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• Running an executable on network share with CustomAction with wix?

  - by martin

  Hello, i have created a msi-package which compresses some xml-files to a zip-file during installation. I have created a CustomAction for this purposes: <CustomAction Id="CompressMy" BinaryKey="zipEXE" ExeCommand="a -tzip &quot;[TEMPLATE_DIR]my.zip&quot; &quot;[TempSourceFolder]data.xml&quot;" Return="check" HideTarget="no" Impersonate="no" Execute="deferred" /> The installation works fine, if i try to install to a local drive, but recently a customer wanted to install [TEMPLATE_DIR] to a network drive on Windows Vista. The CustomAction fails, because of the elevated install-user hasn't mapped the network drive, even if the installer-calling user has mapped the drive. This happens also, if I try to install to an unc-path. I use 7zip for compressing. I have added it to my msi-package. I have tried to set Impersonate="yes", but then the Installations fails, if my TEMPLATE_DIR is f.e. the ProgramData-dir. Do you have any idea what i can do? I thinked about checking if TEMPLATE_DIR is a network path, but I didn't know how i can check this. Or do you have any other Ideas how I can provide a local and a network installation while using this custom action. Would be great if there are any advices, greetings, Martin

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• wpf dispatcher/threading issue

  - by phm

  Hello I have a problem in my code and I am not able to fix it at all. private static void SetupImages(object o) { int i = (int)o; BitmapImage bi = GetBitmapObject(i); img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image();//declared as static outside img.Source = bi;//crash here img.Stretch = Stretch.Uniform; img.Margin = new Thickness(5, 5, 5, 5); } which is called like this: for (int i = 0; i < parameters.ListBitmaps.Count; i++) { ParameterizedThreadStart ts = new ParameterizedThreadStart(SetupImages); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(i); t.Join(); //SetupImages(i); parameters.ListImageControls.Add(img); } It always crashes on this line: img.Source = bi; The error is: "An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in WindowsBase.dll Additional information: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." Thanks

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• Memory leak when returning object

  - by Yakattak

  I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

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• Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

  - by jon hanson

  A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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• How can we change views in a UISplitViewController other than using the popover and selecting?

  - by wolverine

  I have done a sample app with UISplitViewController studying the example they have provided. I have created three detailviews and have configured them to change by the default means. Either using the left/master view in landscape AND using the popover in the portrait orientation. Now I am trying to move to another view(previous/next) from the currentView by using left/right swipe in each view. For that, what I did was just created a function in the RootViewController. I copy-pasted the same code as that of the tablerow selection used by the popover from the RootViewController. I am calling this function from my current view's controller and is passing the respective index of the view(to be displayed next) from the current view. Function is being called but nothing is happening. Plz help me OR is anyother way to do it other than this complex step? I am giving the function that I used to change the view. - (void) rearrangeViews:(int)viewRow { UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (viewRow == 0) { DetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (viewRow == 2) { ThirdDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[ThirdDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ThirdDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers; [viewControllers release]; if (rootPopoverButtonItem != nil) { [detailViewController showRootPopoverButtonItem:self.rootPopoverButtonItem]; } [detailViewController release]; }

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• Can I load a UIImage from a URL?

  - by progrmr

  I have a URL for an image (got it from UIImagePickerController) but I no longer have the image in memory (the URL was saved from a previous run of the app). Can I reload the UIImage from the URL again? I see that UIImage has a imageWithContentsOfFile: but I have a URL. Can I use NSData's dataWithContentsOfURL: to read the URL? EDIT based on @Daniel's answer I tried the following code but it doesn't work... NSLog(@"%s %@", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__, photoURL); if (photoURL) { NSURL* aURL = [NSURL URLWithString:photoURL]; NSData* data = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:aURL]; self.photoImage = [UIImage imageWithData:data]; [data release]; } When I ran it the console shows: -[PhotoBox willMoveToWindow:] file://localhost/Users/gary/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/3.2/Media/DCIM/100APPLE/IMG_0004.JPG *** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0' Looking at the call stack, I'm calling URLWithString, which calls URLWithString:relativeToURL:, then initWithString:relativeToURL:, then _CFStringIsLegalURLString, then CFStringGetLength, then forwarding_prep_0, then forwarding, then -[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector]. Any ideas why my NSString (photoURL's address is 0x536fbe0) doesn't respond to length? Why does it say it doesn't respond to -[NSURL length]? Doesn't it know that param is an NSString, not a NSURL?

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• Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

  - by Axarydax

  Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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• Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

  - by whiskerz

  Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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• special debugging lines (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• jquery animation headache

  - by OneNerd

  Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

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• java applet stops running on exceptions

  - by Marius

  I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

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• Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

  - by Phil Nash

  We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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• Ruby on Rails: How to use a local variable in a collection_select

  - by mmacaulay

  I have a partial view which I'm passing a local variable into: <%= render :partial => "products/product_row", :locals => { :product => product } %> These are rows in a table, and I want to have a <select> in each row for product categories: <%= collection_select(:product, :category_id, @current_user.categories, :id, :name, options = {:prompt => "-- Select a category --"}, html_options = { :id => "", :class => "product_category" }) %> (Note: the id = "" is there because collection_select tries to give all these select elements the same id.) The problem is that I want to have product.category be selected by default and this doesn't work unless I have an instance variable @product. I can't do this in the controller because this is a collection of products. One way I was able to get around this was to have this line just before the collection_select: <% @product = product %> But this seems very hacky and would be a problem if I ever wanted to have an actual instance variable @product in the controller. I guess one workaround would be to name this instance variable something more specific like @product_select_tmp in hopes of not interfering with anything that might be declared in the controller. This still seems very hacky though, and I'd prefer a cleaner solution. Surely there must be a way to have collection_select use a local variable instead of an instance variable. Note that I've tried a few different ways of calling collection_select with no success: <%= collection_select(product, ... <%= collection_select('product', ... etc. Any help greatly appreciated!

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• Resume Activity with back button

  - by Hallik

  I have an application I am creating with a DashboardActivity & a SettingsActivity. On the dashboard, I have one object displayed, but when I go into settings, I want to be able to select/deselect X options. Once the user clicks the back button, I save that data locally and to the server. Once the phone receives a success message from the server that it was stored properly, I want to reload the dashboard. I thought I would do this with the onPause and onResume, but they are called when the DashboardActivity is first created. What would be the best way to reload the dashboard by calling my web service after the settings were saved to the server? Here is what I am doing when the back button is hit @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //Save data to the server once the user hits the back button if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK)) { SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy = new DivisionProxy(SchoolSearchActivity.this.saveUserDivisionHandler); SchoolSearchActivity.this.divisionProxy.submitUserDivisions(SchoolSearchActivity.this.userDivisions, SchoolSearchActivity.this.user_id); //SchoolSearchActivity.this.finish(); //Toast.makeText(SchoolSearchActivity.this, "Divisions Saved",Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } return true; } The above opens an HTTP connection, and when the response is received, the handler processes the response. I am going to: 1) throw up a progress dialog box letting the user know it's being submitted to the server, and once a response is received, 2) go back to the previous activity and call the "refresh" webservice again. What's the best way to accomplish 1 & 2?

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• Shutting down a windows service that has threads

  - by Dave

  I have a windows service written in .NET 3.5 (c#) with a System.Threading.Timer that spawns several Threads in each callback. These are just normal threads (no Thread Pool) and I've set the IsBackground = true on each thread since I'm only going to be running managed code. When a user stops the service, what happens to all the threads? Do they die gracefully? I don't have any code that manages the threads via calling join or abort. Is it correct to assume the IsBackground = true is enough to assume the threads will be disposed and stopped when a user stops the service? What exactly happens when someone stops a windows service via the Service Manager GUI? Does it kill the process after it fires the OnStop event? This would actually be acceptable for me because I've built a separate mechanism that allows a user know for sure there are no threads before they stop the service. This is done via 2 WCF methods exposed from a ServiceHost that runs inside the Windows Service. There's one method to stop spawning new threads and another method to query how many running threads there are left. I'm just curious what happens if they skip those steps and just stop the service... It seems the IsBackground helps achieve this:

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• Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

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• Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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• what is the point of heterogenous arrays?

  - by aharon

  I know that more-dynamic-than-Java languages, like Python and Ruby, often allow you to place objects of mixed types in arrays, like so: ["hello", 120, ["world"]] What I don't understand is why you would ever use a feature like this. If I want to store heterogenous data in Java, I'll usually create an object for it. For example, say a User has int ID and String name. While I see that in Python/Ruby/PHP you could do something like this: [["John Smith", 000], ["Smith John", 001], ...] this seems a bit less safe/OO than creating a class User with attributes ID and name and then having your array: [<User: name="John Smith", id=000>, <User: name="Smith John", id=001>, ...] where those <User ...> things represent User objects. Is there reason to use the former over the latter in languages that support it? Or is there some bigger reason to use heterogenous arrays? N.B. I am not talking about arrays that include different objects that all implement the same interface or inherit from the same parent, e.g.: class Square extends Shape class Triangle extends Shape [new Square(), new Triangle()] because that is, to the programmer at least, still a homogenous array as you'll be doing the same thing with each shape (e.g., calling the draw() method), only the methods commonly defined between the two.

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• How do I update blackberry UI items from a thread?

  - by Andrei T. Ursan

  public class PlayText extends Thread { private int duration; private String text; private PlayerScreen playerscrn; public PlayText(String text, int duration) { this.duration = duration; this.text = text; this.playerscrn = (PlayerScreen)UiApplication.getUiApplication().getActiveScreen(); } public void run() { synchronized(UiApplication.getEventLock()) { try{ RichTextField text1player = new RichTextField(this.text, Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text1player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(this.duration); RichTextField text2player = new RichTextField("hahhaha", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text2player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(1000); RichTextField text3player = new RichTextField("Done", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text3player); playerscrn.invalidate(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("I HAVE AN ERROR"); } } } } With the above code I'm trying to create a small text player. Instead to get all the text labels one by one, something like display text1player wait this.duration milliseconds display text2player wait 1000 milliseconds display text3player thread done. The screens waits this.duration + 1000 milliseconds and displays all the labels at once. I tried with a runnable and calling .invokeLater or .invokeAndWait but I still get the same behavior, and even if I get dirty like above using synchronized it still doesn't work. Does anyone know how I can display each label at a time? Thank you!

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• How to Change an MFC Modeless Dialog to be the child of a CView in an MDI application?

  - by Kieveli

  I have an MFC application that is a Doc/View/Frame implementation. One dialog is running as a modeless dialog which pops up on demand (from a menu option). I'm looking to add the modeless dialog to an MDI child view. Basically, I want to load the template from the resource file, and create it as a child of the CView in my new trio (doc/view/frame) that I am adding to the template lists for the MDI. I've tried a few things in my derived CMyView class: void CMyView::OnInitialUpdate() { m_ListDialog = new Dialogs::CListDialog( m_config, this ); m_ListDialog->Create( Dialogs::CListDialog::IDD, this ); m_ListDialog->ShowWindow( SW_SHOW ); } I've tried calling SetWindowPos, ModifyStyle (WS_CHILD, WS_VISIBLE, DS_CONTROL). I've tried modifying the resource file to set the child and control manually. Everytime it calls Create, the ListDialog's m_hWnd is left as 0. This tells me it's not getting created properly. Any call to SetWindowPos() or ShowWindow() fails because the m_hWnd is 0 (debug assertion fails). What do I need to do to get a modeless dialog to be constructed, created, and appear as a child to CMyView in my MDI application?

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• Using unset member variables within a class or struct

  - by Doug Kavendek

  It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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• What does 'postMessage()' do when called on an object tag?

  - by Stephano

  I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. Any ideas?

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• qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

  - by tonsils

  Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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• How to implement progressbar(to show progress) using threading concept in win 32?

  - by Rakesh

  I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below i am upto the point of creating the progress bar in a dialog window and creating a thread Now I dont know how to post the message and where to get the message and handle...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } //SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETSTEP,1,0); } }

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