Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 213/278 | < Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >

  • Not able to display the progress bar using threading concept?

    - by Rakesh
    I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below ...I am able to display the progressbar but it doesnt show any progress..actually its not doing any further process...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { MSG msg; HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETRANGE,0,MAKELPARAM(0,noOfFile)); while(GetMessage(&msg,NULL,0,0)) { TranslateMessage(&msg); Dispatch(&message); } HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } PostMessage(pBar,PBM_SETPOS,(WPARAM)index,0); } }

    Read the article

  • Flash External Interface issue with Firefox

    - by majestiq
    I am having a hard time getting ExternalInterface to work on Firefox. I am trying to call a AS3 function from javascript. The SWF is setup with the right callbacks and it is working in IE. I am using AC_RunActiveContent.js to embed the swf into my page. However, I have modified it to add an ID to the Object / Embed Tags. Below are object and embed tag that are generated for IE and for Firefox respectively. <object codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="400" height="400" align="middle" id="jpeg_encoder2" name="jpeg_encoder3" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" > <param name="movie" value="/jpeg_encoder/jpeg_encoder3.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="scale" value="showall" /> <param name="wmode" value="window" /> <param name="devicefont" value="false" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <param name="menu" value="false" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> </object> <embed width="400" height="400" src="/jpeg_encoder/jpeg_encoder3.swf" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" align="middle" play="true" loop="true" scale="showall" wmode="window" devicefont="false" id="jpeg_encoder2" bgcolor="#ffffff" name="jpeg_encoder3" menu="false" allowFullScreen="false" allowScriptAccess="always" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" > </embed> I am calling the function like this... <script> try { document.getElementById('jpeg_encoder2').processImage(z); } catch (e) { alert(e.message); } </script> In Firefox, I get an error saying "document.getElementById("jpeg_encoder2").processImage is not a function" Any Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Actual element tags are not getting captured.

    - by user323719
    I am using the below piece of XSL code to construct a span tag calling a javascript function on mouseover. The input to the javascipt should be a html table. The output from the variable "showContent" gives just the text content but not along with the table tags. How can this be resolved. XSL: <xsl:variable name="aTable" as="element()*"> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <xsl:for-each select="$capturedTags"> <tr><td><xsl:value-of select="node()" /></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="start" select='concat("Tip(&#39;", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="end" select='concat("&#39;)", "")'></xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="showContent"> <xsl:value-of select='concat($start,$aTable,$end)'/> </xsl:variable> <span xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" onmouseout="{$hideContent}" onmouseover="{$showContent}" id="{$textNodeId}"><xsl:value-of select="$textNode"></xsl:value-of></span> Actual Output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('content1')" id="d1t14"is my </span Expected output: <span onmouseout="UnTip()" onmouseover="Tip('<table><tr><td>content1</td></tr>')" id="d1t14">is my </span> What is the change that needs to done in the above XSL for the table, tr and td tags to get passed?

    Read the article

  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

    Read the article

  • Inheritance of closure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })(); Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

    Read the article

  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

    - by rjovic
    Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

    Read the article

  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

    - by Meltemi
    I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Loading from archive?

    - by fuzzygoat
    Can anyone point me in the right direction, I have two sets of load/save methods below that I am playing with to save an array of objects out to disk and then load them back in. I am getting a little confused after calling "saveMoons" how I should go about loading that data back in ... any pointers would be great. -(void)saveMoons:(NSString *)savePath { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSKeyedArchiver *archiver = [[NSKeyedArchiver alloc] initForWritingWithMutableData:data]; [moons encodeWithCoder:archiver]; [archiver finishEncoding]; [data writeToFile:savePath atomically:YES]; [data release]; [archiver release]; } -(void)loadMoons:(NSString *)loadPath { NSMutableData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:loadPath]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; // [self setMoons:[unarchiver ??????]]; } . // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** // SIMPLER // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** -(void)saveMoons_SIMPLE:(NSString *)savePath { NSData *data = [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:moons]; [data writeToFile:savePath atomically:YES]; } -(void)loadMoons_SIMPLE:(NSString *)loadPath { [self setMoons:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:loadPath]]; } // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** // // ------------------------------------------------------------------- ** gary

    Read the article

  • How to manipulate a header and then continue with it in C#?

    - by Simon Linder
    Hi all, I want to replace an old ISAPI filter that ran on IIS6. This filter checks if the request is of a special kind, then manipulates the header and continues with the request. Two headers are added in the manipulating method that I need for calling another special ISAPI module. So I have ISAPI C++ code like: DWORD OnPreProc(HTTP_FILTER_CONTEXT *pfc, HTTP_FILTER_PREPROC_HEADERS *pHeaders) { if (ManipulateHeaderInSomeWay(pfc, pHeaders)) { return SF_STATUS_REQ_NEXT_NOTIFICATION; } return SF_STATUS_REQ_FINISHED; } I now want to rewrite this ISAPI filter as a managed module for the IIS7. So I have something like this: private void OnMapRequestHandler(HttpContext context) { ManipulateHeaderInSomeWay(context); } And now what? The request seems not to do what it should? I already wrote an IIS7 native module that implements the same method. But this method has a return value with which I can tell what to do next: REQUEST_NOTIFICATION_STATUS CMyModule::OnMapRequestHandler(IN IHttpContext *pHttpContext, OUT IMapHandlerProvider *pProvider) { if (DoSomething(pHttpContext)) { return RQ_NOTIFICATION_CONTINUE; } return RQ_NOTIFICATION_FINISH_REQUEST; } So is there a way to send my manipulated context again?

    Read the article

  • PostMessage does not seem to be working.

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use PostMessage to send a tab key. Here is my code: // This class allows us to send a tab key when the the enter key // is pressed for the mooseworks mask control. public class MaskKeyControl : MaskedEdit { // [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] // static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] // I am calling this on a Windows Mobile device so the dll is coredll.dll [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern bool PostMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); public const Int32 VK_TAB = 0x09; public const Int32 WM_KEYDOWN = 0x100; protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyData == Keys.Enter) { PostMessage(this.Handle, WM_KEYDOWN, VK_TAB, 0); return; } base.OnKeyDown(e); } protected override void OnKeyPress(KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar == '\r') e.Handled = true; base.OnKeyPress(e); } } When I press enter the code gets called, but nothing happens. Then I press TAB and it works fine. (So there is something wrong with my sending of the Tab Message.)

    Read the article

  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

    Read the article

  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

    Read the article

  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

    Read the article

  • special debugging lines (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

    Read the article

  • Method return type

    - by sarah xia
    Hi, In my company, a system is designed to have 3 layers. Layer1 is responsible for business logic handling. Layer3 is calling back end systems. Layer2 sits between the two layers so that layer1 doesn't need to know about the back end systems. To replay information from layer3, layer2 needs to define interface to layer1. For example, layer1 wants to check if a PIN from user is correct. It calls layer2 checkPin() method and then layer2 calls the relevant back end system. The checkPin() results could be: correctPin, inCorrectPin and internalError. At the moment, we defined the return type 'int'. So if layer2 returns 0, it means correctPin; if 1 is returned, it means inCorrectPin; if 9 is returned it means internalError. It works. However I feel a bit uneasy about this approach. Are there better ways to do it? For example define an enum CheckPinResult{CORRECT_PIN,INCORRECT_PIN,INTERNAL_ERROR}, and return CheckPinResult type? Thanks, Sarah

    Read the article

  • .NET assembly not loading from NTVDM

    - by John Reid
    I have a VDD dll that's loaded by a DOS program running inside the NTVDM. This dll uses C++/CLI and references a .NET assembly. All in all, the loading process is something like this: NTVDM runs: prntsr.com which uses VDD RegisterModule to load: prnvdd.dll which references .NET assembly: prnlib.dll The prntsr.com, prnvdd.dll and prnlib.dll files are all in the same folder. However, when loading it, I get the following exception: Unhandled Exception: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7' at VDD_Initialise() === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = DOMAIN\user LOG: DisplayName = PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf2 3cee305e91b7 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = NULL Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: No application configuration file found. LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7 LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib/PRNLib.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib/PRNLib.EXE. It only searches C:\WINDOWS\system32\ for the assembly, which I guess this is due to NTVDM.EXE - as this is the actual process that the assembly is being loaded into, it takes its location as the AppBase. Any ideas how to change the AppBase or otherwise work around this problem?

    Read the article

  • Does Java have dynamic variables for class members?

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, I am wondering whether it is possible to make dynamic variables in Java. In other words, variables that change depending on my instructions. FYI, I am making a trading program. A given merchant will have an array of items for sale for various prices. The dynamism I am calling for comes in because each category of items for sale has its own properties. For example, a book item has two properties: int pages, and boolean hardCover. In contrast, a bookmark item has one property, String pattern. Here are skeleton snippets of code so you can see what I am trying to do: public class Merchants extends /* certain parent class */ { // only 10 items for sale to begin with Stock[] itemsForSale = new Stock[10]; // Array holding Merchants public static Merchants[] merchantsArray = new Merchants[maxArrayLength]; // method to fill array of stock goes here } and public class Stock { int stockPrice; int stockQuantity; String stockType; // e.g. book and bookmark // Dynamic variables here, but they should only be invoked depending on stockType int pages; boolean hardCover; String pattern; }

    Read the article

  • Memory leak when returning object

    - by Yakattak
    I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

    Read the article

  • How to execute PHPUnit?

    - by user1280667
    PHPUnit can execute script like this: phpunit --log-junit classname filename.php (i need the XML report , for my continus integreation platform) but my problem is that i work with a MVC framework and all pages are called through pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className ect with 3 arguments in total(when i use the shell commande and path/index.php argum=... with url) so i cant call phpunit pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className . So i think to a lot of solution , i hope you can help me to use one of them. first how can i use phpunit commande with this type of calling, because i cant do it because he is waiting a classname and a filename (default comportement) if it possible !! when i call the same link in shell like this : php path/indexCLI.php module="blabla" ect ... i have the result of assertion in my consol , but cant use XML Junit option , can i do it ? my last solution is to call the link in a navigator like mozzila , but i dont know how to say to phpunit runner to chose XML report and not HTML report. the aim for me , is to have a XML report .

    Read the article

  • .Net Entity objectcontext thread error

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an n-layered asp.net application which returns an object from my DAL to the BAL like so: public IEnumerable<SourceKey> Get(SourceKey sk) { var query = from SourceKey in _dataContext.SourceKeys select SourceKey; if (sk.sourceKey1 != null) { query = from SourceKey in query where SourceKey.sourceKey1 == sk.sourceKey1 select SourceKey; } return query.AsEnumerable(); } This result passes through my business layer and hits the UI layer to display to the end users. I do not lazy load to prevent query execution in other layers of my application. I created another function in my DAL to delete objects: public void Delete(SourceKey sk) { try { _dataContext.DeleteObject(sk); _dataContext.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message + " " + ex.StackTrace + " " + ex.InnerException); } } When I try to call "Delete" after calling the "Get" function, I receive this error: New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session This is an ASP.Net app. My DAL contains an entity data model. The class in which I have the above functions share the same _dataContext, which is instantiated in my constructor. My guess is that the reader is still open from the "Get" function and was not closed. How can I close it?

    Read the article

  • jquery animation headache

    - by OneNerd
    Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

    Read the article

  • debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >