Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 213/278 | < Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >

  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

    Read the article

  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

    Read the article

  • Creating 3DES key from bytes

    - by AO
    I create a triple DES key from the a byte array ("skBytes") but when calling getEncoded on the triple DES key ("sk") and comparing it to the byte array, they differ! They are almost the same if you look at the console output, though. How would I create a triple DES key that is exactly as "skBytes"? byte[] skBytes = {(byte) 0x41, (byte) 0x0B, (byte) 0xF0, (byte) 0x9B, (byte) 0xBC, (byte) 0x0E, (byte) 0xC9, (byte) 0x4A, (byte) 0xB5, (byte) 0xCE, (byte) 0x0B, (byte) 0xEA, (byte) 0x05, (byte) 0xEF, (byte) 0x52, (byte) 0x31, (byte) 0xD7, (byte) 0xEC, (byte) 0x2E, (byte) 0x75, (byte) 0xC3, (byte) 0x1D, (byte) 0x3E, (byte) 0x61}; DESedeKeySpec keySpec = new DESedeKeySpec(skBytes); SecretKeyFactory keyFactory = SecretKeyFactory.getInstance("DESede"); SecretKey sk = keyFactory.generateSecret(keySpec); for(int i = 0; i < skBytes.length; i++) { System.out.println("(sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (" + sk.getEncoded()[i] +", " + skBytes[i] + ")"); } Console output: (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (64, 65) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (11, 11) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-15, -16) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-101, -101) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-68, -68) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (14, 14) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-56, -55) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (74, 74) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-75, -75) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-50, -50) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (11, 11) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-22, -22) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (4, 5) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-17, -17) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (82, 82) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (49, 49) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-42, -41) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-20, -20) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (47, 46) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (117, 117) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-62, -61) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (28, 29) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (62, 62) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (97, 97)

    Read the article

  • Python __subclasses__() not listing subclasses

    - by Mridang Agarwalla
    I cant seem to list all derived classes using the __subclasses__() method. Here's my directory layout: import.py backends __init__.py --digger __init__.py base.py test.py --plugins plugina_plugin.py From import.py i'm calling test.py. test.py in turn iterates over all the files in the plugins directory and loads all of them. test.py looks like this: import os import sys import re sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))))) sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))), 'plugins')) from base import BasePlugin class TestImport: def __init__(self): print 'heeeeello' PLUGIN_DIRECTORY = os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))), 'plugins') for filename in os.listdir (PLUGIN_DIRECTORY): # Ignore subfolders if os.path.isdir (os.path.join(PLUGIN_DIRECTORY, filename)): continue else: if re.match(r".*?_plugin\.py$", filename): print ('Initialising plugin : ' + filename) __import__(re.sub(r".py", r"", filename)) print ('Plugin system initialized') print BasePlugin.__subclasses__() The problem us that the __subclasses__() method doesn't show any derived classes. All plugins in the plugins directory derive from a base class in the base.py file. base.py looks like this: class BasePlugin(object): """ Base """ def __init__(self): pass plugina_plugin.py looks like this: from base import BasePlugin class PluginA(BasePlugin): """ Plugin A """ def __init__(self): pass Could anyone help me out with this? Whatm am i doing wrong? I've racked my brains over this but I cant seem to figure it out Thanks.

    Read the article

  • wpf dispatcher/threading issue

    - by phm
    Hello I have a problem in my code and I am not able to fix it at all. private static void SetupImages(object o) { int i = (int)o; BitmapImage bi = GetBitmapObject(i); img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image();//declared as static outside img.Source = bi;//crash here img.Stretch = Stretch.Uniform; img.Margin = new Thickness(5, 5, 5, 5); } which is called like this: for (int i = 0; i < parameters.ListBitmaps.Count; i++) { ParameterizedThreadStart ts = new ParameterizedThreadStart(SetupImages); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(i); t.Join(); //SetupImages(i); parameters.ListImageControls.Add(img); } It always crashes on this line: img.Source = bi; The error is: "An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in WindowsBase.dll Additional information: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." Thanks

