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• First web server questions

  - by Graeme

  Hi there, Just looking for some help/suggestions with this. I require my own server for an upcoming project that will be hosting users websites. I want to build a control panel the user can log into and modify their website which will be stored elsewhere on the server. This all seems easy enough, It's just managing domains and emails that confuse me. What should I look for to manage domain names and point them to the correct website and also what would be the best way to manage email accounts/set up new ones etc. I want to avoid cPanel/WHM if possible, I'm looking to control most things through the control panel I will be building. So any suggestions on this would be useful as well, as I will be wanting to add email accounts through php (Can be done using a shell I assume?). I will also be wanting to measure bandwidth used on the websites contained in each users directory, any suggestions on making this possible? I'm really looking for some suggestions on what software to use to set this up, any advice would be really helpful! Thanks, Graeme

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• Network Security Device/Software

  - by Campo

  We currently run Symantec Antivirus Corporate 10.2. The software is really easy to manage on a network but the actual virus detection isn't bad but the malware detection is crap. We recently were infected with a email bot that got us put on some block lists. This has been resolved. I cannot have that happen again. I would like to find a program as easy to manage as symantec that I can install on all the user's workstations as well as the servers. We run a windows 2003 domain. We have a couple 2008 test servers in the environment. Most of the workstations are xp though I am using windows 7 and symantect is not compatible with this OS... So we need a solution that would cover all those operating systems. If it could be installed on macs too that would be a bonus though not necessary at all. This software must detect: Viruses AND Malware I am looking for something that combines the features in anti-malware programs like malwarebytes or spybot with an antivirus program like symantec or AVG. Alternatively if there is a piece of hardware that is a firewall, router, and packet inspection for virus/spam that would be the most ideal solution. I then could supplement with a piece of software that could pickup what the hardware misses. Thank you for your suggestions.

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• Am I able to forward traffic from an external subdomain to a specific local host?

  - by George Bowman

  I apologise in advance if the question doesn't make sense, please let me know. I've got a small LAN (~10 Virtual Servers) using Win Server 2008 as a DNS server. This is behind a smoothwall express 3.0 firewall with ports forwarded for specific services. I have a domain (123-reg) with the NS's that of afraid.org (DynamicDNS) and subdomains pointed to my (Dynamic) IP address e.g. subdomain1.example.com - 123.456.789.101. I think that adequately explains my set up. My question is, am I able to have subdomains e.g. subdomain1.example.com only point to a specific local host? Like so: subdomain1.example.com:80 - firewall(external facing) - server1.example.com:80 subdomain2.example.com:80 - firewall(external facing) - server2.example.com:80 I don't actually necessarily want to use port 80, otherwise I would just use VirtualHosts on apache, it is just an example port. Currently I can use either subdomain1.example.com OR subdomain2.example.com and they will both point to server1.example.com:80 I do not have to stay using Win Server 2008 for DNS, I am more than happy to move over to BIND if needs be, it was just easier to use Win Server 2008's DNS. I do not know if this is even possible, I have a feeling it isn't as I've only got one external IP address but any information is useful!

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• 2 Web Servers, 2 Domains, 1 WAN IP configuration

  - by Tillman32

  The Problem: I have 2 domains, 2 web servers, 1 WAN IP. This is on a home network, so I don't have any crazy router or anything with the right tools, at least I don't think I do. I have a Dlink DIR-655 router. I need to be able to forward the website to the right box. 1 server is hosting www.site1.com, and the other should be hosting, www.site2.com. I forwarded the domain, to a port that is forwarded to that box. wanip:1235, 1235 is then forwarded to the internal IP of site2's server. But when I go to www.site2.com I get the 404 page of www.site1.com. I need www.site2.com to go to the right server. Is this something I can do in the virtual hosts of www.site1.com or is it something else. Also, if this isn't entirely possible, or if its a big process, I can just move www.site1.com to the www.site2.com's server, and use virtual hosts, that is an option that I would be okay with.

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• A duplicate name has been detected on the TCP network

  - by MSedm

  When I installed my domain controller and DNS, I had 2 NIC on the server. Both NIC has its own IP address. NICs are not teamed, they are seperate and ip address are in the same subnet. Both IP address are now registered in the DNS. i found them in Forward and reverse lookup zone. Everything working ok except the following error in the event log. "A duplicate name has been detected on the TCP network......" Now I have realized that this is because of the second NIC. My question is if i disable the second NIC, what happen to those DNS record assiciated with the second ip address? How do I remove all the DNS recored for the disabled NIC? There are A record, some record with the name (same as parent folder), PTR record and may be more. How do i disable second NIC and remove all the associated DNS recoreds? Please help.

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• Old network login passed to IIS

  - by 300 baud

  Let me start by saying that I am not a server guy - I am a developer. But I develop and manage an ASP.NET application that uses Windows authentication. I've run into the problem I am about to describe before, and I would just like to understand how to remedy it since I am the one who always gets the original support request. A user, let's call her JaneDoe, has just gotten married and her login has been changed to JaneJones. We have an application that uses Windows authentication to store the user's login name to a table and then redirects the user to another non-Windows authenticated site with a GUID which points to the table entry we just made. When the user reaches the second site, we read in the login name from the database using the GUID that was passed. Then, we look up the login name in another database where we track application permissions. The problem is that the user is logging into her workstation as JaneJones, but the Windows authenticated site is still receiving a login name of JaneDoe. Is this a domain controller issue? Is it a workstation issue? What's the best way to resolve this?

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• Log in to subdomain via main domain

  - by Mattias

  I have a website, available through multiple domainnames. like www.domain1.com .... www.domain5.com All my customers have their own subdomain. like: customer1.domain1.com customer2.domain1.com .... customer351.domain4.com Currently i dont use SSL, each customer log in their own account via their sub domain. I want to change this, and make all customers log in on a central log in page, that would use SSL, for example. https://login.domain1.com And somehow redirect each user to the correct sub domain adress. (Sub domain that don't use SSL) How do I do this, and maintain security? One idea i had: Login - add random value somewhere in the database, Redirect to subdomain, with querystring the randomvalue. And after that the session takes care of it, Each value can be used once only.. But how secure is that? I guess someone would ask the question "why?" to me. Because SSL costs money. And unfortunately i dont have a lot of it. :D Thanks for your time!

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• Time sync fails on Hyper-V VM, but succeeds when I log in as a domain user

  - by Richard Beier

  We have a Windows Server 2003 SP2 VM running on Hyper-V (Server 2008 R2 host). The VM has Hyper-V time synchronization enabled. I noticed that the time on the VM was fast by around 25 minutes. I saw the following in the event log: The time provider NtpClient is configured to acquire time from one or more time sources, however none of the sources are currently accessible. No attempt to contact a source will be made for 15 minutes. NtpClient has no source of accurate time. The time provider NtpClient cannot reach or is currently receiving invalid time data from ourdc.ourdomain.local (ntp.d|192.168.2.18:123-192.168.2.2:123). Time Provider NtpClient: No valid response has been received from domain controller ourdc.ourdomain.local after 8 attempts to contact it. This domain controller will be discarded as a time source and NtpClient will attempt to discover a new domain controller from which to synchronize. I had been logged in as a local user. (We have an old app that runs on this VM - it requires a user to be logged in at all times, and we use a non-domain user account for this.) When I logged in as a domain user, the clock almost immediately corrected itself. Running "w32tm /monitor" and "net time" as the domain user showed no errors, and indicated that our domain controller was the time source. Does anyone know what might cause this, and why logging in under a domain account fixes the problem? I'm wondering if the time will start to drift again. Thanks for your help, Richard

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• Only one domain is not resolving via Windows DNS server at multiple locations, but is at others

  - by Brett G

  I'm having quite a weird issue. Had mail delivery issues to a specific domain. After looking closer, I realized that the DNS for that domain isn't resolving via the in-house Windows 2003 SP2 DNS server. C:\>nslookup foodmix.net Server: DC.DOMAIN.com Address: 10.1.1.1 DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds. *** Request to DC.DOMAIN.com timed-out (DC.DOMAIN.com and 10.1.1.1 are generic values to replace the actual ones) Even if I run this nslookup from the DC.DOMAIN.com server, I get the same result. However, all other requests are working as they should. I had a sysadmin friend try this DNS lookup on servers at several companies that he consults for (which are also Windows 2003 AD servers). The weird thing is some of these were having the same exact issue. However using public DNS servers work. I have tried clearing the DNS cache, restarting the server, restarting the services, etc. Nothing has worked. One weird event I noticed in the DNS Server Event Logs that might be related is an event ID of 5504 with the following description: The DNS server encountered an invalid domain name in a packet from 192.33.4.12. The packet will be rejected. The event data contains the DNS packet. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. In the data section below, I can see the following mentioned: ns2.webhostingstar.com Which happens to be the nameserver for the domain in question. Several discussion threads and a MS KB have pointed to disabling EDNS. I have done this via "dnscmd /config /enableednsprobes 0" and it has not fixed the issue.

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• Silverlight and clientaccesspolicy.xml

  - by JerA

  I have a silverlight app hosted on "dev.system-engine.com" which creates an tcp connection connecting to "dev.system-engine.com" the silverlight app and the policy file are on the "dev.system-engine.com" webserver. "system-engine.com" and "dev.system-engine.com" are separate servers. I cannot seem to get it to work. I have been struggling with the policyfile. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from> <domain uri="http://dev.system-engine.com:80"/> </allow-from> <grant-to> <domain uri="http://dev.system-engine.com:80"/> <socket-resource port="80" protocol="tcp"/> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"/> </grant-to> </policy>

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• .NET Membership with Repository Pattern

  - by Zac

  My team is in the process of designing a domain model which will hide various different data sources behind a unified repository abstraction. One of the main drivers for this approach is the very high probability that these data sources will undergo significant change in the near future and we don't want to be re-writing business logic when this happens. One data source will be our membership database which was originally implemented using the default ASP.Net Membership Provider. The membership provider is tied to the System.Web.Security namespace but we have a design guideline requiring that our domain model layer is not dependent upon System.Web (or any other implementation/environment dependency) as it will be consumed in different environments - nor do we want our websites directly communicating with databases. I am considering what would be a good approach to reconciling the MembershipProvider approach with our abstracted n-tier architecture. My initial feeling is that we could create a "DomainMembershipProvider" which interacts with the domain model and then implement objects in the model which deal with the repository and handle validation/business logic. The repository would then implement data access using our (as-yet undecided) ORM/data access tool. Are there are any glaring holes in this approach - I haven't worked closely with the MembershipProvider class so may well be missing something. Alternatively, is there an approach that you think will better serve the requirements I described above? Thanks in advance for your thoughts and advice. Regards, Zac

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• Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

  - by Robert Cabri

  I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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• How do browser cookie domains work?

  - by Vilx-

  Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

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• Joomla mailto: sub issue urgent

  - by ramakanth

  Hi I am using this code for an image for mailto: but when subject line is entered it is showing a big unable to parse javascript or something in joomla. mailto:[email protected]?subject=hello Thanks

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• Java (JSP): repeating the contentType header in a "sub-jsp"

  - by Webinator

  What happens when headers are repeated in a .jsp you include in another .jsp? For example if example.jsp starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <div class="content"> <jsp:include page="support-header.jsp"/> ... (it includes support-header.jsp) And then support-header.jsp starts also with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> ... Is that a problem? Is it bad practice? What does concretely happen when you repeat several times a header that only corresponds to one header in the resulting .html page?

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• Fortran arrays and subroutines (sub arrays)

  - by ccook

  I'm going through a Fortran code, and one bit has me a little puzzled. There is a subroutine, say SUBROUTINE SSUB(X,...) REAL*8 X(0:N1,1:N2,0:N3-1),... ... RETURN END Which is called in another subroutine by: CALL SSUB(W(0,1,0,1),...) where W is a 'working array'. It appears that a specific value from W is passed to the X, however, X is dimensioned as an array. What's going on?

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• Domain name rewriting and URL rewriting in the meantime in .htaccess

  - by Steven

  Ugly URLs: www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=1 www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=2 www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=3 ... Friendly URLs: piece.domainname.com/en/1 piece.domainname.com/en/2 piece.domainname.com/en/3 ... I want to present website users only friendly URLs. When I apply RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^en/([^/]*)$ /en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=$1 [L] only the URL is rewrote.Besides the CSS file can not be found in web page of the friendly URL. How to rewrite the domain name and the URL in the meantime? Do I have to use RedirectMatch, if so, how to do it?

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• Domain name rewriting and URL rewriting in the meantime in .htaccess

  - by Steven

  Ugly URLs: www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=1 www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=2 www.domainname.com/en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=3 ... Friendly URLs: piece.domainname.com/en/1 piece.domainname.com/en/2 piece.domainname.com/en/3 ... When I apply RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^en/([^/]*)$ /en/piece/piece.php?piece_id=$1 [L] only the URL is rewrote.Besides the CSS file can not be found in web page of the friendly URL. How to rewrite the domain name and the URL in the meantime? Do I have to use RedirectMatch, if so, how to do it?

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• Cross domain javascript form filling, reverse proxy

  - by Michel van Engelen

  I need a javascript form filler that can bypass the 'same origin policy' most modern browsers implement. I made a script that opens the desired website/form in a new browser. With the handler, returned by the window.open method, I want to retrieve the inputs with theWindowHandler.document.getElementById('inputx') and fill them (access denied). Is it possible to solve this problem by using Isapi Rewrite (official site) in IIS 6 acting like a reverse proxy? If so, how would I configure the reverse proxy? This is how far I got: RewriteEngine on RewriteLogLevel 9 LogLevel debug RewriteRule CarChecker https://the.actualcarchecker.com/CheckCar.aspx$1 [NC,P] The rewrite works, http://ourcompany.com/ourapplication/CarChecker, as evident in the logging. From within our companysite I can run the carchecker as if it was in our own domain. Except, the 'same origin policy' is still in force. Regards, Michel

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• How to recursively display folders and sub folders with specific file types only using PHP5 Recursiv

  - by Jared

  Hi I am trying to get RecursiveDirectoryIterator class using a extension on the FilterIterator to work but for some reason it is iterating on the root directory only. my code is this. class fileTypeFilter extends FilterIterator { public function __construct($path) { parent::__construct(new RecursiveDirectoryIterator($path)); } public function accept() { $file = $this->getInnerIterator()->current(); return preg_match('/\.php/i', $file->getFilename()); } } $it = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator('./'); $it = new fileTypeFilter($it); foreach ($it as $file) { echo $file; } my directory structure is something like this. -Dir1 --file1.php --file2.php -Dir2 --file1.php etc etc But as I said before the class is not recursively iterating over the entire directory structure and is only looking at the root. Question is, how do use a basic RescursiveDirectoryIterator to display folders and then run the FilterIterator to only show the php files in those directorys? Cheers

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• Problem sub-total Matrix with rdlc report in vb.NET

  - by Keven

  Hi everyone, I have a matrix and I need to add the money earned this year and past years. However, I must remove the money spent in past years. I must have the separate amount per year and the total of these amounts. This is what gives my matrix: Year = Fields!Year.value =formatnumber((sum(Fields!Results.Value))-(sum(iif( Fields!Year.value & Parameters!choosedYear.Value, Fields!Moneyspent.value,0))), 2) & "$" However, the subtotal gives me an error. What should I do? P.S.: I already found that the subtotal gives me an error because it's not in the scope of the rowgroup1, but is there a way to get the scope in the subtotal? or can anybody find another way to do it?

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• Crashing HVM domain, what do I do?

  - by rassie

  My DomUs on a Xen 3.4 on an RHEL5 are crashing when too much memory is needed: (XEN) p2m_pod_demand_populate: Out of populate-on-demand memory! (XEN) domain_crash called from p2m.c:1091 (XEN) Domain 15 (vcpu#3) crashed on cpu#2: (XEN) ----[ Xen-3.4.0 x86_64 debug=n Not tainted ]---- (XEN) CPU: 2 (XEN) RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff80062c02>] (XEN) RFLAGS: 0000000000010216 CONTEXT: hvm guest (XEN) rax: 0000000000000000 rbx: 0000000000000001 rcx: 000000000000003f (XEN) rdx: 0000000004812000 rsi: ffff810001000000 rdi: ffff810004812000 (XEN) rbp: 0000000000000282 rsp: ffff810007635cf0 r8: ffff810037c0288e (XEN) r9: 00000000000023e1 r10: 0000000000000000 r11: 0000000000000001 (XEN) r12: ffff81000000cb00 r13: ffff8100007e43f0 r14: ffff81000000fc10 (XEN) r15: 00000000000280d2 cr0: 0000000080050033 cr4: 00000000000006e0 (XEN) cr3: 0000000006760000 cr2: 0000000003d47078 (XEN) ds: 0000 es: 0000 fs: 0000 gs: 0000 ss: 0000 cs: 0010 Can I disable populate-on-demand for HVM somehow? Xen 3.3 didn't exhibit such behaviour...

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• Sub Rectangle or ROI problem in opencv

  - by iva123

  Hi, I'm trying to convert this c code(http://nashruddin.com/OpenCV_Eye_Detection) to the python code, but in c style, he used cvROI thing, since ROI functions are not supported by python-opencv, I tried cvGetSubRect so Here is the eye detection part of the code : eye_region = cvGetSubRect(image,cvRect(face.x,int(face.y + (face.height/4)),face.width,int(face.height/2))) eyes = cvHaarDetectObjects(eye_region,eyeCascade,memo,1.15,3,0,cvSize(25,15)) for e in eyes: cvRectangle(image, cvPoint( int(e.x), int(e.y)), cvPoint(int(e.x + e.width), int(e.y + e.height)), CV_RGB(0, 255, 0), 1, 8, 0) return image; When I run this code, It draws rectangles irrelevant places. I thought, eye_region coordinates are wrong, and tried some coordinates, but it didn't work. Any idea ? Note :Face detection method works very well, and it's code is same with the eye detection method.

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• Add a sub-view to a DetailView UIView in iPad

  - by Elisabeth

  I'm creating a split view controller app, the detail view has a segmented control in a navigation bar at the top. Clicking on a segment will add a new view to the detail view with the appropriate information on it (covering up the DetailViewController's default UIView). I've created two new UIViews, corresponding to each segment, and I'm trying to add them to the view like this (in DetailViewController.m): if (exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == UISegmentedControlNoSegment) { NSLog(@"No segment selected"); } UIView *viewToShow; if (selectedView == 0 && exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == 1) { viewToShow = exerciseSolutionView; } else { viewToShow = exerciseView; } [self.view addSubview:viewToShow]; I see the view appear, but it's in the wrong place, it is placed at the very top of the window, instead of below the navigation bar. In IB, I've created instances of the views, and I've used the Attributes inspector to specify "Navigation Bar" for top bar, which sets the height of the view correctly. But the view is clearly being added too far up in the window - I see the view below it (the DetailViewController's UIView) peaking out at the bottom (I changed the background color so I know which view I'm seeing). Any tips on how to get the subview I'm adding to get placed correctly in the window? Thanks!

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• Compare base class part of sub class instance to another base class instance

  - by Anders Abel

  I have number of DTO classes in a system. They are organized in an inheritance hierarchy. class Person { public int Id { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string ListName { get; set; } } class PersonDetailed : Person { public string WorkPhone { get; set; } public string HomePhone { get; set; } public byte[] Image { get; set; } } The reason for splitting it up is to be able to get a list of people for e.g. search results, without having to drag the heavy image and phone numbers along. Then the full PersonDetail DTO is loaded when the details for one person is selected. The problem I have run into is comparing these when writing unit tests. Assume I have Person p1 = myService.GetAPerson(); PersonDetailed p2 = myService.GetAPersonDetailed(); // How do I compare the base class part of p2 to p1? Assert.AreEqual(p1, p2); The Assert above will fail, as p1 and p2 are different classes. Is it possible to somehow only compare the base class part of p2 to p1? Should I implement IEquatable<> on Person? Other suggestions?

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