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  • Threading is slow and unpredictable?

    - by Jake
    I've created the basis of a ray tracer, here's my testing function for drawing the scene: public void Trace(int start, int jump, Sphere testSphere) { for (int x = start; x < scene.SceneWidth; x += jump) { for (int y = 0; y < scene.SceneHeight; y++) { Ray fired = Ray.FireThroughPixel(scene, x, y); if (testSphere.Intersects(fired)) sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Red); else sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Black); } } } SetPixel simply sets a value in a single dimensional array of colours. If I call the function normally by just directly calling it it runs at a constant 55fps. If I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 1, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); It runs at a constant 50fps which is fine and understandable, but when I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 2, testSphere)); Thread t2 = new Thread(() => Trace(1, 2, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); It runs all over the place, rapidly moving between 30-40 fps and sometimes going out of that range up to 50 or down to 20, it's not constant at all. Why is it running slower than it would if I ran the whole thing on a single thread? I'm running on a quad core i5 2500k.

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  • Add Ellipsis to a Path in a WinForms Program without Win32 API call (revisited)

    - by casterle
    I was searching for a way to insert an ellipsis in a C# path, and found an answer here on stackoverflow: http://tinyurl.com/y6rmdfr Using the RTM versions of VS2010 and .Net 4.0, I was unable to get the suggested method to work. I searched the 'Net and found example code that uses the same method, but it failed in the same way. You can see the string I'm trying to shorten in my code below. After calling the MeasureText method, both the input string (OriginalName) and the output string (ellipsisedName) look like this: d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\...\test.txt\0F\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt Two problems: 1) The resulting string is narfed (the path is truncated as expected, but is followed by what looks like a C-style terminating null and a chunk of the original path). 2) My original string is changed to be identical to the output string. Am I doing something wrong? namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); string OriginalPath = @"d:\abcd\efgh\ijkl\mnop\qrst\uvwx\yzAB\CDEF\GHIJ\KLMN\OPQR\STIV\WXYZ\test.txt"; string ellipsisedPath = OriginalPath; Size proposedSize = new Size(label1.Width, label1.Height); TextRenderer.MeasureText(ellipsisedPath, label1.Font, proposedSize, TextFormatFlags.ModifyString | TextFormatFlags.PathEllipsis); } } }

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • Developing cross platform mobile application

    - by sohilv
    More and more mobile platforms are being launched and sdk's are available to developers. There are various mobile platform are available, Android,iOS,Moblin,Windows mobile 7,RIM,symbian,bada,maemo etc. And making of corss platform application is headache for developers. I am searching common thing across the platforms which will help to developers who want to port application to all platforms.Like what is the diff screen resolution, input methods, open gl support etc. please share details that you know for the any of platform . or is there possibilities , by writing code in html (widget type of thing) and load it into native application. I know about the android , in which we can add the web view into application. by calling setContentView(view) Please share the class details where we can add the html view into native application of different type of platforms that you know. Purpose of this thread is share common details across developers. marking as community wiki. Cross platform tools & library XMLVM and iSpectrum (cross compile Java code from an Android app or creating one from scratch Phone Gap (cross platform mobile apps) Titanium (to build native mobile and desktop apps with web technologies) Mono Touch ( C# for iphone ) rhomobile - http://rhomobile.com/ samples are here: http://github.com/rhomobile/rhodes-system-api-samples Sencha Touch - Sencha Touch is a HTML5 mobile app framework that allows you to develop web apps that look and feel native on Apple iOS and Google Android touchscreen devices. http://www.sencha.com/products/touch/ Corona - Iphone/Ipad / Android application cross platform library . Too awesome. http://anscamobile.com/corona/ A guide to port existing Android app to Windows Phone 7 http://windowsphone.interoperabilitybridges.com/articles/windows-phone-7-guide-for-iphone-application-developers

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  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

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  • Enums, Constructor overloads with similar conversions.

    - by David Thornley
    Why does VisualC++ (2008) get confused 'C2666: 2 overloads have similar conversions' when I specify an enum as the second parameter, but not when I define a bool type? Shouldn't type matching already rule out the second constructor because it is of a 'basic_string' type? #include <string> using namespace std; enum EMyEnum { mbOne, mbTwo }; class test { public: #if 1 // 0 = COMPILE_OK, 1 = COMPILE_FAIL test(basic_string<char> myString, EMyEnum myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #else test(basic_string<char> myString, bool myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #endif }; void testme() { test("test", mbOne); } I can work around this by specifying a reference 'ie. basic_string &myString' but not if it is 'const basic_string &myString'. Also calling explicitly via "test((basic_string)"test", mbOne);" also works. I suspect this has something to do with every expression/type being resolved to a bool via an inherent '!=0'. Curious for comments all the same :)

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  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

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  • Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

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  • What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

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  • Generating dynamic css using php and javascript

    - by Onkar Deshpande
    I want to generate tooltip based on a dynamically changing background image in css. This is my my_css.php file. <?php header('content-type: text/css'); $i = $_GET['index']; if($i == 0) $bg_image_path = "../bg_red.jpg"; elseif ($i == 1) $bg_image_path = "../bg_yellow.jpg"; elseif ($i == 2) $bg_image_path = "../bg_green.jpg"; elseif ($i == 3) $bg_image_path = "../bg_blue.jpg"; ?> .tooltip { white-space: nowrap; color:green; font-weight:bold; border:1px solid black;; font-size:14px; background-color: white; margin: 0; padding: 7px 4px; border: 1px solid black; background-image: url(<?php echo $bg_image_path; ?>); background-repeat:repeat-x; font-family: Helvetica,Arial,Sans-Serif; font-family: Times New Roman,Georgia,Serif; filter:alpha(opacity=85); opacity:0.85; zoom: 1; } In order to use this css I added <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/my_css.php" type="text/css" media="screen" /> in my html <head> tag of javascript code. I am thinking of passing different values of 'index' so that it would generate the background image dynamically. Can anyone tell me how should I pass such values from a javascript ? I am creating the tooltip using var tooltip = document.createElement("div"); document.getElementById("map").appendChild(tooltip); tooltip.style.visibility="hidden"; and I think before calling this createElement, I should set background image.

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  • display tag query

    - by sarah
    I have code: <display:table name="sessionScope.allUserslist" id="userList" export="false" pagesize="1"> <display:column title="Select" style="width: 90px;"> <input type="checkbox" name="optionSelected" value="<c:out value='${userList.loginName}'/>"/> </display:column> <display:column property="loginName" sortable="false" title="UserName" paramId="loginName" style="width: 150px; text-align:center" href="./editUser.do?method=editUser"/> <display:column property="role" sortable="false" title="UserRole" paramId="role" style="width: 150px; text-align:center"/> </display:table> On click of login name, I am moving to a new page where I need to get all the of user, I am just getting the name not the role, on click of link I am calling an action where in the method I am trying to read the data from the form using User u=(User)form; u.getRole(); but it's null. Where am I going wrong ?

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

    - by Josh Kahane
    I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

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  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

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  • How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

    - by Philip
    I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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  • OO vs Simplicity when it comes to user interaction

    - by Oetzi
    Firstly, sorry if this question is rather vague but it's something I'd really like an answer to. As a project over summer while I have some downtime from Uni I am going to build a monopoly game. This question is more about the general idea of the problem however, rather than the specific task I'm trying to carry out. I decided to build this with a bottom up approach, creating just movement around a forty space board and then moving on to interaction with spaces. I realised that I was quite unsure of the best way of proceeding with this and I am torn between two design ideas: Giving every space its own object, all sub-classes of a Space object so the interaction can be defined by the space object itself. I could do this by implementing different land() methods for each type of space. Only giving the Properties and Utilities (as each property has unique features) objects and creating methods for dealing with the buying/renting etc in the main class of the program (or Board as I'm calling it). Spaces like go and super tax could be implemented by a small set of conditionals checking to see if player is on a special space. Option 1 is obviously the OO (and I feel the correct) way of doing things but I'd like to only have to handle user interaction from the programs main class. In other words, I don't want the space objects to be interacting with the player. Why? Errr. A lot of the coding I've done thus far has had this simplicity but I'm not sure if this is a pipe dream or not for larger projects. Should I really be handling user interaction in an entirely separate class? As you can see I am quite confused about this situation. Is there some way round this? And, does anyone have any advice on practical OO design that could help in general?

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  • Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

    - by Akusete
    Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

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  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

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  • Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

    - by konathamrajesh
    The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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  • XSLT: need to replace document('')

    - by Daziplqa
    I've the following xslt file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <!-- USDomesticCountryList - USE UPPERCASE LETTERS ONLY --> <xsl:variable name="USDomesticCountryList"> <entry name="US"/> <entry name="UK"/> <entry name="EG"/> </xsl:variable> <!--// USDomesticCountryList --> <xsl:template name="IsUSDomesticCountry"> <xsl:param name="countryParam"/> <xsl:variable name="country" select="normalize-space($countryParam)"/> <xsl:value-of select="normalize-space(document('')//xsl:variable[@name='USDomesticCountryList']/entry[@name=$country]/@name)"/> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I need to replace the "document('')" xpath function, what should I use instead? I've tried to remove it completely but the xsl document doesn't work for me! I need to to so because the problem is : I am using some XSLT document that uses the above file, say document a. So I have document a that includes the above file (document b). I am using doc a from java code, I am do Caching for doc a as a javax.xml.transform.Templates object to prevent multiple reads to the xsl file on every transformation request. I found that, the doc b is re-calling itself from the harddisk, I believe this is because of the document('') function above, so I wanna replace/remove it. Thanks.

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  • c# delegate and abstract class

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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  • Sending URL as a parameter using javascript

    - by Prashant Singh
    I have to send a name and a link from client side to the server. I thought of using AJAX called by Javascript to do this. This is what I mean. I wished to make an ajax request to a file called abc.php with parameters :- 1. http://thumbs2.ebaystatic.com/m/m7dFgOtLUUUSpktHRspjhXw/140.jpg 2. Apple iPod touch, 3rd generation, 32GB To begin with, I encoded the URL and tried to send it. But the server says status Forbidden Any solution to this ? UPDATE :: It end up calling to http://abc.com/addToWishlist.php?rand=506075547542422&image=http://thumbs1.ebaystatic.com/m/mO64jQrMqam2jde9aKiXC9A/140.jpg&prod=Flat%20USB%20Data%20Sync%20Charging%20Charger%20Cable%20Apple%20iPhone%204G%204S%20iPod%20Touch%20Nano Javascript Code :: function addToWishlist(num) { var myurl = "addToWishlist.php"; var myurl1 = myurl; myRand = parseInt(Math.random()*999999999999999); var rand = "?rand="+myRand ; var modurl = myurl1+ rand + "&image=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][1]) + "&prod=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][0]); httpq2.open("GET", modurl, true); httpq2.onreadystatechange = useHttpResponseq2; httpq2.send(null); } function useHttpResponseq2() { if (httpq2.readyState == 4) { if(httpq2.status == 200) { var mytext = httpq2.responseText; document.getElementById('wish' + num).innerHTML = "Added to your wishlist."; } } } Server Code <?php include('/home/ankit/public_html/connect_db.php'); $image = $_GET['image']; $prod = $_GET['prod']; $id = $_GET['id']; echo $prod; echo $image; ?> As I mentioned, its pretty basics More Updates : On trying to send a POST request via AJAX to the server, it says :- Refused to set unsafe header "Content-length" Refused to set unsafe header "Connection"

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