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails: How to use a local variable in a collection_select

    - by mmacaulay
    I have a partial view which I'm passing a local variable into: <%= render :partial => "products/product_row", :locals => { :product => product } %> These are rows in a table, and I want to have a <select> in each row for product categories: <%= collection_select(:product, :category_id, @current_user.categories, :id, :name, options = {:prompt => "-- Select a category --"}, html_options = { :id => "", :class => "product_category" }) %> (Note: the id = "" is there because collection_select tries to give all these select elements the same id.) The problem is that I want to have product.category be selected by default and this doesn't work unless I have an instance variable @product. I can't do this in the controller because this is a collection of products. One way I was able to get around this was to have this line just before the collection_select: <% @product = product %> But this seems very hacky and would be a problem if I ever wanted to have an actual instance variable @product in the controller. I guess one workaround would be to name this instance variable something more specific like @product_select_tmp in hopes of not interfering with anything that might be declared in the controller. This still seems very hacky though, and I'd prefer a cleaner solution. Surely there must be a way to have collection_select use a local variable instead of an instance variable. Note that I've tried a few different ways of calling collection_select with no success: <%= collection_select(product, ... <%= collection_select('product', ... etc. Any help greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

    Read the article

  • Can I load a UIImage from a URL?

    - by progrmr
    I have a URL for an image (got it from UIImagePickerController) but I no longer have the image in memory (the URL was saved from a previous run of the app). Can I reload the UIImage from the URL again? I see that UIImage has a imageWithContentsOfFile: but I have a URL. Can I use NSData's dataWithContentsOfURL: to read the URL? EDIT based on @Daniel's answer I tried the following code but it doesn't work... NSLog(@"%s %@", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__, photoURL); if (photoURL) { NSURL* aURL = [NSURL URLWithString:photoURL]; NSData* data = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:aURL]; self.photoImage = [UIImage imageWithData:data]; [data release]; } When I ran it the console shows: -[PhotoBox willMoveToWindow:] file://localhost/Users/gary/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/3.2/Media/DCIM/100APPLE/IMG_0004.JPG *** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0' Looking at the call stack, I'm calling URLWithString, which calls URLWithString:relativeToURL:, then initWithString:relativeToURL:, then _CFStringIsLegalURLString, then CFStringGetLength, then forwarding_prep_0, then forwarding, then -[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector]. Any ideas why my NSString (photoURL's address is 0x536fbe0) doesn't respond to length? Why does it say it doesn't respond to -[NSURL length]? Doesn't it know that param is an NSString, not a NSURL?

    Read the article

  • jquery animation headache

    - by OneNerd
    Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

    Read the article

  • How to Change an MFC Modeless Dialog to be the child of a CView in an MDI application?

    - by Kieveli
    I have an MFC application that is a Doc/View/Frame implementation. One dialog is running as a modeless dialog which pops up on demand (from a menu option). I'm looking to add the modeless dialog to an MDI child view. Basically, I want to load the template from the resource file, and create it as a child of the CView in my new trio (doc/view/frame) that I am adding to the template lists for the MDI. I've tried a few things in my derived CMyView class: void CMyView::OnInitialUpdate() { m_ListDialog = new Dialogs::CListDialog( m_config, this ); m_ListDialog->Create( Dialogs::CListDialog::IDD, this ); m_ListDialog->ShowWindow( SW_SHOW ); } I've tried calling SetWindowPos, ModifyStyle (WS_CHILD, WS_VISIBLE, DS_CONTROL). I've tried modifying the resource file to set the child and control manually. Everytime it calls Create, the ListDialog's m_hWnd is left as 0. This tells me it's not getting created properly. Any call to SetWindowPos() or ShowWindow() fails because the m_hWnd is 0 (debug assertion fails). What do I need to do to get a modeless dialog to be constructed, created, and appear as a child to CMyView in my MDI application?

