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  • VBA Macro to save an excel file to a different backup location

    - by Joe Taylor
    I am trying to create a Macro that either runs on close or on save to backup the file to a different location. At the moment the Macro I have used is: Private Sub Workbook_BeforeClose(Cancel As Boolean) 'Private Sub Workbook_BeforeSave(ByVal SaveAsUI As Boolean, Cancel As Boolean) 'Saves the current file to a backup folder and the default folder 'Note that any backup is overwritten Application.DisplayAlerts = False ActiveWorkbook.SaveCopyAs Filename:="T:\TEC_SERV\Backup file folder - DO NOT DELETE\" & _ ActiveWorkbook.Name ActiveWorkbook.Save Application.DisplayAlerts = True End Sub This creates a backup of the file ok the first time, however if this is tried again I get: Run-Time Error '1004'; Microsoft Office Excel cannot access the file 'T:\TEC_SERV\Backup file folder - DO NOT DELETE\Test Macro Sheet.xlsm. There are several possible reasons: The file name or path does not exist The file is being used by another program The workbook you are trying to save has the same name as a... I know the path is correct, I also know that the file is not open anywhere else. The workbook has the same name as the one I'm trying to save over but it should just overwrite. Any help would be much appreciated. Joe

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  • Inside what the TexBox value is posted back? ViewState or post back data?

    - by burak ozdogan
    In one article I was reading on ViewState, I saw a sentence saying that I should not fall into a mistake to believe that the value of a TextBox is stored in ViewState; it is stored in PostBack data. From here what I understand is when I post back a web form, the input controls values are stored in HTTP Request body. Not in the Viewstate. But as far as I know ViewState values are stored in an hidden field called __VIEWSTATE anyway. Then does it mean that __VIEVSTATE value is not posted in HTTP POST Request body as a postback data? Sounds nonesense to me. In another words, basically if I say the ViewState mechanism for such scenerio works like this, am I seeing it right or skipping something: You enter a value on an empty TextBox and submit the page The value of text box is posted back inside POST HTTP Request body. Nothing inside __VIEWSTATE at this point from the TextBox On the server side, the TextBox is created with the default value on OnInit method of the page The TrackChange property of ViewState is set to true. The posted back data of TextBox is loaded. Because it is different than the TextBox defalut value(because the user entered something), the ViewState of this text box is marked as DIRTY. The new value of the textbox is written into __VIEWSTATE hidden field From now on __VIEWSTATE hiddenfeild contains the last given value of the TextBox The page is sent to the user's browser having the __VIEWSTATE hidden field. But this time containing the last value entered by user which will be ready to be rendered Thanks guys! burak ozdogan

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  • how to continuously send data without blocking?

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I am trying to send rtp audio data from my Android application. I currently can send 1 RTP packet with the code below and I also have another class that extends Thread that listens to and receives RTP packets. My question is how do I continuously send my updated buffer through the packet payload without blocking the receiving thread? public void run() { isRecording = true; android.os.Process.setThreadPriority (android.os.Process.THREAD_PRIORITY_URGENT_AUDIO); int buffersize = AudioRecord.getMinBufferSize(8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT); Log.d("BUFFERSIZE","Buffer size = " + buffersize); arec = new AudioRecord(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC, 8000, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, buffersize); short[] readBuffer = new short[80]; byte[] buffer = new byte[160]; arec.startRecording(); while(arec.getRecordingState() == AudioRecord.RECORDSTATE_RECORDING){ int frames = arec.read(readBuffer, 0, 80); @SuppressWarnings("unused") int lenghtInBytes = codec.encode(readBuffer, 0, buffer, frames); RtpPacket rtpPacket = new RtpPacket(); rtpPacket.setV(2); rtpPacket.setX(0); rtpPacket.setM(0); rtpPacket.setPT(0); rtpPacket.setSSRC(123342345); rtpPacket.setPayload(buffer, 160); try { rtpSession2.sendRtpPacket(rtpPacket); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (RtpException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } So when I send on one device and receive on another I get decent audio, but when I send and receive on both I get broken sound like its taking turns to send and receive audio. I have a feeling it could be to do with the while loop? it could be looping around in there and not letting anything else run?

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  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

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  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

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  • WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    HI! I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

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  • In languages which create a new scope each time in a loop block, a new local copy of the local loop

    - by Jian Lin
    It seems that in language like C, Java, and Ruby (as opposed to Javascript), a new scope is created for each iteration of a loop block, and the local variable defined for the loop is actually made into a local variable every single time and recorded in this new scope? For example, in Ruby: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ So, it looks like when a new scope is created, a new local copy of i is also created and recorded in this new scope, so that when the function is executed at a later time, the "i" is found in those scope chains as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. Is this true? (It sounds like a heavy operation). Contrast that with p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end This time, the i is defined before entering the loop, so Ruby 1.8.6 will not put this i in the new scope created for the loop block, and therefore when the i is looked up in the scope chain, it always refer to the i that was in the outside scope, and give 5 every time: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $ I heard that in Ruby 1.9, i will be treated as a local defined for the loop even when there is an i defined earlier? The operation of creating a new scope, creating a new local copy of i each time through the loop seems heavy, as it seems it wouldn't have matter if we are not invoking the functions at a later time. So when the functions don't need to be invoked at a later time, could the interpreter and the compiler to C / Java try to optimize it so that there is not local copy of i each time?

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  • Quick MEF + SL4 question

    - by Tom Allen
    I'm working on an app in the Silverlight 4 RC and i'm taking the oppertunity to learn MEF for handling plugin controls. I've got it working in a pretty basic manor, but it's not exactly tidy and I know there is a better way of importing multiple xap's. Essentially, in the App.xaml of my host app, I've got the following telling MEF to load my xap's: AggregateCatalog catalog = new AggregateCatalog(); DeploymentCatalog c1 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInA.xap", UriKind.Relative)); DeploymentCatalog c2 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInB.xap", UriKind.Relative)); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c1); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c2); CompositionHost.Initialize(catalog); c1.DownloadAsync(); c2.DownloadAsync(); I'm sure I'm not using the AggregateCatalog fully here and I need to be able to load any xap's that might be in the directory, not just hardcoding Uri's obviously.... Also, in the MainPage.xaml.cs in the host I have the following collection which MEF puts the plugin's into: [ImportMany(AllowRecomposition = true)] public ObservableCollection<IPlugInApp> PlugIns { get; set; } Again, this works, but I'm pretty sure I'm using ImportMany incorrectly.... Finally, the MainPage.xaml.cs file implements IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and I have the following for handling the plugin's once loaded: public void OnImportsSatisfied() { sp.Children.Clear(); foreach (IPlugInApp plugIn in PlugIns) { if (plugIn != null) sp.Children.Add(plugIn.GetUserControl()); } } This works, but it seems filthy that it runs n times (n being the number of xap's to load). I'm having to call sp.Children.Clear() as if I don't, when loading the 2 plugin's, my stack panel is populated as follows: TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn B I'm clearly missing something here. Can anyone point out what I should be doing? Thanks!

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

    - by Velika2
    Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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  • Placement/Positioning/Alignment of UIScrollView w.r.t. length of Title NSString

    - by Shoaibi
    I have a scenario where i show stuff like: ----------------------------------- titleview (UITextView) ______________ tArea (UIScrollView) ttextview (UITextView) ----------------------------------- Now here is the condition: Length of titleview's text is dynamic, varies based on user input. Because of the condition I have trouble placing tArea e.g. UIScrollView on the screen, it either appears way too below than the titleview, or overlaps it. Previously what i did: Count the number of characters in titleview.text.length and divide them by 27 (e.g. characters in one line when using boldSystemFontOfSize:20) and multiply by 10 to get the starting X of tArea e.g. UIScrollView. But that sucked. Because i had to duplicate code for rotation to landscape. What do i have now? : CGSize titlesize = [title sizeWithFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:20] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(5, 90) lineBreakMode:UILineBreakModeWordWrap]; ttitleview = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, 5, 310,titlesize.height)]; ttitleview.text = title; ttitleview.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:20]; ttitleview.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; ttitleview.editable = NO; [self.view addSubview:ttitleview]; CGSize textsize = [ttext sizeWithFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:20] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(5, 350) lineBreakMode:UILineBreakModeWordWrap]; tArea = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, titlesize.height, 310, 230)]; tArea.contentSize = CGSizeMake(310, textsize.height+20); tArea.pagingEnabled = FALSE; tArea.scrollEnabled = TRUE; tArea.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:tArea]; ttextview = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 310, textsize.height + 20)]; ttextview.text = ttext; ttextview.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:20]; ttextview.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; ttextview.editable = NO; [tArea addSubview:ttextview]; But its no use. Looking for an elegant solution than this.

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  • help with Firefox extension

    - by Johnny Grass
    I'm writing a Firefox extension that creates a socket server which will output the active tab's URL when a client makes a connection to it. I have the following code in my javascript file: var serverSocket; function startServer() { var listener = { onSocketAccepted : function(socket, transport) { try { var outputString = gBrowser.currentURI.spec + "\n"; var stream = transport.openOutputStream(0,0,0); stream.write(outputString,outputString.length); stream.close(); } catch(ex2){ dump("::"+ex2); } }, onStopListening : function(socket, status){} }; try { serverSocket = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/network/server-socket;1"] .createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIServerSocket); serverSocket.init(7055,true,-1); serverSocket.asyncListen(listener); } catch(ex){ dump(ex); } document.getElementById("status").value = "Started"; } startServer(); As it is, it works for multiple tabs in a single window. If I open multiple windows, it ignores the additional windows. I think it is creating a server socket for each window, but since they are using the same port, the additional sockets fail to initialize. I need it to create a server socket when the browser launches and continue running when I close the windows (Mac OS X). As it is, when I close a window but Firefox remains running, the socket closes and I have to restart firefox to get it up an running. How do I go about that?

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  • Calculate order price by date selection value

    - by albatross
    Alright, I know there's a simple way to do this, but it's been years since I've done much javascript My client has an online order form for event registration (developed by previous web dev.). Currently the order total is just a hidden field: <INPUT value=78.00 type=hidden name=amount /> But I need the total to calculate based on what date they choose: <SELECT style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffff99" name=altDate1> <OPTION value=04/09> Friday, April 9 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/14> Wednesday, April 14 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/16> Friday, April 16 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/19> Monday, April 19 </OPTION> <OPTION value=04/29> Thursday, April 29 </OPTION> </SELECT> This is the javascript that process the form: <SCRIPT language=Javascript> function PaymentButtonClick() { document.addform.Product_Name.value = document.Information.StudentLastName.value + ","+ document.Information.StudentFirstName.value+","+ document.Information.StudentID.value+","+ document.Information.altDate1.name+","+","+ document.Information.Guests.value+ "," + document.Information.StudentType.value; document.addform.Product_Code.value = document.Information.StudentID.value; if ((document.Information.UCheck.checked==true) && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "") && (document.Information.altDate1.value != "x")) { if (document.Information.StudentLastName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentFirstName.value != "" || document.Information.StudentID.value != "" ) { document.addform.submit(); } else { alert("Please enter missing information"); } } } </SCRIPT>

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  • How can I create a WebBrowser control (ActiveX / IWebBrowser2) without a UI?

    - by wangminhere
    I cannot figure out how to use the WebBrowser control without having it create a window in the taskbar. I am using the IWebBrowser2 ActiveX control directly because I need to use some of the advanced features like blocking downloading JAVA/ActiveX/images etc. That apparently is not available in the WPF or winforms WebBrowser wrappers (but these wrappers do have the ability to create the control with no UI) Here is my code for creating the control: Type webbrowsertype = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(Iid_Clsids.CLSID_WebBrowser, true); m_WBWebBrowser2 = (IWebBrowser2)System.Activator.CreateInstance(webbrowsertype); m_WBWebBrowser2.Visible = false; m_WBOleObject = (IOleObject)m_WBWebBrowser2; int iret = m_WBOleObject.SetClientSite(this); iret = m_WBOleObject.SetHostNames("me", string.Empty); tagRECT rect = new tagRECT(0, 0, 0, 0); tagMSG nullMsg = new tagMSG(); m_WBOleInPlaceObject = (IOleInPlaceObject)m_WBWebBrowser2; //INPLACEACTIVATE the WB iret = m_WBOleObject.DoVerb((int)OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE, ref nullMsg, this, 0, IntPtr.Zero, ref rect); IConnectionPointContainer cpCont = (IConnectionPointContainer)m_WBWebBrowser2; Guid guid = typeof(DWebBrowserEvents2).GUID; IConnectionPoint m_WBConnectionPoint = null; cpCont.FindConnectionPoint(ref guid, out m_WBConnectionPoint); m_WBConnectionPoint.Advise(this, out m_dwCookie); This code works perfectly but it shows a window in the taskbar. If i omit the DoVerb(OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE) call, then Navigating to a webpage is not working properly. Navigate() will not download everything on the page and it never fires the DocumentComplete event. If I add a DoVerb(OLEIVERB_HIDE) then I get the same behavior as if I omitted the DoVerb(OLEDOVERB.OLEIVERB_INPLACEACTIVATE) call. This seems like a pretty basic question but I couldn't find any examples anywhere.

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  • Basic image resizing in Ruby on Rails

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I'm creating a little photo sharing site for our home's intranet, and I have an upload feature, which uploads the photo at original size into the database. However, I also want to save the photo in four other sizes: W=1024, W=512, W=256 and W=128, but only the sizes smaller than the original size (e.g. if the original width is 511, only generate 256 and 128). How can I implement this? I already have this code to upload the photo: pic.rb <-- model def image_file=(input_data) self.filename = input_data.original_filename self.content_type = input_data.content_type.chomp self.binary_data = input_data.read # here it should generate the smaller sizes #+and save them to self.binary_data_1024, etc... end new.rb <-- view <h1>New pic</h1> <% form_for(@pic, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :title %><br /> <%= f.text_field :title %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :description %><br /> <%= f.text_field :description %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :image_file %><br /> <%= f.file_field :image_file %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Back', pics_path %> Thanks

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  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • How to make this OO?

    - by John
    Hello, Sorry for the poor title,I'm new to OOP so I don't know what is the term for what I need to do. I have, say, 10 different Objects that inherit one Object.They have different amount and type of class members,but all of them have one property in common - Visible. type TObj1=class(TObject) private a:integer; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; TObj2=class(TObject) private b:String; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; ...(Other 8 objects) For each of them I have a variable. var Obj1:TObj1; Obj2:TObj2; Obj3:TObj3; ....(Other 7 objects) Rule 1: Only one object can be initialized at a time(others have to be freed) to be visible. For this rule I have a global variable var CurrentVisibleObj:TObject; //Because they all inherit TObject Finally there is a procedure that changes visibility. procedure ChangeObjVisibility(newObj:TObject); begin CurrentVisibleObj.Free; //Free the old object CurrentVisibleObj:=newObj; //assign the new object CurrentVisibleObj:= ??? //Create new object CurrentVisibleObj.Visible:=true; //Set visibility to new object end; There is my problem,I don't know how to initialize it,because the derived class is unknown. How do I do this? I simplified the explanation,in the project there are TFrames each having different controls and I have to set visible/not visible the same way(By leaving only one frame initialized). Sorry again for the title,I'm very new to OOP.

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  • BindingList<T> and reflection!

    - by Aren B
    Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

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  • Jquery ajax auto complete problem

    - by squeaker
    Hi all, I'm having newbie problems resolving an ajax autocomplete script if anyone would like to offer advise? In my form i wish for users to select an event type (drop down box) which on selecting then displays a text box. This text box then offers a user the ability to autocomplete as they start typing, the options having been generated through AJAX depending on the event type selected. I'm using a mix of http://pengoworks.com/workshop/jquery/autocomplete.htm - to carry out the autocomplete and some basic jquery to identify the value of the event type selected. The problem I have within the code below is to pass the selected event type value, set as the variable 'caturl', into the 'extraParams:{cat:4}' replacing the 4 with the event type dynamically selected. Any help would be greatly received. $('#select').change(function() { $('.eventtype').hide(); $('#eventtype' + $(this).find('option:selected').attr('id')).show(); caturl = $('#select :selected').val(); }); $("#CityAjax").autocomplete( 'caturl.php', { delay:10, minChars:2, matchSubset:1, matchContains:1, cacheLength:10, onItemSelect:selectItem, onFindValue:findValue, formatItem:formatItem, extraParams:{cat:4}, autoFill:true });

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  • Python Process won't call atexit

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to use atexit in a Process, but unfortunately it doesn't seem to work. Here's some example code: import time import atexit import logging import multiprocessing logging.basicConfig(level=logging.DEBUG) class W(multiprocessing.Process): def run(self): logging.debug("%s Started" % self.name) @atexit.register def log_terminate(): # ever called? logging.debug("%s Terminated!" % self.name) while True: time.sleep(10) @atexit.register def log_exit(): logging.debug("Main process terminated") logging.debug("Main process started") a = W() b = W() a.start() b.start() time.sleep(1) a.terminate() b.terminate() The output of this code is: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:Main process terminated I would expect that the W.run.log_terminate() would be called when a.terminate() and b.terminate() are called, and the output to be something likeso (emphasis added)!: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:W-1 Terminated! DEBUG:root:W-2 Terminated! DEBUG:root:Main process terminated Why isn't this working, and is there a better way to log a message (from the Process context) when a Process is terminated? Thank you for your input - it's much appreciated.

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • Hiding Command Prompt with CodeDomProvider

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I've just got my own little custom c# compiler made, using the article from MSDN. But, when I create a new Windows Forms application using my sample compiler, the MSDOS window also appears, and if I close the DOS window, my WinForms app closes too. How can I tell the Compiler? not to show the MSDOS window at all? Thank you :) Here's my code: using System; namespace JTS { public class CSCompiler { protected string ot, rt, ss, es; protected bool rg, cg; public string Compile(String se, String fe, String[] rdas, String[] fs, Boolean rn) { System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider CODEPROV = System.CodeDom.Compiler.CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); ot = fe; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters PARAMS = new System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters(); // Ensure the compiler generates an EXE file, not a DLL. PARAMS.GenerateExecutable = true; PARAMS.OutputAssembly = ot; PARAMS.CompilerOptions = "/target:winexe"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); PARAMS.LinkedResources.Add("this.ico"); foreach (String ay in rdas) { if (ay.Contains(".dll")) PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(ay); else { string refd = ay; refd = refd + ".dll"; PARAMS.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(refd); } } System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerResults rs = CODEPROV.CompileAssemblyFromFile(PARAMS, fs); if (rs.Errors.Count > 0) { foreach (System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerError COMERR in rs.Errors) { es = es + "Line number: " + COMERR.Line + ", Error number: " + COMERR.ErrorNumber + ", '" + COMERR.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { // Compilation succeeded. es = "Compilation Succeeded."; if (rn) System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(ot); } return es; } } }

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by difek
    I have installed SQL Server 2008 R2 on Windows XP. In installation process I selected 'SQL Server and Windows Authentication Mode' When I click right button of the mouse in SQL Server Management Studio on Server - Security tab 'SQL server and Windows Authentication Mode' is selected. But when I click on my Database - Properties - View connection properties Authentication Method is set on Windows Authentication. To my database was added one user1 with password user1. But I can't log in to my database from C# (Visual Studio 2008) because error occurs: Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection What isn't right ? When I get: string connectionStr = @"Data Source=rmzcmp\SQLExpress;Initial Catalog=ResourcesTmp;Integrated Security=True"; I have following error: {"Cannot open database \"ResourcesTmp\" requested by the login. The login failed.\r\nLogin failed for user 'RMZCMP\rm'."} rm is my original user name on which I log in to my computer. When I get rm I have error: {"Login failed for user 'rm'. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection."} again. Regards

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  • How can I randomly iterate through a large Range?

    - by void
    I would like to randomly iterate through a range. Each value will be visited only once and all values will eventually be visited. For example: class Array def shuffle ret = dup j = length i = 0 while j > 1 r = i + rand(j) ret[i], ret[r] = ret[r], ret[i] i += 1 j -= 1 end ret end end (0..9).to_a.shuffle.each{|x| f(x)} where f(x) is some function that operates on each value. A Fisher-Yates shuffle is used to efficiently provide random ordering. My problem is that shuffle needs to operate on an array, which is not cool because I am working with astronomically large numbers. Ruby will quickly consume a large amount of RAM trying to create a monstrous array. Imagine replacing (0..9) with (0..99**99). This is also why the following code will not work: tried = {} # store previous attempts bigint = 99**99 bigint.times { x = rand(bigint) redo if tried[x] tried[x] = true f(x) # some function } This code is very naive and quickly runs out of memory as tried obtains more entries. What sort of algorithm can accomplish what I am trying to do? [Edit1]: Why do I want to do this? I'm trying to exhaust the search space of a hash algorithm for a N-length input string looking for partial collisions. Each number I generate is equivalent to a unique input string, entropy and all. Basically, I'm "counting" using a custom alphabet. [Edit2]: This means that f(x) in the above examples is a method that generates a hash and compares it to a constant, target hash for partial collisions. I do not need to store the value of x after I call f(x) so memory should remain constant over time. [Edit3/4/5/6]: Further clarification/fixes.

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  • Issue with javascript array object

    - by ezhil
    I have the below JSON response. I am using $.getJSON method to loads JSON data and using callback function to do some manipulation by checking whether it is array as below. { "r": [{ "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }] } I am passing the json responses on both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input" as parameter as below. var tablesResult = loadFromJson1(resultstest.r[0].Clg); loadFromJson1 = function (input) { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson1: Inside array function"); var collection = new CompeCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { collection.add(loadFromJson1(modelData)); }); return collection; } return new CompeModel({ compeRates: loadFromJson2(input), compName: input.Name }); }; loadFromJson2 = function (input) // here is the problem, the 'input' is not an array object so it is not going to IF condition of the isArray method. { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson2: Inside array function"); //alert is not coming here though it is an array var rcollect = new rateCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { rcollect.add(modelData); }); return rcollect; } }; The above code i am passing json responses for both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input". isArray is getting true on only loadFromJson1 function and giving alert inside the if condition but not coming in loadFromJson2 function though i am passing the same parameter. can anyone tell me why loadFromJson2 function is not getting the alert inside if condition though i pass array object?

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