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• Shutting down a windows service that has threads

  - by Dave

  I have a windows service written in .NET 3.5 (c#) with a System.Threading.Timer that spawns several Threads in each callback. These are just normal threads (no Thread Pool) and I've set the IsBackground = true on each thread since I'm only going to be running managed code. When a user stops the service, what happens to all the threads? Do they die gracefully? I don't have any code that manages the threads via calling join or abort. Is it correct to assume the IsBackground = true is enough to assume the threads will be disposed and stopped when a user stops the service? What exactly happens when someone stops a windows service via the Service Manager GUI? Does it kill the process after it fires the OnStop event? This would actually be acceptable for me because I've built a separate mechanism that allows a user know for sure there are no threads before they stop the service. This is done via 2 WCF methods exposed from a ServiceHost that runs inside the Windows Service. There's one method to stop spawning new threads and another method to query how many running threads there are left. I'm just curious what happens if they skip those steps and just stop the service... It seems the IsBackground helps achieve this:

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• Running an executable on network share with CustomAction with wix?

  - by martin

  Hello, i have created a msi-package which compresses some xml-files to a zip-file during installation. I have created a CustomAction for this purposes: <CustomAction Id="CompressMy" BinaryKey="zipEXE" ExeCommand="a -tzip &quot;[TEMPLATE_DIR]my.zip&quot; &quot;[TempSourceFolder]data.xml&quot;" Return="check" HideTarget="no" Impersonate="no" Execute="deferred" /> The installation works fine, if i try to install to a local drive, but recently a customer wanted to install [TEMPLATE_DIR] to a network drive on Windows Vista. The CustomAction fails, because of the elevated install-user hasn't mapped the network drive, even if the installer-calling user has mapped the drive. This happens also, if I try to install to an unc-path. I use 7zip for compressing. I have added it to my msi-package. I have tried to set Impersonate="yes", but then the Installations fails, if my TEMPLATE_DIR is f.e. the ProgramData-dir. Do you have any idea what i can do? I thinked about checking if TEMPLATE_DIR is a network path, but I didn't know how i can check this. Or do you have any other Ideas how I can provide a local and a network installation while using this custom action. Would be great if there are any advices, greetings, Martin

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• How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

  - by Philip

  I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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• Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

  - by Axarydax

  Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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• How can we change views in a UISplitViewController other than using the popover and selecting?

  - by wolverine

  I have done a sample app with UISplitViewController studying the example they have provided. I have created three detailviews and have configured them to change by the default means. Either using the left/master view in landscape AND using the popover in the portrait orientation. Now I am trying to move to another view(previous/next) from the currentView by using left/right swipe in each view. For that, what I did was just created a function in the RootViewController. I copy-pasted the same code as that of the tablerow selection used by the popover from the RootViewController. I am calling this function from my current view's controller and is passing the respective index of the view(to be displayed next) from the current view. Function is being called but nothing is happening. Plz help me OR is anyother way to do it other than this complex step? I am giving the function that I used to change the view. - (void) rearrangeViews:(int)viewRow { UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (viewRow == 0) { DetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 2) { ThirdDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[ThirdDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ThirdDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; if (rootPopoverButtonItem != nil) { [detailViewController showRootPopoverButtonItem:self.rootPopoverButtonItem]; } [detailViewController release]; }

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

  - by Josh Kahane

  I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

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• debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

  - by pcampbell

  Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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• How to Change an MFC Modeless Dialog to be the child of a CView in an MDI application?

  - by Kieveli

  I have an MFC application that is a Doc/View/Frame implementation. One dialog is running as a modeless dialog which pops up on demand (from a menu option). I'm looking to add the modeless dialog to an MDI child view. Basically, I want to load the template from the resource file, and create it as a child of the CView in my new trio (doc/view/frame) that I am adding to the template lists for the MDI. I've tried a few things in my derived CMyView class: void CMyView::OnInitialUpdate() { m_ListDialog = new Dialogs::CListDialog( m_config, this ); m_ListDialog->Create( Dialogs::CListDialog::IDD, this ); m_ListDialog->ShowWindow( SW_SHOW ); } I've tried calling SetWindowPos, ModifyStyle (WS_CHILD, WS_VISIBLE, DS_CONTROL). I've tried modifying the resource file to set the child and control manually. Everytime it calls Create, the ListDialog's m_hWnd is left as 0. This tells me it's not getting created properly. Any call to SetWindowPos() or ShowWindow() fails because the m_hWnd is 0 (debug assertion fails). What do I need to do to get a modeless dialog to be constructed, created, and appear as a child to CMyView in my MDI application?

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• Ruby on Rails: How to use a local variable in a collection_select

  - by mmacaulay

  I have a partial view which I'm passing a local variable into: <%= render :partial => "products/product_row", :locals => { :product => product } %> These are rows in a table, and I want to have a <select> in each row for product categories: <%= collection_select(:product, :category_id, @current_user.categories, :id, :name, options = {:prompt => "-- Select a category --"}, html_options = { :id => "", :class => "product_category" }) %> (Note: the id = "" is there because collection_select tries to give all these select elements the same id.) The problem is that I want to have product.category be selected by default and this doesn't work unless I have an instance variable @product. I can't do this in the controller because this is a collection of products. One way I was able to get around this was to have this line just before the collection_select: <% @product = product %> But this seems very hacky and would be a problem if I ever wanted to have an actual instance variable @product in the controller. I guess one workaround would be to name this instance variable something more specific like @product_select_tmp in hopes of not interfering with anything that might be declared in the controller. This still seems very hacky though, and I'd prefer a cleaner solution. Surely there must be a way to have collection_select use a local variable instead of an instance variable. Note that I've tried a few different ways of calling collection_select with no success: <%= collection_select(product, ... <%= collection_select('product', ... etc. Any help greatly appreciated!

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• Creating 3DES key from bytes

  - by AO

  I create a triple DES key from the a byte array ("skBytes") but when calling getEncoded on the triple DES key ("sk") and comparing it to the byte array, they differ! They are almost the same if you look at the console output, though. How would I create a triple DES key that is exactly as "skBytes"? byte[] skBytes = {(byte) 0x41, (byte) 0x0B, (byte) 0xF0, (byte) 0x9B, (byte) 0xBC, (byte) 0x0E, (byte) 0xC9, (byte) 0x4A, (byte) 0xB5, (byte) 0xCE, (byte) 0x0B, (byte) 0xEA, (byte) 0x05, (byte) 0xEF, (byte) 0x52, (byte) 0x31, (byte) 0xD7, (byte) 0xEC, (byte) 0x2E, (byte) 0x75, (byte) 0xC3, (byte) 0x1D, (byte) 0x3E, (byte) 0x61}; DESedeKeySpec keySpec = new DESedeKeySpec(skBytes); SecretKeyFactory keyFactory = SecretKeyFactory.getInstance("DESede"); SecretKey sk = keyFactory.generateSecret(keySpec); for(int i = 0; i < skBytes.length; i++) { System.out.println("(sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (" + sk.getEncoded()[i] +", " + skBytes[i] + ")"); } Console output: (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (64, 65) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (11, 11) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-15, -16) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-101, -101) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-68, -68) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (14, 14) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-56, -55) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (74, 74) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-75, -75) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-50, -50) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (11, 11) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-22, -22) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (4, 5) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-17, -17) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (82, 82) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (49, 49) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-42, -41) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-20, -20) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (47, 46) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (117, 117) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (-62, -61) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (28, 29) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (62, 62) (sk.getEncoded()[i], skBytes[i]) = (97, 97)

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• wpf dispatcher/threading issue

  - by phm

  Hello I have a problem in my code and I am not able to fix it at all. private static void SetupImages(object o) { int i = (int)o; BitmapImage bi = GetBitmapObject(i); img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image();//declared as static outside img.Source = bi;//crash here img.Stretch = Stretch.Uniform; img.Margin = new Thickness(5, 5, 5, 5); } which is called like this: for (int i = 0; i < parameters.ListBitmaps.Count; i++) { ParameterizedThreadStart ts = new ParameterizedThreadStart(SetupImages); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(i); t.Join(); //SetupImages(i); parameters.ListImageControls.Add(img); } It always crashes on this line: img.Source = bi; The error is: "An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in WindowsBase.dll Additional information: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." Thanks

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• Python __subclasses__() not listing subclasses

  - by Mridang Agarwalla

  I cant seem to list all derived classes using the __subclasses__() method. Here's my directory layout: import.py backends __init__.py --digger __init__.py base.py test.py --plugins plugina_plugin.py From import.py i'm calling test.py. test.py in turn iterates over all the files in the plugins directory and loads all of them. test.py looks like this: import os import sys import re sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))))) sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))), 'plugins')) from base import BasePlugin class TestImport: def __init__(self): print 'heeeeello' PLUGIN_DIRECTORY = os.path.join(os.path.abspath(os.path.dirname(os.path.abspath( __file__ ))), 'plugins') for filename in os.listdir (PLUGIN_DIRECTORY): # Ignore subfolders if os.path.isdir (os.path.join(PLUGIN_DIRECTORY, filename)): continue else: if re.match(r".*?_plugin\.py$", filename): print ('Initialising plugin : ' + filename) __import__(re.sub(r".py", r"", filename)) print ('Plugin system initialized') print BasePlugin.__subclasses__() The problem us that the __subclasses__() method doesn't show any derived classes. All plugins in the plugins directory derive from a base class in the base.py file. base.py looks like this: class BasePlugin(object): """ Base """ def __init__(self): pass plugina_plugin.py looks like this: from base import BasePlugin class PluginA(BasePlugin): """ Plugin A """ def __init__(self): pass Could anyone help me out with this? Whatm am i doing wrong? I've racked my brains over this but I cant seem to figure it out Thanks.

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• Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

  - by konathamrajesh

  The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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• Memory leak when returning object

  - by Yakattak

  I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

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• Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

  - by jon hanson

  A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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• special debugging lines (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• jquery animation headache

  - by OneNerd

  Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

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• Prettify working using python idle but not when using python script

  - by Loclip

  So when I use print soup.prettify() on idle it's prettifying my html but when I calling the script from server the prettify() not working #!/usr/bin/python import cgi, cgitb, urllib2, sys from bs4 import BeautifulSoup styles = [] i = 1 site = "www.example.com" page = urllib2.urlopen(site) soup = BeautifulSoup(page) table = soup.find('table', {'class' :'style5'}) alltd = table.findAll('td') allspans = table.findAll('span') while i<55: styles.append("style" + str(i)) i+=1 for td in alltd: if any(x in td["class"] for x in styles): td["class"] = "align" for span in allspans: span.replaceWithChildren() print "Content-type: text/html" print print "<!DOCTYPE html>" print "<html>" print "<head>" print '<meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">' print '<link rel="stylesheet" href="lightbox/css/lightbox.css" type="text/css" media="screen">' print '<style type="text/css">' print "body {background-color:#b0c4de;}" print '.align {text-align: center;}' print "</style>" print "</head>" print "<body>" print table.pretiffy() print "</body>" print "</html>"

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• Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

  - by dotnet crazy kid

  I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

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• In Ruby, why does a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is use

  - by Jian Lin

  The following question is related to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2127836/ruby-print-inject-do-syntax The question is, can we insist on using DO and END and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work? What if a programmer insists that he uses do and end, can it be made to work directly with p or puts, without an extra temporary variable?

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• T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

  - by artvolk

  In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

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• Generating dynamic css using php and javascript

  - by Onkar Deshpande

  I want to generate tooltip based on a dynamically changing background image in css. This is my my_css.php file. <?php header('content-type: text/css'); $i = $_GET['index']; if($i == 0) $bg_image_path = "../bg_red.jpg"; elseif ($i == 1) $bg_image_path = "../bg_yellow.jpg"; elseif ($i == 2) $bg_image_path = "../bg_green.jpg"; elseif ($i == 3) $bg_image_path = "../bg_blue.jpg"; ?> .tooltip { white-space: nowrap; color:green; font-weight:bold; border:1px solid black;; font-size:14px; background-color: white; margin: 0; padding: 7px 4px; border: 1px solid black; background-image: url(<?php echo $bg_image_path; ?>); background-repeat:repeat-x; font-family: Helvetica,Arial,Sans-Serif; font-family: Times New Roman,Georgia,Serif; filter:alpha(opacity=85); opacity:0.85; zoom: 1; } In order to use this css I added <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/my_css.php" type="text/css" media="screen" /> in my html <head> tag of javascript code. I am thinking of passing different values of 'index' so that it would generate the background image dynamically. Can anyone tell me how should I pass such values from a javascript ? I am creating the tooltip using var tooltip = document.createElement("div"); document.getElementById("map").appendChild(tooltip); tooltip.style.visibility="hidden"; and I think before calling this createElement, I should set background image.

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