    Read the article

  • Add Ellipsis to a Path in a WinForms Program without Win32 API call (revisited)

    - by casterle
    I was searching for a way to insert an ellipsis in a C# path, and found an answer here on stackoverflow: http://tinyurl.com/y6rmdfr Using the RTM versions of VS2010 and .Net 4.0, I was unable to get the suggested method to work. I searched the 'Net and found example code that uses the same method, but it failed in the same way. You can see the string I'm trying to shorten in my code below. After calling the MeasureText method, both the input string (OriginalName) and the output string (ellipsisedName) look like this: d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\...\test.txt\0F\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt Two problems: 1) The resulting string is narfed (the path is truncated as expected, but is followed by what looks like a C-style terminating null and a chunk of the original path). 2) My original string is changed to be identical to the output string. Am I doing something wrong? namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); string OriginalPath = @"d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\uvwx\yzAB\CDEF\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt"; string ellipsisedPath = OriginalPath; Size proposedSize = new Size(label1.Width, label1.Height); TextRenderer.MeasureText(ellipsisedPath, label1.Font, proposedSize, TextFormatFlags.ModifyString | TextFormatFlags.PathEllipsis); } } }

    Read the article

  • Shutting down a windows service that has threads

    - by Dave
    I have a windows service written in .NET 3.5 (c#) with a System.Threading.Timer that spawns several Threads in each callback. These are just normal threads (no Thread Pool) and I've set the IsBackground = true on each thread since I'm only going to be running managed code. When a user stops the service, what happens to all the threads? Do they die gracefully? I don't have any code that manages the threads via calling join or abort. Is it correct to assume the IsBackground = true is enough to assume the threads will be disposed and stopped when a user stops the service? What exactly happens when someone stops a windows service via the Service Manager GUI? Does it kill the process after it fires the OnStop event? This would actually be acceptable for me because I've built a separate mechanism that allows a user know for sure there are no threads before they stop the service. This is done via 2 WCF methods exposed from a ServiceHost that runs inside the Windows Service. There's one method to stop spawning new threads and another method to query how many running threads there are left. I'm just curious what happens if they skip those steps and just stop the service... It seems the IsBackground helps achieve this:

    Read the article

  • special debugging lines (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

    Read the article

  • Resume Activity with back button

    - by Hallik
    I have an application I am creating with a DashboardActivity & a SettingsActivity. On the dashboard, I have one object displayed, but when I go into settings, I want to be able to select/deselect X options. Once the user clicks the back button, I save that data locally and to the server. Once the phone receives a success message from the server that it was stored properly, I want to reload the dashboard. I thought I would do this with the onPause and onResume, but they are called when the DashboardActivity is first created. What would be the best way to reload the dashboard by calling my web service after the settings were saved to the server? Here is what I am doing when the back button is hit @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //Save data to the server once the user hits the back button if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK)) { SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy = new DivisionProxy(SchoolSearchActivity.this.saveUserDivisionHandler); SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy.submitUserDivisions(SchoolSearchActivity.this.userDivisions, SchoolSearchActivity.this.user_id); //SchoolSearchActivity.this.finish(); //Toast.makeText(SchoolSearchActivity.this, "Divisions Saved",Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } return true; } The above opens an HTTP connection, and when the response is received, the handler processes the response. I am going to: 1) throw up a progress dialog box letting the user know it's being submitted to the server, and once a response is received, 2) go back to the previous activity and call the "refresh" webservice again. What's the best way to accomplish 1 & 2?

    Read the article

  • Memory leak when returning object

    - by Yakattak
    I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

    Read the article

  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

    Read the article

  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

    Read the article

  • What does 'postMessage()' do when called on an object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • java applet stops running on exceptions

    - by Marius
    I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

    Read the article

  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

    Read the article

  • T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

    - by artvolk
    In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

    Read the article

  • Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

    - by Phil Nash
    We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >