputting it from the form any more he may wish to query what was previously entered. Or there may be some legal requirements to retain the data. Any gotchas in column rename/insert/delete? D) For the querying, I can have my PHP interrogate the database to get column names and generate a form with a list where each entry has a database column name, a checkbox to say if it should be used in the query and, based on column type, some selection criteria. That ought to be enough to build searches like "position = 'senior salesman' and salary 50k". E) I probably have to generate some fancy charts - graphs, histograms, pie charts, etc for query results of numerical data over time. I need to find some good FOSS PHP for this. F) What else have I forgotten? This all seems very tricky to me, but I am database n00b - maybe it is simple to you gurus?

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  • Need to optimize this PHP script for "recent posts". Fatal error when post count is high...

    - by Scott B
    The code below is resulting in an error on a site in which there are ~ 1500 posts. It performs fine when post count is nominal, however, this heavy load is exposing the weakness of the code and I'd like to optimize it. Interestingly, when I disable this menu and instead use the "Recent Posts" widget, the posts are drawn fine. So I'd probably do good to borrow from that code if I knew where to find it, or better yet, If I could call the widget directly in my theme, passing it a post count variable. Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 33554432 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 16384 bytes) in /home1/est/public_html/mysite/wp-includes/post.php on line 3462 The code is below. Its purpose is to list "recent posts". global $post; $cat=get_cat_ID('myMenu'); $cathidePost=get_cat_ID('hidePost'); $myrecentposts = get_posts(array('post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts'), 'cat' => "-$cat,-$cathidePost",'showposts' => $count-of-posts)); $myrecentposts2 = get_posts(array('post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts'), 'cat' => "-$cat,-$cathidePost",'showposts' => -1)); $myrecentpostscount = count($myrecentposts2); if ($myrecentpostscount > 0) { ?> <div class="recentPosts"><h4><?php if ($myHeading !=="") { echo $myHeading; } else { echo "Recent Posts";} ?></h4><ul> <?php $current_page_recent = get_post( $current_page ); foreach($myrecentposts as $idxrecent=>$post) { if($post->ID == $current_page_recent->ID) { $home_menu_recent = ' class="current_page_item'; } else { $home_menu_recent = ' class="page_item'; } $myclassrecent = ($idxrecent == count($myrecentposts) - 1 ? $home_menu_recent.' last"' : $home_menu_recent.'"'); ?> <li<?php echo $myclassrecent ?>><a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></li> <?php } ; if (($myrecentpostscount > $count-of-posts) && $count-of-posts > -1){ ?><li><a href="<?php bloginfo('url'); ?>/recent">View All Posts</a></li><?php } ?></ul></div>

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  • Execute SQL SP in Excel VBA

    - by TheOCD
    HI I am having problem with getting all the columns back when i execute following code in excel vba. I only get 6 out of 23 columns back. Connection, command etc works fine (i can see exec command in the SQL Profiler), data headers are created for all 23 columns but i only get data for 6 column. Side Note: it's not prod level code, have missed out error handling on purpose, sp works fine in SQL management studio, ASP.Net, C# win form app, it is for Excel 2003 connecting to SQL 2008. Can someone help me troubleshoot it? Dim connection As ADODB.connection Dim recordset As ADODB.recordset Dim command As ADODB.command Dim strProcName As String 'Stored Procedure name Dim strConn As String ' connection string. Dim selectedVal As String 'Set ADODB requirements Set connection = New ADODB.connection Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Set command = New ADODB.command If Workbooks("Book2.xls").MultiUserEditing = True Then MsgBox "You do not have Exclusive access to the workbook at this time." & _ vbNewLine & "Please have all other users close the workbook and then try again.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation Exit Sub Else On Error Resume Next ActiveWorkbook.ExclusiveAccess 'On Error GoTo No_Bugs End If 'set the active sheet Set oSht = Workbooks("Book2.xls").Sheets(1) 'get the connection string, if empty just exit strConn = ConnectionString() If strConn = "" Then Exit Sub End If ' selected value, if <NOTHING> just exit selectedVal = selectedValue() If selectedVal = "<NOTHING>" Then Exit Sub End If If Not oSht Is Nothing Then 'Open database connection connection.ConnectionString = strConn connection.Open ' set command stuff. command.ActiveConnection = connection command.CommandText = "GetAlbumByName" command.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc command.Parameters.Refresh command.Parameters(1).Value = selectedVal 'Execute stored procedure and return to a recordset Set recordset = command.Execute() If recordset.BOF = False And recordset.EOF = False Then Sheets("Sheet2").[A1].CopyFromRecordset recordset ' Create headers and copy data With Sheets("Sheet2") For Column = 0 To recordset.Fields.Count - 1 .Cells(1, Column + 1).Value = recordset.Fields(Column).Name Next .Range(.Cells(1, 1), .Cells(1, recordset.Fields.Count)).Font.Bold = True .Cells(2, 1).CopyFromRecordset recordset End With Else MsgBox "b4 BOF or after EOF.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If 'Close database connection and clean up If CBool(recordset.State And adStateOpen) = True Then recordset.Close Set recordset = Nothing If CBool(connection.State And adStateOpen) = True Then connection.Close Set connection = Nothing Else MsgBox "oSheet2 is Nothing.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If

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  • Cutom event dispatchment location

    - by Martino Wullems
    Hello, I've been looking into custom event (listeners) for quite some time, but never succeeded in making one. There are so many different mehods, extending the Event class, but also Extending the EventDispatcher class, very confusing! I want to settle with this once and for all and learn the appriopate technique. package{ import flash.events.Event; public class CustomEvent extends Event{ public static const TEST:String = 'test'; //what exac is the purpose of the value in the string? public var data:Object; public function CustomEvent(type:String, bubbles:Boolean = false, cancelable:Boolean = false, data:Object = null):void { this.data = data; super(); } } } As far as I know a custom class where you set the requirements for the event to be dispatched has to be made: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; public class TestClass extends MovieClip { public function TestClass():void { if (ConditionForHoldToComplete == true) { dispatchEvent(new Event(CustomEvent.TEST)); } } } } I'm not sure if this is correct, but it should be something along the lines of this. Now What I want is something like a mouseevent, which can be applied to a target and does not require a specific class. It would have to work something like this: package com.op_pad._events{ import flash.events.MouseEvent; import flash.utils.Timer; import flash.events.TimerEvent; import flash.events.EventDispatcher; import flash.events.Event; public class HoldEvent extends Event { public static const HOLD_COMPLETE:String = "hold completed"; var timer:Timer; public function SpriteEvent(type:String, bubbles:Boolean=true, cancelable:Boolean=false) { super( type, bubbles, cancelable ); timer = new Timer(1000, 1); //somehow find the target where is event is placed upon -> target.addEventlistener target.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, startTimer); target.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_UP, stopTimer); } public override function clone():Event { return new SpriteEvent(type, bubbles, cancelable); } public override function toString():String { return formatToString("MovieEvent", "type", "bubbles", "cancelable", "eventPhase"); } ////////////////////////////////// ///// c o n d i t i o n s ///// ////////////////////////////////// private function startTimer(e:MouseEvent):void { timer.start(); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, complete); } private function stopTimer(e:MouseEvent):void { timer.stop() } public function complete(e:TimerEvent):void { dispatchEvent(new HoldEvent(HoldEvent.HOLD_COMPLETE)); } } } This obviously won't work, but should give you an idea of what I want to achieve. This should be possible because mouseevent can be applied to about everything.The main problem is that I don't know where I should set the requirements for the event to be executed to be able to apply it to movieclips and sprites. Thanks in advance

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  • CakePHP HABTM: Editing one item casuses HABTM row to get recreated, destroys extra data

    - by leo-the-manic
    I'm having trouble with my HABTM relationship in CakePHP. I have two models like so: Department HABTM Location. One large company has many buildings, and each building provides a limited number of services. Each building also has its own webpage, so in addition to the HABTM relationship itself, each HABTM row also has a url field where the user can visit to find additional information about the service they're interested and how it operates at the building they're interested in. I've set up the models like so: <?php class Location extends AppModel { var $name = 'Location'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Department' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class Department extends AppModel { var $name = 'Department'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Location' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class DepartmentsLocation extends AppModel { var $name = 'DepartmentsLocation'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Department', 'Location' ); // I'm pretty sure this method is unrelated. It's not being called when this error // occurs. Its purpose is to prevent having two HABTM rows with the same location // and department. function beforeSave() { // kill any existing rows with same associations $this->log(__FILE__ . ": killing existing HABTM rows", LOG_DEBUG); $result = $this->find('all', array("conditions" => array("location_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['location_id'], "department_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['department_id']))); foreach($result as $row) { $this->delete($row['DepartmentsLocation']['id']); } return true; } } ?> The controllers are completely uninteresting. The problem: If I edit the name of a Location, all of the DepartmentsLocations that were linked to that Location are re-created with empty URLs. Since the models specify that unique is true, this also causes all of the newer rows to overwrite the older rows, which essentially destroys all of the URLs. I would like to know two things: Can I stop this? If so, how? And, on a less technical and more whiney note: Why does this even happen? It seems bizarre to me that editing a field through Cake should cause so much trouble, when I can easily go through phpMyAdmin, edit the Location name there, and get exactly the result I would expect. Why does CakePHP touch the HABTM data when I'm just editing a field on a row? It's not even a foreign key!

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  • Is it ok to use <strong> in place of <b> blindly ?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Note: I know <b> is presentational and <span style="font-weight:bold> is better way and <strong> and <em> for emphasis but my question is not regarding this. Should we convert every <b> to <strong> blindly ? many people do this they think <b> is not good as per web standards so they convert every <b> to <strong> upon site redesign, content re-population, new site design and people suggest this to others also. Dreamweaver has also given option to convert all <b> and <i> to <strong> and <em> on code paste in design view and when we use B and I Which people use blindly. And Dreamweaver(if above option is checked) and many online WYSIWYG editor give output in <strong> and <em> while button shows B and I. In my opinion it's creating misconception about <strong> and <b> When we get content from client we don't know where client want to give emphasize and where he just want to use text bold for presentation purpose.What we should do in this condition? no one has time client and we both to give time to think for each bold text, it should be in <b> or in <strong>, <i> or in <em> What are pros and cons to convert every <b> and <i> into <strong> and <em> blindly if we are saying our site is accessible? Update: remember <b> and <i> are not deprecated there are in HTML 5 specification

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  • Why does the rename() syscall prohibit moving a directory that I can't write to a different director

    - by Daniel Papasian
    I am trying to understand why this design decision was made with the rename() syscall in 4.2BSD. There's nothing I'm trying to solve here, just understand the rationale for the behavior itself. 4.2BSD saw the introduction of the rename() syscall for the purpose of allowing atomic renames/moves of files. From 4.3BSD-Reno/src/sys/ufs/ufs_vnops.c: /* * If ".." must be changed (ie the directory gets a new * parent) then the source directory must not be in the * directory heirarchy above the target, as this would * orphan everything below the source directory. Also * the user must have write permission in the source so * as to be able to change "..". We must repeat the call * to namei, as the parent directory is unlocked by the * call to checkpath(). */ if (oldparent != dp->i_number) newparent = dp->i_number; if (doingdirectory && newparent) { VOP_LOCK(fndp->ni_vp); error = ufs_access(fndp->ni_vp, VWRITE, tndp->ni_cred); VOP_UNLOCK(fndp->ni_vp); So clearly this check was added intentionally. My question is - why? Is this behavior supposed to be intuitive? The effect of this is that one cannot move a directory (located in a directory that one can write) that one cannot write to another directory that one can write to atomically. You can, however, create a new directory, move the links over (assuming one has read access to the directory), and then remove one's write bit on the directory. You just can't do so atomically. % cd /tmp % mkdir stackoverflow-question % cd stackoverflow-question % mkdir directory-1 % mkdir directory-2 % mkdir directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % echo "foo" > directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % mv directory-1/directory-i-cant-write directory-2 mv: rename directory-1/directory-i-cant-write to directory-2/directory-i-cant-write: Permission denied We now have a directory I can't write with contents I can't read that I can't move atomically. I can, however, achieve the same effect non-atomically by changing permissions, making the new directory, using ln to create the new links, and changing permissions. (Left as an exercise to the reader) . and .. are special cased already, so I don't particularly buy that it is intuitive that if I can't write a directory I can't "change .." which is what the source suggests. Is there any reason for this besides it being the perceived correct behavior by the author of the code? Is there anything bad that can happen if we let people atomically move directories (that they can't write) between directories that they can write?

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  • .NET: Avoidance of custom exceptions by utilising existing types, but which?

    - by Mr. Disappointment
    Consider the following code (ASP.NET/C#): private void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!SetupHelper.SetUp()) { throw new ShitHitFanException(); } } I've never been too hesitant to simply roll my own exception type, basically because I have found (bad practice, or not) that mostly a reasonable descriptive type name gives us enough as developers to go by in order to know what happened and why something might have happened. Sometimes the existing .NET exception types even accommodate these needs - regardless of the message. In this particular scenario, for demonstration purposes only, the application should die a horrible, disgraceful death should SetUp not complete properly (as dictated by its return value), but I can't find an already existing exception type in .NET which would seem to suffice; though, I'm sure one will be there and I simply don't know about it. Brad Abrams posted this article that lists some of the available exception types. I say some because the article is from 2005, and, although I try to keep up to date, it's a more than plausible assumption that more have been added to future framework versions that I am still unaware of. Of course, Visual Studio gives you a nicely formatted, scrollable list of exceptions via Intellisense - but even on analysing those, I find none which would seem to suffice for this situation... ApplicationException: ...when a non-fatal application error occurs The name seems reasonable, but the error is very definitely fatal - the app is dead. ExecutionEngineException: ...when there is an internal error in the execution engine of the CLR Again, sounds reasonable, superficially; but this has a very definite purpose and to help me out here certainly isn't it. HttpApplicationException: ...when there is an error processing an HTTP request Well, we're running an ASP.NET application! But we're also just pulling at straws here. InvalidOperationException: ...when a call is invalid for the current state of an instance This isn't right but I'm adding it to the list of 'possible should you put a gun to my head, yes'. OperationCanceledException: ...upon cancellation of an operation the thread was executing Maybe I wouldn't feel so bad using this one, but I'd still be hijacking the damn thing with little right. You might even ask why on earth I would want to raise an exception here but the idea is to find out that if I were to do so then do you know of an appropriate exception for such a scenario? And basically, to what extent can we piggy-back on .NET while keeping in line with rationality?

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  • WCF Service Library - make calls from Console App

    - by inutan
    Hello there, I have a WCF Service Library with netTcpBinding. Its app.config as follows: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="netTcp" maxBufferPoolSize="50000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="50000000"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="500" maxStringContentLength="50000000" maxArrayLength="50000000" maxBytesPerRead="50000000" maxNameTableCharCount="50000000" /> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateServiceBehavior" name="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateReportService"> <endpoint address="TemplateService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="netTcp" contract="ReportingComponentLibrary.ITemplateService"></endpoint> <endpoint address="ReportService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="netTcp" contract="ReportingComponentLibrary.IReportService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" ></endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8001/TemplateReportService" /> <add baseAddress ="http://localhost:8080/TemplateReportService" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ReportingComponentLibrary.TemplateServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> I want to call it from a console application for testing purpose. I understand that I can call by adding Service Reference or by adding proxy using svcutil. But in both these cases, my service needs to be up and running (I used WCF Test Client) Is there any other way I can call and test service method from console application?

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  • MVVM Binding Orthogonal Aspects in Views e.g. Application Settings

    - by chibacity
    I have an application which I am developing using WPF\Prism\MVVM. All is going well and I have some pleasing MVVM implementations. However, in some of my views I would like to be able to bind application settings e.g. when a user reloads an application, the checkbox for auto-scrolling a grid should be checked in the state it was last time the user used the application. My view needs to bind to something that holds the "auto-scroll" setting state. I could put this on the view-model, but applications settings are orthogonal to the purpose of the view-model. The "auto-scroll" setting is controlling an aspect of the view. This setting is just an example. There will be quite a number of them and splattering my view-models with properties to represent application settings (so I can bind them) feels decidedly yucky. One view-model per view seems to be de rigeuer... What is best\usual practice here? Splatter my view-models with application settings? Have multiple view-models per view so settings can be represented in their own right? Split views so that controls can bind to an ApplicationSettingsViewModel? = too many views? Something else? Edit 1 To add a little more context, I am developing a UI with a tabbed interface. Each tab will host a single widget and there a variety of widgets. Each widget is a Prism composition of individual views. Some views are common amongst widgets e.g. a file picker view. Whilst each widget is composed of several views, as a whole, conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings e.g. last file selected, auto-scroll enabled, etc. These need to be persisted and retrieved\applied when the application starts again, and the widget views are created. My question is focused on the fact that conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings which is at right-angles to the fact that a widget consists of many views. Each view in the widget has it's own view-model (which works nicely and logically) but if I stick to a one view-model per view, I would have to splatter each view-model with user settings appropriate to it. This doesn't sound right ?!?

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  • Wondering about a way to conserve memory in C# using List<> with structs

    - by Michael Ryan
    I'm not even sure how I should phrase this question. I'm passing some CustomStruct objects as parameters to a class method, and storing them in a List. What I'm wondering is if it's possible and more efficient to add multiple references to a particular instance of a CustomStruct if a equivalent instance it found. This is a dummy/example struct: public struct CustomStruct { readonly int _x; readonly int _y; readonly int _w; readonly int _h; readonly Enum _e; } Using the below method, you can pass one, two, or three CustomStruct objects as parameters. In the final method (that takes three parameters), it may be the case that the 3rd and possibly the 2nd will have the same value as the first. List<CustomStruct> _list; public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal) { AddBackground(normal, normal, normal); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover) { AddBackground(normal, hover, hover); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover, CustomStruct active) { _list = new List<CustomStruct>(3); _list.Add(normal); _list.Add(hover); _list.Add(active); } As the method stands now, I believe it will create new instances of CustomStruct objects, and then adds a reference of each to the List. It is my understanding that if I instead check for equality between normal and hover and (if equal) insert normal again in place of hover, when the method completes, hover will lose all references and eventually be garbage collected, whereas normal will have two references in the List. The same could be done for active. That would be better, right? The CustomStruct is a ValueType, and therefore one instance would remain on the Stack, and the three List references would just point to it. The overall List size is determined not by the object Type is contains, but by its Capacity. By eliminating the "duplicate" CustomStuct objects, you allow them to be cleaned up. When the CustomStruct objects are passed to these methods, new instances are created each time. When the structs are added to the List, is another copy made? For example, if i pass just one CustomStruct, AddBackground(normal) creates a copy of the original variable, and then passes it three times to Addbackground(normal, hover, active). In this method, three copies are made of the original copy. When the three local variables are added to the List using Add(), are additional copies created inside Add(), and does that defeat the purpose of any equality checks as previously mentioned? Am I missing anything here?

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  • Custom activity designers in Workflow Foundation 3.5: How do they work?

    - by stakx
    Intent of this post: I realise that Workflow Foundation is not extremely popular on StackOverflow and that there will probably be not many answers, or none at all. This post is intended as a resource to people trying to customise workflow activities' appearance through custom designer classes. Goals: I am attempting to create a custom designer class for Workflow activities to achieve the following: Make activities look less technical. For example, I don't necessarily want to see the internal object name as the activity's "title" -- instead, I'd like to see something more descriptive. Display the values of certain properties beneath the title text. I would like to see some properties' values directly underneath the title so that I don't need to look somewhere else (namely, at the Properties window). Provide custom drop areas and draw custom internal arrows. As an example, I would like to be able to have custom drop areas in very specific places. What I found out so far: I created a custom designer class deriving from SequentialActivityDesigner as follows: [Designer(typeof(SomeDesigner))] public partial class SomeActivity: CompositeActivity { ... } class PlainDesigner : SequentialActivityDesigner { ... } Through overriding some properties and the OnPaint method, I found out about the following correspondences between the properties and how the activity will be displayed: Figure 1. Relationship between some properties of an SequentialActivityDesigner and the displayed activity. Possible solutions for goal #1 (make activities look less technical) and goal #2 (display values of properties beneath title text): The displayed title can be changed through the Title property. If more room is required to display additional information beneath the title, the TitleHeight property can be increased (ie., override the property and make it return base.TitleHeight + n, where n is some positive integer). Override the OnPaint method and draw additional text in the area reserved through TitleHeight. Open questions: What are the connectors, connections, and connection points used for? They seem to be necessary, but for what purpose? While the drop targets can be got through the GetDropTargets method, it seems that this is not necessarily where the designer will actually place dropped activities. When an activity is dragged across a workflow, the designer displays little green plus signs where activities can be dropped; how does it figure out the locations of these plus signs? How does the designer figure out where to draw connector lines and arrows?

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  • C Programming: malloc() for a 2D array (using pointer-to-pointer)

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, yesterday I had posted a question: How should I pass a pointer to a function and allocate memory for the passed pointer from inside the called function? From the answers I got, I was able to understand what mistake I was doing. I'm facing a new problem now, can anyone help out with this? I want to dynamically allocate a 2D array, so I'm passing a Pointer-to-Pointer from my main() to another function called alloc_2D_pixels(...), where I use malloc(...) and for(...) loop to allocate memory for the 2D array. Well, after returning from the alloc_2D_pixels(...) function, the pointer-to-pointer still remains NULL, so naturally, when I try accessing or try to free(...) the Pointer-to-Pointer, the program hangs. Can anyone suggest me what mistakes I'm doing here? Help!!! Vikram SOURCE: main() { unsigned char **ptr; unsigned int rows, cols; if(alloc_2D_pixels(&ptr, rows, cols)==ERROR) // Satisfies this condition printf("Memory for the 2D array not allocated"); // NO ERROR is returned if(ptr == NULL) // ptr is NULL so no memory was allocated printf("Yes its NULL!"); // Because ptr is NULL, with any of these 3 statements below the program HANGS ptr[0][0] = 10; printf("Element: %d",ptr[0][0]); free_2D_alloc(&ptr); } signed char alloc_2D_pixels(unsigned char ***memory, unsigned int rows, unsigned int cols) { signed char status = NO_ERROR; memory = malloc(rows * sizeof(unsigned char** )); if(memory == NULL) { status = ERROR; printf("ERROR: Memory allocation failed!"); } else { int i; for(i = 0; i< cols; i++) { memory[i] = malloc(cols * sizeof(unsigned char)); if(memory[i]==NULL) { status = ERROR; printf("ERROR: Memory allocation failed!"); } } } // Inserted the statements below for debug purpose only memory[0][0] = (unsigned char)10; // I'm able to access the array from printf("\nElement %d",memory[0][0]); // here with no problems return status; } void free_2D_pixels(unsigned char ***ptr, unsigned int rows) { int i; for(i = 0; i < rows; i++) { free(ptr[i]); } free(ptr); }

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  • WTF is wtf? (in WebKit code base)

    - by Motti
    I downloaded Chromium's code base and ran across the WTF namespace. namespace WTF { /* * C++'s idea of a reinterpret_cast lacks sufficient cojones. */ template<typename TO, typename FROM> TO bitwise_cast(FROM in) { COMPILE_ASSERT(sizeof(TO) == sizeof(FROM), WTF_wtf_reinterpret_cast_sizeof_types_is_equal); union { FROM from; TO to; } u; u.from = in; return u.to; } } // namespace WTF Does this mean what I think it means? Could be so, the bitwise_cast implementation specified here will not compile if either TO or FROM is not a POD and is not (AFAIK) more powerful than C++ built in reinterpret_cast. The only point of light I see here is the nobody seems to be using bitwise_cast in the Chromium project. I see there's some legalese so I'll put in the little letters to keep out of trouble. /* * Copyright (C) 2008 Apple Inc. All Rights Reserved. * * Redistribution and use in source and binary forms, with or without * modification, are permitted provided that the following conditions * are met: * 1. Redistributions of source code must retain the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer. * 2. Redistributions in binary form must reproduce the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer in the * documentation and/or other materials provided with the distribution. * * THIS SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED BY APPLE INC. ``AS IS'' AND ANY * EXPRESS OR IMPLIED WARRANTIES, INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, THE * IMPLIED WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY AND FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR * PURPOSE ARE DISCLAIMED. IN NO EVENT SHALL APPLE INC. OR * CONTRIBUTORS BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT, INDIRECT, INCIDENTAL, SPECIAL, * EXEMPLARY, OR CONSEQUENTIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, * PROCUREMENT OF SUBSTITUTE GOODS OR SERVICES; LOSS OF USE, DATA, OR * PROFITS; OR BUSINESS INTERRUPTION) HOWEVER CAUSED AND ON ANY THEORY * OF LIABILITY, WHETHER IN CONTRACT, STRICT LIABILITY, OR TORT * (INCLUDING NEGLIGENCE OR OTHERWISE) ARISING IN ANY WAY OUT OF THE USE * OF THIS SOFTWARE, EVEN IF ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGE. */

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  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

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