Search Results

Search found 24177 results on 968 pages for 'true'.

Page 733/968 | < Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >

  • How to make this OO?

    - by John
    Hello, Sorry for the poor title,I'm new to OOP so I don't know what is the term for what I need to do. I have, say, 10 different Objects that inherit one Object.They have different amount and type of class members,but all of them have one property in common - Visible. type TObj1=class(TObject) private a:integer; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; TObj2=class(TObject) private b:String; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; ...(Other 8 objects) For each of them I have a variable. var Obj1:TObj1; Obj2:TObj2; Obj3:TObj3; ....(Other 7 objects) Rule 1: Only one object can be initialized at a time(others have to be freed) to be visible. For this rule I have a global variable var CurrentVisibleObj:TObject; //Because they all inherit TObject Finally there is a procedure that changes visibility. procedure ChangeObjVisibility(newObj:TObject); begin CurrentVisibleObj.Free; //Free the old object CurrentVisibleObj:=newObj; //assign the new object CurrentVisibleObj:= ??? //Create new object CurrentVisibleObj.Visible:=true; //Set visibility to new object end; There is my problem,I don't know how to initialize it,because the derived class is unknown. How do I do this? I simplified the explanation,in the project there are TFrames each having different controls and I have to set visible/not visible the same way(By leaving only one frame initialized). Sorry again for the title,I'm very new to OOP.

    Read the article

  • help with Firefox extension

    - by Johnny Grass
    I'm writing a Firefox extension that creates a socket server which will output the active tab's URL when a client makes a connection to it. I have the following code in my javascript file: var serverSocket; function startServer() { var listener = { onSocketAccepted : function(socket, transport) { try { var outputString = gBrowser.currentURI.spec + "\n"; var stream = transport.openOutputStream(0,0,0); stream.write(outputString,outputString.length); stream.close(); } catch(ex2){ dump("::"+ex2); } }, onStopListening : function(socket, status){} }; try { serverSocket = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/network/server-socket;1"] .createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIServerSocket); serverSocket.init(7055,true,-1); serverSocket.asyncListen(listener); } catch(ex){ dump(ex); } document.getElementById("status").value = "Started"; } startServer(); As it is, it works for multiple tabs in a single window. If I open multiple windows, it ignores the additional windows. I think it is creating a server socket for each window, but since they are using the same port, the additional sockets fail to initialize. I need it to create a server socket when the browser launches and continue running when I close the windows (Mac OS X). As it is, when I close a window but Firefox remains running, the socket closes and I have to restart firefox to get it up an running. How do I go about that?

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

    Read the article

  • sending a selected value from a dropdownlist to a servlet with xhr

    - by kawtousse
    I am trying to send the clicked value of a dropdown list to my servlet to run a SQL query using the value received. To do it I am using Ajax like that: function showProject(prj) { xmlhttp = GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp == null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url = "ServletxmlGenerator.java"; idprj = prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; url = url + "?idprj=" + idprj; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } The servlet when String projectcode=(String) request.getParameter("idprj"); returns null. When I select a value from the JSP that construct the dropdown list and from which the function showProject is handled the same thing is happned. It returns always null. So the parameter(idprj) is not passed anyway. How can I handle with this. I need to send the selected value to the servlet to run my SQL query.

    Read the article

  • In languages which create a new scope each time in a loop block, a new local copy of the local loop

    - by Jian Lin
    It seems that in language like C, Java, and Ruby (as opposed to Javascript), a new scope is created for each iteration of a loop block, and the local variable defined for the loop is actually made into a local variable every single time and recorded in this new scope? For example, in Ruby: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ So, it looks like when a new scope is created, a new local copy of i is also created and recorded in this new scope, so that when the function is executed at a later time, the "i" is found in those scope chains as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. Is this true? (It sounds like a heavy operation). Contrast that with p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end This time, the i is defined before entering the loop, so Ruby 1.8.6 will not put this i in the new scope created for the loop block, and therefore when the i is looked up in the scope chain, it always refer to the i that was in the outside scope, and give 5 every time: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $ I heard that in Ruby 1.9, i will be treated as a local defined for the loop even when there is an i defined earlier? The operation of creating a new scope, creating a new local copy of i each time through the loop seems heavy, as it seems it wouldn't have matter if we are not invoking the functions at a later time. So when the functions don't need to be invoked at a later time, could the interpreter and the compiler to C / Java try to optimize it so that there is not local copy of i each time?

    Read the article

  • WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    HI! I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

    Read the article

  • Help Needed With AJAX Script

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am working on an AJAX script but am having difficulties. First, here is the script: var xmlHttp; function GetXmlHttpObject(){ var objXMLHttp=null if (window.XMLHttpRequest){ objXMLHttp=new XMLHttpRequest() } else if (window.ActiveXObject){ objXMLHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP") } return objXMLHttp } function retrieveData(){ var jBossServer = new Array(); jBossServer[0] = "d01"; jBossServer[1] = "d02"; jBossServer[2] = "p01"; jBossServer[3] = "p02"; for(var i=0; i<jBossServer.length; i++){ xmlHttp = GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp == null){ alert ("Something weird happened ..."); return; } var url="./retrieveData.php"; url = url + "?jBossID=" + jBossServer[i]; url = url + "&sid=" + Math.random(); xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.onreadystatechange = updateMemory; xmlHttp.send(null); } } function updateMemory(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState == 4 || xmlHttp.readyState == "complete"){ aggregateArray = new Array(); aggregateArray = xmlHttp.responseText.split(','); for(var i=0; i<aggregateArray.length; i++){ alert(aggregateArray[i]); } return; } } The "retrieveData.php" page will return data that looks like this: d01,1 MB,2 MB,3 MB They relate to my 4 servers d01, d02, p01, and p02 (dev and prod). What I am doing is scraping the memory information from http://127.0.0.1:8080/web-console/ServerInfo.jsp I want to save code so I attempted to put the AJAX xmlHttp call into a loop, but I don't think it is working. All I ever get back is the information for "p02" four times. Am I able to do what I want or do I need four different functions for each server (i.e., xmlHttpServer01, xmlHttpServer02, xmlHttpServer03, xmlHttpServer04)? Thank you all for reading, have a good day. :)

    Read the article

  • Placement/Positioning/Alignment of UIScrollView w.r.t. length of Title NSString

    - by Shoaibi
    I have a scenario where i show stuff like: ----------------------------------- titleview (UITextView) ______________ tArea (UIScrollView) ttextview (UITextView) ----------------------------------- Now here is the condition: Length of titleview's text is dynamic, varies based on user input. Because of the condition I have trouble placing tArea e.g. UIScrollView on the screen, it either appears way too below than the titleview, or overlaps it. Previously what i did: Count the number of characters in titleview.text.length and divide them by 27 (e.g. characters in one line when using boldSystemFontOfSize:20) and multiply by 10 to get the starting X of tArea e.g. UIScrollView. But that sucked. Because i had to duplicate code for rotation to landscape. What do i have now? : CGSize titlesize = [title sizeWithFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:20] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(5, 90) lineBreakMode:UILineBreakModeWordWrap]; ttitleview = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, 5, 310,titlesize.height)]; ttitleview.text = title; ttitleview.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:20]; ttitleview.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; ttitleview.editable = NO; [self.view addSubview:ttitleview]; CGSize textsize = [ttext sizeWithFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:20] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(5, 350) lineBreakMode:UILineBreakModeWordWrap]; tArea = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, titlesize.height, 310, 230)]; tArea.contentSize = CGSizeMake(310, textsize.height+20); tArea.pagingEnabled = FALSE; tArea.scrollEnabled = TRUE; tArea.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:tArea]; ttextview = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 310, textsize.height + 20)]; ttextview.text = ttext; ttextview.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:20]; ttextview.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; ttextview.editable = NO; [tArea addSubview:ttextview]; But its no use. Looking for an elegant solution than this.

    Read the article

  • Is a confirmation screen necessary for an order form?

    - by abeger
    In a discussion about how to streamline an order form on our site, the idea of eliminating the confirmation screen. So, instead of filling out the form, clicking "Submit", seeing a summary on a confirmation screen and clicking "Confirm", the user would simply fill out the form, hit "Submit", and the order's done. The theory is that fewer clicks and fewer screens means less time to order and therefore the ordering experience is easier. The opposing opinion says that without the confirmation screen, user error increases and people just end up canceling/changing orders after the fact. I'm looking for more input from the SO community. Have you ever done this? How has it worked out, compared to a traditional confirmation screen setup? Are there examples of a true "one click and done" setup on the web (does Amazon's 1-click have a confirmation screen? I've never been courageous enough to try it)? EDIT: Just to clarify, when I say "confirmation screen", I mean a second step where the customer reviews the order before placing it. Even if we did do away with it, the user would still receive a message saying "your order has been placed".

    Read the article

  • randomized quicksort: probability of two elements comparison?

    - by bantu
    I am reading "Probability and Computing" by M.Mitzenmacher, E.Upfal and I have problems understanding how the probability of comparison of two elements is calculated. Input: the list (y1,y2,...,YN) of numbers. We are looking for pivot element. Question: what is probability that two elements yi and yj (ji) will be compared? Answer (from book): yi and yj will be compared if either yi or yj will be selected as pivot in first draw from sequence (yi,yi+1,...,yj-1,yj). So the probablity is: 2/(y-i+1). The problem for me is initial claim: for example, picking up yi in the first draw from the whole list will cause the comparison with yj (and vice-versa) and the probability is 2/n. So, rather the "reverse" claim is true -- none of the (yi+1,...,yj-1) elements can be selected beforeyi or yj, but the "pool" size is not fixed (in first draw it is n for sure, but on the second it is smaller). Could someone please explain this, how the authors come up with such simplified conclusion? Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Why is graphviz drawing two arrows, and using a weird order?

    - by dmd
    Why is graphviz drawing two arrows from uncap_spike to peel, and why is it drawing peel to the right of hang? I want uncap_spike - peel - hang - spike, in that order, with one edge between each. digraph hangers { compound=true fontname="Gill Sans" node [fontname="Gill Sans" shape=box fillcolor=white style="rounded, filled"] edge [fontname="Gill Sans"] subgraph cluster_prep { style="filled" label=Prep gather [shape=Mrecord label="{gather | EtOH swab\nvented tubing}"] uncap_bottle [label="uncap bottle"] uncap_spike [label="uncap spike"] swab [shape=Mrecord label="{swab EtOH | wait 30 seconds for sterility}"] gather -> uncap_bottle -> swab -> uncap_spike {rank=same gather uncap_bottle swab uncap_spike} } subgraph cluster_hang { style=filled label=Hang {rank=same peel hang} } {rank=same uncap_spike -> peel -> hang -> spike -> prime} hang -> rip [color=firebrick] rip [label="eyelet\nripped" style="filled" shape=octagon regular fontcolor=white fontsize=10 width=.5 fixedsize color=firebrick fillcolor=firebrick ] swab -> not_sterile [color=firebrick] not_sterile [label="not\nsterile" style="filled" shape=octagon regular fontcolor=white fontsize=10 width=.5 fixedsize color=firebrick fillcolor=firebrick ] }

    Read the article

  • How do I iterate through the id properties of R.java class ?

    - by mgpyone
    I've 16 textViews and need to set something like this done: for (int i=1; i<6; i++) { int $RidInt = R.id.s; tv[i] = (TextView)findViewById($RidInt); tv[i].setTypeface(face); tv[i].setClickable(true); tv[i].setOnClickListener(clickListener); } my R.java file is : public final class R { public static final class attr { } public static final class drawable { public static final int icon=0x7f020000; } public static final class id { public static final int s1=0x7f050000; public static final int s10=0x7f050009; public static final int s11=0x7f05000a; public static final int s12=0x7f05000b; public static final int s13=0x7f05000c; public static final int s14=0x7f05000d; public static final int s15=0x7f05000e; public static final int s16=0x7f05000f; public static final int s2=0x7f050001; public static final int s3=0x7f050002; public static final int s4=0x7f050003; public static final int s5=0x7f050004; public static final int s6=0x7f050005; public static final int s7=0x7f050006; public static final int s8=0x7f050007; public static final int s9=0x7f050008; } public static final class layout { public static final int main=0x7f030000; public static final int toast=0x7f030001; } public static final class string { public static final int app_name=0x7f040000; public static final int s2=0x7f040001; } }

    Read the article

  • Membership Provider users in different tables

    - by Mike
    I have an existing database with users and administrators in different tables. I am rewriting an existing website in ASP.net and need to decide - should I merge the two tables into one users table and just have one provider, OR leave the tables separated and have two different providers. Administrators, they need the ability to create, edit and delete users. I am thinking that the membership/profile provider way of editing users (i.e. System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase pro = System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase.Create("User1"); pro.Initialize("User1", true); txtEmail.Text = pro["SecondaryEmail"].ToString(); is the best way to edit users because the provider handles it? You cannot use this if you have two separate providers? (because they are both looking at different tables). Or should I make a whole lot of methods to edit the users for the administrators? UPDATE: Making a custom membership provider look at both tables is fine, but then what about the profile provider? The profile provider GetPropertyValues and SetPropertyValues would be going on the same set of properties for users and admins. Mike

    Read the article

  • Issue with javascript array object

    - by ezhil
    I have the below JSON response. I am using $.getJSON method to loads JSON data and using callback function to do some manipulation by checking whether it is array as below. { "r": [{ "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }] } I am passing the json responses on both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input" as parameter as below. var tablesResult = loadFromJson1(resultstest.r[0].Clg); loadFromJson1 = function (input) { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson1: Inside array function"); var collection = new CompeCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { collection.add(loadFromJson1(modelData)); }); return collection; } return new CompeModel({ compeRates: loadFromJson2(input), compName: input.Name }); }; loadFromJson2 = function (input) // here is the problem, the 'input' is not an array object so it is not going to IF condition of the isArray method. { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson2: Inside array function"); //alert is not coming here though it is an array var rcollect = new rateCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { rcollect.add(modelData); }); return rcollect; } }; The above code i am passing json responses for both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input". isArray is getting true on only loadFromJson1 function and giving alert inside the if condition but not coming in loadFromJson2 function though i am passing the same parameter. can anyone tell me why loadFromJson2 function is not getting the alert inside if condition though i pass array object?

    Read the article

  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

    Read the article

  • Are Parameters really enough to prevent Sql injections?

    - by Rune Grimstad
    I've been preaching both to my colleagues and here on SO about the goodness of using parameters in SQL queries, especially in .NET applications. I've even gone so far as to promise them as giving immunity against SQL injection attacks. But I'm starting to wonder if this really is true. Are there any known SQL injection attacks that will be successfull against a parameterized query? Can you for example send a string that causes a buffer overflow on the server? There are of course other considerations to make to ensure that a web application is safe (like sanitizing user input and all that stuff) but now I am thinking of SQL injections. I'm especially interested in attacks against MsSQL 2005 and 2008 since they are my primary databases, but all databases are interesting. Edit: To clarify what I mean by parameters and parameterized queries. By using parameters I mean using "variables" instead of building the sql query in a string. So instead of doing this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = 'a name' We do this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = @Name and then set the value of the @Name parameter on the query / command object.

    Read the article

  • Objects in JavaScript defined and undefined at the same time (in a FireFox extension)

    - by Alexey Romanov
    I am chasing down a bug in a FireFox extension. I've finally managed to see it for myself (I've only had reports before) and I can't understand how what I saw is possible. One error message from my extension in the Error Console is "gBrowser is not defined". This by itself would be surprising enough, since the overlay is over browser.xul and navigator.xul, and I expect gBrowser to be available from both. Even worse is the actual place where it happens: line 101 of nextplease.js. That is, inside the function isTopLevelDocument, which is only called from onContentLoaded, which is only called from onLoad here: gBrowser.addEventListener(this.loadType, function (event) { nextplease.loadListener.onContentLoaded(event); }, true); So gBrowser is defined in onLoad, but somehow undefined in isTopLevelDocument. When I tried to actually use the extension, I got another error: "nextplease is not defined". The interesting thing is that it happened on lines 853 and 857. That is, inside the functions nextplease.getNextLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.NextPhrasesMap, nextplease.NextImagesMap, nextplease.isNextRegExp, nextplease.NEXT_SEARCH_TYPE); } nextplease.getPrevLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.PrevPhrasesMap, nextplease.PrevImagesMap, nextplease.isPrevRegExp, nextplease.PREV_SEARCH_TYPE); } So nextplease is somehow defined enough to call these functions, but isn't defined inside them. Finally, executing typeof(nextplease) in Execute JS returns "object". Same for gBrowser. How can this happen? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Customize jQuery.aptags plugin - mouseclick submit from dropdown list

    - by atmorell
    Hello, I am using jquery.autocomplete.js and jquery.apitags to select a few elements from a dropdown list. This works great, and I can select multiple elements etc. However the jquery-aptags plugin does only fire when enter is pressed. This might confuse some users if they use the mouse to click instead of the arrows/enter on the keyboard. I think this is the code inside jquery.aptags that submits the tag. // // Hook to the keypress event. // $(this).bind('keypress', { __c: __c }, function (e) { var c = ''; var i = 0; var v = $(this).val(); if (e.keyCode == 13) { e.stopPropagation(); e.preventDefault(); __createSpans(this, v, e.data.__c, true); } }); I am wondering if it is possible to call the method directly from a new event. $('.ac_results > ul > li').livequery(function() { $(this).bind('click', function() { $('#address_city').aptags({__createSpans}); }); }); Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Python Process won't call atexit

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to use atexit in a Process, but unfortunately it doesn't seem to work. Here's some example code: import time import atexit import logging import multiprocessing logging.basicConfig(level=logging.DEBUG) class W(multiprocessing.Process): def run(self): logging.debug("%s Started" % self.name) @atexit.register def log_terminate(): # ever called? logging.debug("%s Terminated!" % self.name) while True: time.sleep(10) @atexit.register def log_exit(): logging.debug("Main process terminated") logging.debug("Main process started") a = W() b = W() a.start() b.start() time.sleep(1) a.terminate() b.terminate() The output of this code is: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:Main process terminated I would expect that the W.run.log_terminate() would be called when a.terminate() and b.terminate() are called, and the output to be something likeso (emphasis added)!: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:W-1 Terminated! DEBUG:root:W-2 Terminated! DEBUG:root:Main process terminated Why isn't this working, and is there a better way to log a message (from the Process context) when a Process is terminated? Thank you for your input - it's much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Call WCF Service Through Javascript, AJAX, or JQuery

    - by obautista
    I created a number of standard WCF Services (Service Contract and Host (svc) are in separate assemblies). I fired up a Web Site in IIS to host the Services (i.e., address is http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc). Then in my Web Site project I added the reference. I am able to call the services normally. I am needed to call some of the services client side. Not sure if I should be looking at articles calling WCF services through AJAX, JQuery, or JSON enabled WCF Services. Can anyone provide any thoughts or experience with configuring as such? Some of the changes I made was adding the following to the Operation Contract: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "SetFoo")] void SetFoo(string Id); Then this above the implementation of the interface: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] Then in the service webconfig I have this (parens are angle brackets): <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://services:1000/wcfservices.svc/"/>> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="false" /> Then in the client side I attempted this: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy ID="ScriptManagerProxy1" runat="server"> <compositeScript> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="http://Flixsit:1000/FlixsitWebServices.svc" /> </Scripts> </CompositeScript> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> I am attempting to call the service like this in javascript: wcfservices.SetFoo(string Id); Nothing is working. If it is idea or a better solution to call JSON enable, JQuery, etc....I am willing to make any changes. Thanks for any suggestions/tips provided....

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 - Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by difek
    I have installed SQL Server 2008 R2 on Windows XP. In installation process I selected 'SQL Server and Windows Authentication Mode' When I click right button of the mouse in SQL Server Management Studio on Server - Security tab 'SQL server and Windows Authentication Mode' is selected. But when I click on my Database - Properties - View connection properties Authentication Method is set on Windows Authentication. To my database was added one user1 with password user1. But I can't log in to my database from C# (Visual Studio 2008) because error occurs: Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection What isn't right ? When I get: string connectionStr = @"Data Source=rmzcmp\SQLExpress;Initial Catalog=ResourcesTmp;Integrated Security=True"; I have following error: {"Cannot open database \"ResourcesTmp\" requested by the login. The login failed.\r\nLogin failed for user 'RMZCMP\rm'."} rm is my original user name on which I log in to my computer. When I get rm I have error: {"Login failed for user 'rm'. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection."} again. Regards

    Read the article

  • How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

    - by Paul Lalonde
    I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

    Read the article

  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate automap a HasManyToMany using a generic type

    - by zulkamal
    I have a bunch of domain entities that can be keyword tagged (a Tag is also an entity.) I want to do a normal many-to-many (Tag - TagReview <- Review) table relationship but I don't want to have to create a new concrete relationship on both the Entity and Tag every single time I add a new entity. I was hoping to do a generic based Tag and do this: // Tag public class Tag<T> { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<T> Entities { get; set; } public Tag() { Entities = new List<T>(); } } // Review public class Review { public virtual string Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual string Content { get; set; } public virtual IList<Tag<Review>> Tags { get; set; } public Review() { Tags = new List<Tag<Review>>(); } } Unfortunately I get an exception: ----> System.ArgumentException : Cannot create an instance of FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping`1[Example.Entities.Tag`1[T]] because Type.ContainsGenericParameters is true. I anticipate there will be maybe 5-10 entities so mapping normally would be ok but is there a way to do something like this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >